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• Retain, reuse, release?

  - by Typeoneerror

  I've got a series of buttons that each use a different image. Can I reuse a retained variable like this below: // set images UIImage *image = [[dice1 backgroundImageForState:UIControlStateHighlighted] retain]; [dice1 setBackgroundImage:image forState:(UIControlStateHighlighted|UIControlStateSelected)]; image = [dice2 backgroundImageForState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; [dice2 setBackgroundImage:image forState:(UIControlStateHighlighted|UIControlStateSelected)]; image = [dice3 backgroundImageForState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; [dice3 setBackgroundImage:image forState:(UIControlStateHighlighted|UIControlStateSelected)]; image = [dice4 backgroundImageForState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; [dice4 setBackgroundImage:image forState:(UIControlStateHighlighted|UIControlStateSelected)]; image = [dice5 backgroundImageForState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; [dice5 setBackgroundImage:image forState:(UIControlStateHighlighted|UIControlStateSelected)]; image = [dice6 backgroundImageForState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; [dice6 setBackgroundImage:image forState:(UIControlStateHighlighted|UIControlStateSelected)]; [image release]; or do I need to create a new UIImage for each image passed to each button's setBackgroundImage: like so: // set images UIImage *image1 = [dice1 backgroundImageForState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; [dice1 setBackgroundImage:image1 forState:(UIControlStateHighlighted|UIControlStateSelected)]; UIImage *image2 = [dice2 backgroundImageForState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; [dice2 setBackgroundImage:image forState:(UIControlStateHighlighted|UIControlStateSelected)]; and rely on autorelease rather than a retained UIImage. I'm not sure if assigning the image to a different UIImage would effect the retain count.

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• jquery: Writing a method

  - by Mark

  This is the same question as this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2890620/jquery-running-a-function-in-a-context-and-adding-to-a-variable But that question was poorly posed. Trying again, I'm trying to do something like this: I have a bunch of elements I want to grab data from, the data is in the form of classes of the element children. <div id='container'> <span class='a'></span> <span class='b'></span> <span class='c'></span> </div> <div id='container2'> <span class='1'></span> <span class='2'></span> <span class='3'></span> </div> I have a method like this: jQuery.fn.grabData = function(expr) { return this.each(function() { var self = $(this); self.find("span").each(function (){ var info = $(this).attr('class'); collection += info; }); }); }; I to run the method like this: var collection = ''; $('#container').grabData(); $('#container2').grabData(); The collection should be adding to each other so that in the end I get this console.log(collection); : abc123 But collection is undefined in the method. How can I let the method know which collection it should be adding to? Thanks.

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• Why Illegal cookies are send by Browser and received by web servers (rfc2109)?

  - by Artyom

  Hello, According to RFC 2109 cookie's value can be either HTTP token or quoted string, and token can't include non-ASCII characters. Cookie's RFC 2109: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2109#page-3 HTTP's RFC 2068 token definition: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2068#page-16 However I had found that Firefox browser (3.0.6) sends cookies with utf-8 string as-is and three web servers I tested (apache2, lighttpd, nginx) pass this string as-is to the application. For example, raw request from browser: $ nc -l -p 8080 GET /hello HTTP/1.1 Host: localhost:8080 User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (X11; U; Linux x86_64; en-US; rv:1.9.0.9) Gecko/2009050519 Firefox/2.0.0.13 (Debian-3.0.6-1) Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: windows-1255,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Cookie: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? Cache-Control: max-age=0 And raw response of apache, nginx and lighttpd HTTP_COOKIE CGI variable: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? What do I miss? Can somebody explain me?

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• XSLT: generate multiple object by incrementing attribute and value

  - by Daniel

  Hi, I have a xml as below that I'd like to copy n times while incrementing one of its element and one of its attribute. XML input: <Person position=1> <name>John</name> <number>1</number> <number>1</number> </Person> and I'd like something like below with the number of increment to be a variable. XML output: <Person position=1> <name>John</name> <number>1</number> </Person> <Person position=2> <name>John</name> <number>2</number> </Person> .... <Person position=n> <name>John</name> <number>n</number> </Person> Any clue

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• How do I use my own debugger visualiser to edit variables runtime?

  - by C Sharper

  I'm writing my own debugger visualiser. All works great to show up to visualiser with the data. Now I add the code for more clearness: public class MyVisualiserObjectSource : VisualizerObjectSource { public override void GetData(object target, Stream outgoingData) { string data= target as string; var writer = new StreamWriter(outgoingData); writer.Write(data); writer.Flush(); } } public class MyVirtualizer : DialogDebuggerVisualizer { protected override void Show(IDialogVisualizerService windowService, IVisualizerObjectProvider objectProvider) { var streamReader = new StreamReader(objectProvider.GetData()); string data = streamReader.ReadToEnd(); using (var form = new MyVirtualizerForm(data)) { windowService.ShowDialog(form); } } } The string here is passed to the visualizer and show my own form. It works. But now I want to pass back the modified data from the form to the variable. How do I do that? Edit: I found out that I need to override the TransferData method in VisualizerObjectSource. But in the MSDN is no detail information about how I implement this correctly. Can someone help me please?

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• MVVM Listbox DataTemplate SelectedItem

  - by StinkerPeter

  I am using a ListBox with a DataTemplate as shown below (xaml simplified and variable names changed). <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=ObservCollectionItems}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=SelectedItemVar, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="{Binding SomeVar}" /> <Border> <StackPanel> <Button Content="String1" Command="{Binding DataContext.Command1} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1}}" /> <Button Content="String2" Command="{Binding DataContext.Command2} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1}}" /> </StackPanel> </Border> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> I need the SelectedItemVar (dependency property) to update when I click on one of the buttons. SelectedItemVar is then used for the respective button's command. SelectedItemVar does update when I click on the TextBlock or the Border, but not when I click either button. I found a non-MVVM solution to this problem here. I do not want to add code in the file-behind to solve this, as they did in the link. Is there a clean solution that can be done in XAML. Beyond the non-MVVM solutions, I have not found anyone with this problem. I would have thought this was fairly common. Finally, I found this Command="{Binding DataContext.CommandName} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1} for the Command binding. I do not fully understand what it is doing, but I do know that the command wasn't firing when I was binding directly to CommandName.

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• How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0 - UPDATED

  - by Seth Spearman

  Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult ''#the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) ''#do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

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• Turning on multiple result sets in an ODBC connection to SQL Server

  - by David Griffiths

  I have an application that originally needed to connect to Sybase (via ODBC), but I've needed to add the ability to connect to SQL Server as well. As ODBC should be able to handle both, I thought I was in a good position. Unfort, SQL Server will not let me, by default, nest ODBC commands and ODBCDataReaders - it complains the connection is busy. I know that I had to specify that multiple active result sets (MARS) were allowed in similar circumstances when connecting to SQL Server via a native driver, so I thought it wouldn't be an issue. The DSN wizard has no entr y when creating a SystemDSN. Some people have provided registry hacks to get around this, but this did not work (add a MARS_Connection with a value of Yes to HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\ODBC\ODBC.INI\system-dsn-name). Another suggestion was to create a file-dsn, and add "MARS_Connection=YES" to that. Didn't work. Finally, a DSN-less connection string. I've tried this one (using MultipleActiveResultSets - same variable as a Sql Server connection would use), "Driver={SQL Native Client};Server=xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx;Database=someDB;Uid=u;Pwd=p;MultipleActiveResultSets=True;" and this one: "Driver={SQL Native Client};Server=192.168.75.33\\ARIA;Database=Aria;Uid=sa;Pwd=service;MARS_Connection=YES;" I have checked the various connection-string sites - they all suggest what I've already tried.

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• Are Dynamic Prepared Statements Bad? (with php + mysqli)

  - by John

  I like the flexibility of Dynamic SQL and I like the security + improved performance of Prepared Statements. So what I really want is Dynamic Prepared Statements, which is troublesome to make because bind_param and bind_result accept "fixed" number of arguments. So I made use of an eval() statement to get around this problem. But I get the feeling this is a bad idea. Here's example code of what I mean // array of WHERE conditions $param = array('customer_id'=>1, 'qty'=>'2'); $stmt = $mysqli->stmt_init(); $types = ''; $bindParam = array(); $where = ''; $count = 0; // build the dynamic sql and param bind conditions foreach($param as $key=>$val) { $types .= 'i'; $bindParam[] = '$p'.$count.'=$param["'.$key.'"]'; $where .= "$key = ? AND "; $count++; } // prepare the query -- SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE customer_id = ? AND qty = ? $sql = "SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE ".substr($where, 0, strlen($where)-4); $stmt->prepare($sql); // assemble the bind_param command $command = '$stmt->bind_param($types, '.implode(', ', $bindParam).');'; // evaluate the command -- $stmt->bind_param($types,$p0=$param["customer_id"],$p1=$param["qty"]); eval($command); Is that last eval() statement a bad idea? I tried to avoid code injection by encapsulating values behind the variable name $param. Does anyone have an opinion or other suggestions? Are there issues I need to be aware of?

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• Finding the Column Index for a Specific Value

  - by Btibert3

  Hi All, I am having a brain cramp. Below is a toy dataset: df <- data.frame( id = 1:6, v1 = c("a", "a", "c", NA, "g", "h"), v2 = c("z", "y", "a", NA, "a", "g"), stringsAsFactors=F) I have a specific value that I want to find across a set of defined columns and I want to identify the position it is located in. The fields I am searching are characters and the trick is that the value I am looking for might not exist. In addition, null strings are also present in the dataset. Assuming I knew how to do this, the variable position indicates the values I would like returned. > df id v1 v2 position 1 1 a z 1 2 2 a y 1 3 3 c a 2 4 4 <NA> <NA> 99 5 5 g a 2 6 6 h g 99 The general rule is that I want to find the position of value "a", and if it is not located or if v1 is missing, then I want 99 returned. In this instance, I am searching across v1 and v2, but in reality, I have 10 different variables. It is also worth noting that the value I am searching for can only exist once across the 10 variables. What is the best way to generate this recode? Many thanks in advance.

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• Anchor tags are blank

  - by ryanday

  I'm having a problem where the my anchor tags sometimes aren't displaying their links. This is happening on Mobile Safari on multiple iPhones, and in the iPhone simulator. I'm using jQtouch r147, PhoneGap, and jQuery 1.4.2. I'm generating the data from a database call, and adding anchor tags to a list like this: for(var i=0;i<data.rows.length;i++) { var item = $('<li></li>'); var name = data.rows.item(i).name; var anchor = $('<a href="#lpage">'+name+'</a>'); item.addClass('arrow'); // This line always displays the name, even when I can't see // the name in the browser debug.log('The name: ' + name); (function(info) { anchor.bind('tap', function(e) { debug.log('Touch start ' + info.id); }); })(data.rows.item(i)); item.append(anchor); if( anchor.html() == null ) { debug.log('html is blank'); } $('#myUL').append(item); } Sometimes my list of names shows fine(http://imagebin.org/101462), and sometimes it is just blank(http://imagebin.org/101464). When the list is blank, I see the debug.log() line show me 'html is blank', and I also see the log line show me that the variable 'name' does, in fact, contain a valid name. When I check for anchor.html() == null, I've also tried to .remove() the anchor tag, and re-create it. But it always comes back without the name displayed. This happens on the mobile device and in the simulator, but I've never seen it happen in Safari or in Chrome. Has anyone seen something like this? I can't find the cause, and I can't get it to stop. Thank you for any ideas or suggestions!

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• RegisterClientScriptInclude doesn't work for some reason...

  - by Andrew

  Hey, I've spent at least 2 days trying anything and googling this...but for some reason I can't get RegisterClientScriptInclude to work the way everyone else has it working? First off, I am usting .NET 3.5 Ajax,...and I am including javascript in my partial page refreshes...using this code: ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock(this, typeof(Page), "MyClientCode", script, true); It works perfectly, my javascript code contained in the script variable is included every partial refresh. The javascript in script is actually quite extensive though, and I would like to store it in a .js file,..so logically I make a .js file and try to include it using RegisterClientScriptInclude ...however i can't for the life of my get this to work. here's the exact code: ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptInclude(this, typeof(Page), "mytestscript", "/js/testscript.js"); the testscript.js file is only included in FULL page refreshes...ie. when I load the page, or do a full postback....i can't get the file to be included in partial refreshes...have no idea why..when viewing the ajax POST in firebug I don't see a difference whether I include the file or not.... both of the ScriptManager Includes are being ran from the exact same place in "Page_Load"...so they should execute every partial refresh (but only the ScriptBlock does). anyways,..any help or ideas,..or further ways I can trouble shoot this problem, would be appreciated. Thanks, Andrew

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• Varchar columns: Nullable or not.

  - by NYSystemsAnalyst

  The database development standards in our organization state the varchar fields should not allow null values. They should have a default value of an empty string (""). I know this makes querying and concatenation easier, but today, one of my coworkers questioned me about why that standard only existed for varchar types an not other datatypes (int, datetime, etc). I would like to know if others consider this to be a valid, defensible standard, or if varchar should be treated the same as fields of other data types? I believe this standard is valid for the following reason: I believe that an empty string and null values, though technically different, are conceptually the same. An empty, zero length string is a string that does not exist. It has no value. However, a numeric value of 0 is not the same as NULL. For example, if a field called OutstandingBalance has a value of 0, it means there are $0.00 remaining. However, if the same field is NULL, that means the value is unknown. On the other hand, a field called CustomerName with a value of "" is basically the same as a value of NULL because both represent the non-existence of the name. I read somewhere that an analogy for an empty string vs. NULL is that of a blank CD vs. no CD. However, I believe this to be a false analogy because a blank CD still phyically exists and still has physical data space that does not have any meaningful data written to it. Basically, I believe a blank CD is the equivalent of a string of blank spaces (" "), not an empty string. Therefore, I believe a string of blank spaces to be an actual value separate from NULL, but an empty string to be the absense of value conceptually equivalent to NULL. Please let me know if my beliefs regarding variable length strings are valid, or please enlighten me if they are not. I have read several blogs / arguments regarding this subject, but still do not see a true conceptual difference between NULLs and empty strings.

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• Netbeans PHP Validation sees endif as a syntax error

  - by Asaf

  I have this part of code <?php for ($j=0; $j < $count; $j++): ?> <?php if(isset(votes[$j])): ?> <dt>something something</dt> <dd> <span><?php echo $result; ?>%</span> <div class="bar"> </div> </dd> <?php else: ?> <dt>info</dt> <dd> <span>0</span> <div class="bar"> <div style="width: 0px"></div> </div> </dd> <?php endif; ?> <?php endfor; ?> now Netbeans insists that on the endif line (near the end) there's a syntax error: Error Syntax error: expected: exit, identifier, variable, function... Is there some sort of known problem with the validation of endif on Netbeans ?

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• Sliding & hiding multiple panels in jQuery.

  - by lloydphillips

  I have a table with multiple rows in each row is a select list and based on the selection (when the onchange event is fired) panels appear containing additional data below the row.I currently have code like this: var allPnls = '.inv-dtl-comnts-add,.inv-dtl-comnts-update'; $(document).ready(function(){ hideAll(); //select action change $(".inv-dtl-ddlaction").change(onSelectChange); $(".btn-cancel").click(function(event){ slideAll(); $(".inv-dtl-ddlaction").val('[Select an Action]'); return false; }); }); function onSelectChange(event){ //find out which select item was clicked switch($(this).val()) { case 'View/Add Comment': $(this).closest(".row").children(allPnls).slideUp("fast", function(){ $(this).closest(".row").children(".inv-dtl-comnts-add").slideToggle("fast"); }); break; case 'Change Status': $(this).closest(".row").children(allPnls).slideUp("fast", function(){ $(this).closest(".row").children(".inv-dtl-comnts-update").slideToggle("fast"); }); break; default: //code to be executed if n is different from case 1 and 2 } } function hideAll(){ $(allPnls).hide(); } function slideAll(){ $(allPnls).slideUp("fast"); } So I'm hiding all the panels when the page loads and if a panel is already open I want to slide it shut before reopening the new panel. This works with the postback. With just one panel in the selection it worked great but with two panels the sliding up happens twice (it seems to slide down unopened panels before sliding them back up again). How can I adjust this so that I can get all panels listed in the variable allPnls to slide shut ONLY if they are already open? Is there a better way of sliding the panels shut and then having a callback to have the slideToggle work? Lloyd

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• Read a specific range of lines from a file using c

  - by James Joy

  I have the following content in a file: hhasfghgsafjgfhgfhjf gashghfdgdfhgfhjasgfgfhsgfjdg jfshafghgfgfhfsghfgffsjgfj . . . . . startread hajshjsfhajfhjkashfjf hasjgfhgHGASFHGSHF hsafghfsaghgf . . . . . stopread . . . . . . jsfjhfhjgfsjhfgjhsajhdsa jhasjhsdabjhsagshaasgjasdhjk jkdsdsahghjdashjsfahjfsd I need to read the lines from the next line of startread till the previous line of stopread using a c code and store it to a string variable(of course with a \n for every line breaks). How can i achieve this? I have used fgets(line,sizeof(line),file); but it starts reading from the beginning. I don't have the exact line number to start and stop reading since the file is written by another C code. But there are these identifiers startread and stopread to identify whereto start reading. Operating platform is linux. Thanks in advance.

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• How can I get vim to draw lines correctly for remote editing?

  - by Rick Reynolds

  I'm attempting to edit files on a remote system. I've ssh'd to the system and I start editing with vim. However, I notice that all the lines are drawing 2 lines above where they really exist in the file. I assumed this was a problem I could fix by dropping my terminal settings to something simpler, but that didn't help. My TERM variable was set to xterm-color. I set it to vt100, but that didn't fix the line drawing issue. I also noticed that this seems to be specific to vim. emacs doesn't show the problem, and I haven't noticed any odd drawing artifacts in less, more or other paging tools. Other specifics: I'm ssh-ing into the remote system from a Mac, using the Terminal.app. The remote system is running Ubuntu 9.04. I'm hoping there is something I just need to set in vim to get it to play nice. If it allows me to keep syntax color highlighting, so much the better.

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• [iText] Inserting Image onCloseDocument

  - by David

  I'm trying to insert an image in the footer of my document using iText's onCloseDocument event. I have the following code: public void onCloseDocument(PdfWriter writer, Document document) { PdfContentByte pdfByte = writer.getDirectContent(); try { // logo is a non-null global variable Image theImage = new Jpeg(logo); pdfByte.addImage(theImage, 400.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 400.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } The code throws no exceptions, but it also fails to insert the image. This identical code is used onOpenDocument to insert the same logo. The only difference between the two methods are the coordinates in pdfByte.addImage. However, I've tried quite a few different coordinations in onCloseDocument and none of them appear anywhere in my document. Is there any troubleshooting technique for detecting content which is displayed off-page in a PDF? If not, can anyone see the problem with my onCloseDocument method? Edit: As a followup, it seems that onDocumentClose puts its content on page document.length() + 1 (according to its API). However, I don't know how to change the page number back to document.length() and place my logo on the last page.

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• Reporting Services - can't group by a column called "LanguageId"

  - by marc_s

  Folks, I have a really odd behavior here: I have a SQL Server 2008 Reporting Services report which gets grouped and sorted dynamically. One of the column in my data set which I display is called LanguageId and I was trying to get a grouping going by this LanguageId field. I checked, double-checked and triple-checked the data being returned - it does contain my expected values for LanguageId and everything seems fine and dandy. It just never worked - I didn't get the expected groups, I got things like a specific node actually changing its display value from one ID to another when expanding its subitems, and other really whacky stuff. I discovered that grouping and sorting by LanguageCaption works just fine. It also started working fine after I renamed LanguageId to MyLanguageId. So where on earth is this documented that LanguageId appears to be a system variable / reserved word / keyword of some sort in SQL Server Reporting Services that must be avoided at all costs?? I can't seem to find anything on that topic - even Mr. Google and Mrs. Bing came up empty so far....

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• Can I avoid explicitly casting objects with a common subclass?

  - by prendio2

  I have an iPodLibraryGroup object and Artist and Album both inherit from it. When it comes to my view controllers though I find that I'm duplicate lots of code, for example I have an ArtistListViewController and and AlbumListViewController even though they're both doing basically the same thing. The reason I've ended up duplicating the code is because these view controllers each refer to either an Artist object or al Album object and I'm not sure how to set it up so that one view controller could handle both — these view controllers are mainly accessing methods that that the objects have in common from iPodLibraryGroup. As an example, to hopefully make this clearer consider this code in AlbumListViewController: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { Album *album = nil; album = [self albumForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath inTableView:tableView]; … if (!album.thumbnail) { [self startThumbnailDownload:album forIndexPath:indexPath inTableView:tableView]; cell.imageView.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"Placeholder.png"]; } else { cell.imageView.image = album.thumbnail; } return cell; } This is essentially completely repeated (along with a hell of a lot more repeated code) in ArtistListViewController just so that I can typecast the local variable as an Artist instead of an Album. Is there a way to not explicitly need to set Artist or Album here so that the same code could work for any object that is a child of iPodLibraryGroup?

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• "Android Create" call fails in windows 7 - missing JDK

  - by reuscam

  I'm having a problem getting my android dev environment setup in Windows 7. I follow the instructions here, as well as several environment sublinks. I am using Eclipse with the Android plugin. I have installed the Java JDK several times, in various locations (jdk-6u20-windows-i586.exe) - but I am obviously missing something. Every time I run "android create avd --target 2 --name my_avd" I get an error: C:\Users\andrew>android create avd --target 2 --name my_avd WARNING: Java not found in your path. Checking it it's installed in C:\Program Files\Java instead. ERROR: No suitable Java found. In order to properly use the Android Developer Tools, you need a suitable version of Java installed on your system. We recommend that you install the JDK version of JavaSE, available here: http://java.sun.com/javase/downloads/ You can find the complete Android SDK requirements here: http://developer.android.com/sdk/requirements.html This error message is the reason for me installing the JDK several times over. First I tried installing to a location on my e: drive. I then moved it to the default loc (program files (x86)\java\jdk.6.something. I also tried forcing it to go into the program files\ path, but it still automatically installs into the (x86) path. I have added the install path to my path environment variable every single time, yet I still continue to get this error. My suspicion is that windows 7 and the android tools are not playing together well in terms of finding the JDK, but who knows, it may be something entirely different. If you have seen this error before, I would appreciate a hint.

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• Best practice for inserting large chunks of HTML into elements with Javscript?

  - by hamstar

  Hey guys. I'm building a web application (using prototype) at the moment that requires the addition of large chunks of HTML into the DOM. Most of these are rows that contain elements with all manner of attributes. Currently I keep a blank row of html in a variable and var blankRow = '<tr><td>' +'<a href="{LINK}" onclick="someFunc(\'{STRING}\');">{WORD}</a>' +'</td></tr>'; function insertRow(o) { newRow = blankRow .sub('{LINK}',o.link) .sub('{STRING}',o.string) .sub('{WORD}',o.word); $('tbodyElem').insert( newRow ); } Now that works all well and dandy, but is it the best practice? I have to update the code in the blankRow when I update code on the page, so the new elements being inserted are the same. It gets sucky when I have like 40 lines of HTML to go in a blankRow and then I have to escape it too. Is there an easier way? I was thinking of urlencoding and then decoding it before insertion but that would still mean a blankRow and lots of escaping. What would be mean would be a eof function a la PHP et al. $blankRow = <<<EOF text text EOF; That would mean no escaping but it would still need a blankRow. What do you do in this situation?

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• Navigating through code with keyboard shortcuts

  - by MarceloRamires

  I'm starting to feel the need to run fastly through code with keyboard shortcuts, to arrive faster where I want to make any changes (avoiding use of mouse or long times holding [up], [left], [right] and [down]). I'm already using some: [home] - first position in current line [end] - last position in current line [ctrl] + [home] - first line of the entire code [ctrl] + [end] - last line of the entire code [pageup] - same vertical position, one screen above [pagedown] - same vertical position, one screen below [ctrl] + [pageup] - first line in current screen [ctrl] + [end] - last line in current screen [ctrl] + [left/right] - skipping word per word What have you got ? I use Visual Studio. (but I'm open to any answer, as I maybe can use others soon) obs: I've searched through stackoverflow and didn't find a nice question with this content, nor a list of keyboard code searching. If it's repeated, I'm sorry for not finding it, I'm here in my best intentions. This question is NOT about any shortcuts, and not only about visual studio, it's about running through code with shortcuts. Answers that suit the question so far: [Ctrl] + [-] - jumps to last cursor position [Ctrl] + [F3] - Jumps to next occurance of the word the curson is in [Shift] + [F3] - Same as the above, backwards. [F12] - Goes to definition of method/variable the cursor is in [Ctrl] + [ ] ] - Jumps to matching brace and select I'll ad more as there are answers.

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• Best method to select an object from another unknown jQuery object

  - by Yosi

  Lets say I have a jQuery object/collection stored in a variable named obj, which should contain a DOM element with an id named target. I don't know in advance if target will be a child in obj, i.e.: obj = $('<div id="parent"><div id="target"></div></div>'); or if obj equals target, i.e.: obj = $('<div id="target"></div>'); or if target is a top-level element inside obj, i.e.: obj = $('<div id="target"/><span id="other"/>'); I need a way to select target from obj, but I don't know in advance when to use .find and when to use .filter. What would be the fastest and/or most concise method of extracting target from obj? What I've come up with is: var $target = obj.find("#target").add(obj.filter("#target")); UPDATE I'm adding solutions to a JSPERF test page to see which one is the best. Currently my solution is still the fastest. Here is the link, please run the tests so that we'll have more data: http://jsperf.com/jquery-selecting-objects

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• SQL: select rows with the same order as IN clause

  - by Andrea3000

  I know that this question has been asked several times and I've read all the answer but none of them seem to completely solve my problem. I'm switching from a mySQL database to a MS Access database with MS SQL. In both of the case I use a php script to connect to the database and perform SQL queries. I need to find a suitable replacement for a query I used to perform on mySQL. I want to: perform a first query and order records alphabetically based on one of the columns construct a list of IDs which reflects the previous alphabetical order perform a second query with the IN clause applied with the IDs' list and ordered by this list. In mySQL I used to perform the last query this way: SELECT name FROM users WHERE id IN ($name_ids) ORDER BY FIND_IN_SET(id,'$name_ids') Since FIND_IN_SET is available only in mySQL and CHARINDEX and PATINDEX are not available from my php script, how can I achieve this? I know that I could write something like: SELECT name FROM users WHERE id IN ($name_ids) ORDER BY CASE id WHEN ... THEN 1 WHEN ... THEN 2 WHEN ... THEN 3 WHEN ... THEN 4 END but you have to consider that: IDs' list has variable length and elements because it depends on the first query that list can easily contains thousands of elements Have you got any hint on this? Is there a way to programmatically construct the ORDER BY CASE ... WHEN ... statement? Is there a better approach since my list of IDs can be big?

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