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  • Filtering null values with pig

    - by arianp
    It looks like a silly problem, but I can´t find a way to filter null values from my rows. This is the result when I dump the object geoinfo: DUMP geoinfo; ([longitude#70.95853,latitude#30.9773]) ([longitude#-9.37944507,latitude#38.91780853]) (null) (null) (null) ([longitude#-92.64416,latitude#16.73326]) (null) (null) ([longitude#-9.15199849,latitude#38.71179122]) ([longitude#-9.15210796,latitude#38.71195131]) here is the description DESCRIBE geoinfo; geoinfo: {geoLocation: bytearray} What I'm trying to do is to filter null values like this: geoinfo_no_nulls = FILTER geoinfo BY geoLocation is not null; but the result remains the same. nothing is filtered. I also tried something like this geoinfo_no_nulls = FILTER geoinfo BY geoLocation != 'null'; and I got an error org.apache.pig.backend.executionengine.ExecException: ERROR 1071: Cannot convert a map to a String What am I doing wrong? details, running on ubuntu, hadoop-1.0.3 with pig 0.9.3 pig -version Apache Pig version 0.9.3-SNAPSHOT (rexported) compiled Oct 24 2012, 19:04:03 java version "1.6.0_24" OpenJDK Runtime Environment (IcedTea6 1.11.4) (6b24-1.11.4-1ubuntu0.12.04.1) OpenJDK 64-Bit Server VM (build 20.0-b12, mixed mode)

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  • AIX specific socket programming query

    - by kumar_m_kiran
    Hi All, Question 1 From SUSE man pages, I get the below details for socket connect options If the initiating socket is connection-mode, then connect() shall attempt to establish a connection to the address specified by the address argument. If the connection cannot be established immediately and O_NONBLOCK is not set for the file descriptor for the socket, connect() shall block for up to an unspecified timeout interval until the connection is established. If the timeout interval expires before the connection is established, connect() shall fail and the connection attempt shall be aborted. If connect() is interrupted by a signal that is caught while blocked waiting to establish a connection, connect() shall fail and set errno to [EINTR], but the connection request shall not be aborted, and the connection shall be established asynchronously. Question : Is the above contents valid for AIX OS (especially the connection time-out, timed wait ...etc)?Because I do not see it in AIX man pages (5.1 and 5.3) Question 2 I have a client socket whose attributes are a. SO_RCVTIMEO ,SO_SNDTIMEO are set for 5 seconds. b. AF_INET and SOCK_STREAM. c. SO_LINGER with linger on and time is 5 seconds. d. SO_REUSEADDR is set. Note that the client socket is not O_NONBLOCK. Question : Now since O_NONBLOCK is not set and SO_RCVTIMEO and SO_SNDTIMEO is set for 5 seconds, does it mean a. connect in NON Blocking or Blocking? b. If blocking, is it timed blocking or "infinite" time blocking? c. If it is infinite, How do I establish a "connect" system call which is O_BLOCKING with timeout to t secs. Sorry if the questions are be very naive. Thanks in advance for your input.

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  • C++ MFC server app with sockets crashes and I cannot find the fault, help!

    - by usermeister
    My program has one dialog and two sockets. Both sockets are derived from CAsyncSocket, one is for listening, other is for receiving data from client. My program crashes when client tries to connect to server application and server needs to initialize receiving socket. This is my MFC dialog class. class CFileTransferServerDlg : public CDialog { ... ListeningSocket ListenSock; ReceivingSocket* RecvSock; void OnAccept(); // called when ListenSock gets connection attempt ... }; This is my derived socket class for receiving data that calls parent dialogs method when event is signaled. class ReceivingSocket : public CAsyncSocket { CFileTransferServerDlg* m_pDlg; // for accessing parent dialogs controls virtual void OnReceive(int nErrorCode); } ReceivingSocket::ReceivingSocket() { } This is dialogs function that handles incoming connection attempt when listening socket gets event notification. This is where the crash happens. void CFileTransferServerDlg::OnAccept() { RecvSock = new ReceivingSocket; /* CRASH */ } OR void CFileTransferServerDlg::OnAccept() { ReceivingSocket* tmpSock = new ReceivingSocket; tmpSock->SetParentDlg(this); CString message; if( ListenSock.Accept(*tmpSock) ) /* CRASH */ { message.LoadStringW(IDS_CLIENT_CONNECTED); m_txtStatus.SetWindowTextW(message); RecvSock = tmpSock; } } My program crashes when I try to create a socket for receiving file sent from client application. OnAccept starts when Listening socket signals incoming connection attempt, but my application then crashes. I've tried running it on another computer and connection attempt was succesful. What could be wrong? Error in debug mode: Unhandled exception at 0x009c30e1 in FileTransferServer.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0xccccce58.

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  • Micrsoft Silverlight 3 cannot create service reference to localhost:port

    - by Monte
    Windows Server 2003 (IIS 6) Visual Studio 2008 .NET FrameWork 3.5 SP1 I am a .NET developer for a living and I have over 40 hours in the problem Project type = "Silverlight Navigation Application", "APS.NET Web Site" (when I tried it as "ASP.NET Web Application Project" I could not copy it to the production web site - well I could copy it but I could not make it run) Created a service.cs on the .Web side of the application. Created a reference to that service.cs on the Silverlight side. For a time all is good as I can reference the service as localhost:port (e.g. localhost:1374) in Visual Studio and debug both Silverlight side and service.cs To access the application in production mode (from IE) I update the service refrence and replace localhost:port with the IP address. The problem with the IP address is I cannot debug the service.cs so I have to change it back to localhost:port to debug. Now to the problem. After a period of time localhost:port just plain breaks. I get an error message no service at the other end Yes I know the port can change - that is not the problem - the port on the service side just plain breaks! For example from Visual Studio from the Silverlight side of the project right click "Service Reference", "Add Service Reverence". It finds 1 service in the application on a port. But when I click that service under "Services:" in the modal dialog box "Add Service Reference" I get an error: There was an error downloading 'http://localhost:1377/SehaleCSS.Web/Service.svc'. The request failed with the error message: -- Could not load file or assembly 'App_Web_tipnndfq, If I go back to the IP address the service is repsponding (with the right answer) The service just plain goes a while responding to localhost:port and then fails Even making NO change to service.cs it go a while then fails as a localhost:port It is not IIS environmental as I can go back to a prior saved version of the code and it works Something is happening that the .web side of the application is failing. It still works as an IP and it still exposes itself as a localhost:port but it fails to properly repsonde as a localhost:port.

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  • Does tableViewController behave incorrectly when hosted by a popoverController?

    - by dugla
    I have made countless test examples of a tableViewController hosted by a popoverController and I have come to the following conclusion: It does not appear possible to pre-select a tableView cell. It is possible to do pre-selection when a tableViewController is hosted by a splitviewController. I am using the exact same tableViewController code. Here is the relevant tableViewController view lifecycle method that is misbehaving: static BOOL firstTime = YES; - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { NSLog(@"Root ViewController - view Did Appear"); [super viewDidAppear:animated]; if (firstTime == YES) { firstTime = NO; NSIndexPath *preselectedCell = [NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:5 inSection:0]; [self.tableView selectRowAtIndexPath:preselectedCell animated:NO scrollPosition:UITableViewScrollPositionTop]; detailViewController.detailItem = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Row %d", preselectedCell.row]; } // if (firstTime == YES) } The above code correctly preselects a tableView cell the first time the tableView is unfurled in the splitViewController case (device in portrait mode). Can someone please, please, explain what I am doing wrong. I am completely stumped. Thanks, Doug

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  • Finding out the windows group by virtue of which a user is able to access a database in sql server?

    - by Raghu Dodda
    There is a SQL Server 2005 database with mixed-mode authentication. Among others, we have the following logins on the server: our-domain\developers-group-1, and our-domain\developers-group-2 which are AD groups. The our-domain\developer-group-2 is added to the sysadmin role on the server, by virture of which all domain users of that group can access any database as SQL Server implictly maps the sysadmin role to the dbo user in each database. There are two users our-domain\good-user and our-domain\bad-user The issue is the following: Both the good-user and the bad-user have the exact same AD group memberships. They are both members of our-domain\developers-group-1 and our-domain\developers-group-2. The good-user is able to access all the databases, and the bad-user is not. The bad-user is able to login, but he is unable access any databases. By the way, I am the good-user. How do I go about finding out why? Here's what I tried so far: When I do print current_user, I get dbo When I do print system_user, I get my-domain\good-user When I do select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I see permissions. But if do execute as user='my-domain\good-user'; select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I dont see any permisisons. And When I do, execute as user='my-domain\bad-user'; select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I dont see any permisisons. Also, I was wondering if there is a sql command that will tell me, "hey! the current database user is able to access this database because he is a member such-and-such ad-group, which is a login that is mapped to such-and-such user in this database".

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  • In Firefox, how to bring an existing popup window with multiple tabs to the front using javascript f

    - by brahn
    I would like to have a button on a web page with the following behavior: On the first click, open a pop-up. On later clicks, if the pop-up is still open, just bring it to the front. If not, re-open. The below code generally works in Firefox, Safari, and IE8 (see here for Chrome woes). However, I have found a failure mode in Firefox that I don't know how to deal with: If for some reason the user has opened a second tab in the pop-up window and that second tab has focus within that window, the popupWindow.focus() command fails to have any effect. (If the first tab has focus within that window, everything works just great.) So, how can I focus the popup and the desired tab in Firefox? <head> <script type="text/javascript"> var popupWindow = null; var doPopup = function () { if (popupWindow && !popupWindow.closed) { popupWindow.focus(); } else { popupWindow = window.open("http://google.com", "_blank", "width=200,height=200"); } }; </script> </head> <body> <button onclick="doPopup(); return false"> create a pop-up </button> </body> Background: I am re-asking this question specifically for Google Chrome, as I think I my code solves the problem at least for other modern browsers and IE8. If there is a preferred etiquette for doing so, please let me know.

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  • IE6: Height "1em minus 1px"

    - by chris_l
    I need a div with a height of exactly 1em minus 1px. This can be achieved in most browsers like this: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <style type="text/css"> .helper { /* background-color: black; */ position: absolute; top: 5em; left: 5em; width: 2em; height: 1em; } .target { background-color: #89f; position: absolute; top: 0; bottom: 1px; width: 100%; } </style> </head> <body> <div class="helper"> <div class="target"></div> </div> </body> </html> The "target" div has the desired height. The problem is, that this doesn't work in IE6, because it ignores the bottom attribute, when top is set (a well known problem). Is there a workaround for IE6 (maybe with multiple nested divs, with borders/paddings/margins/whatever), or will JavaScript be the only solution? Please note, that I can't use Quirks Mode.

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  • Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

    - by Tony_Henrich
    My web service app on my Windows XP box is trying to log in to my sql server 2005 database on the same box. The machine is part of a domain. I am logged in in the domain and I am an admin on my machine. I am using Windows Authentication in my connection string as in "Server=myServerAddress;Database=myDataBase;Trusted_Connection=True". SQLServer is configured for both types of authentication (mixed mode) and accepts remote connections and accepts tcp and named pipes protocols. Integrated authentication is enabled in IIS and with and without anonymous access. 'Everyone' has access to computer from network setting in local security settings. ASPNET is a user in the sql server and has access to the daatabase. user is mapped to the login. The app works fine for other developers which means the app shouldn't be changed (It's not new code). So it seems it's my machine which has an issue. I am getting the error "Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection" Note the blank user name. Why am I getting this error when both the app and database are on my machine? I can use SQL Server authentication but don't want to. I can connect to the database using SSMS and my Windows credentials. It might be related to setspn, kerberos, delegation, AD. I am not sure what further checks to make?

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  • Problem consuming a dataset via a .NET web service from Flex-ActionScript

    - by DEH
    Hi, I am returning a .NET dataset to Flex Actionscript via a web service. Actionscript snippet as follows: var websvc:WebService = new WebService(); websvc.useProxy=false; websvc.wsdl = "http://localhost:13229/test/mysvc.asmx?WSDL"; websvc.loadWSDL(); var operation:Operation = new Operation(null, "GetData"); operation.arguments.command="xx_gethierdata_"+mode+"_"+identifier; operation.addEventListener(ResultEvent.RESULT, onResultHandler, false, 0, true); operation.addEventListener(FaultEvent.FAULT, onFaultHandler, false, 0, true); operation.resultFormat="object"; websvc.operations = [operation]; operation.send(); Once in the onResultHandler function I have access to the datatable - I then want to grab the column names. The following code outputs my column names: for each (var tcolumn:Object in datatable.Columns){trace('Column:'+tcolumn);} This works ok, but the column names are encoded, so a column name that is actually "1-9" is output as "_x005B_1-9_x005D_" Anyone know the best way to decode the column name? I could replace all the encoding strings, but surely there is a better way? Thanks

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  • Executing a process in windows server 2003 and ii6 from code - permissions error

    - by kurupt_89
    I have a problem executing a process from our testing server. On my localhost using windows XP and iis5.1 I changed the machine.config file to have the line - I then changed the login for iis to log on as local system account and allow server to interact with desktop. This fixed my problem executing a process from code in xp. When using the same method on windows server 2003 (using iis6 isolation mode) the process does not get executed. Here is the code to execute the process (I have tested the inputs to iecapt through the command line and an image is generated) - public static void GenerateImageToDisk(string ieCaptPath, string url, string path, int delay) { url = FixUrl(url); ieCaptPath = FixPath(ieCaptPath); string arguments = @"--url=""{0}"" --out=""{1}"" --min-width=0 --delay={2}"; arguments = string.Format(arguments, url, path, delay); ProcessStartInfo ieCaptProcessStartInfo = new ProcessStartInfo(ieCaptPath + "IECapt.exe"); ieCaptProcessStartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = true; ieCaptProcessStartInfo.WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Hidden; ieCaptProcessStartInfo.UseShellExecute = false; ieCaptProcessStartInfo.Arguments = arguments; ieCaptProcessStartInfo.WorkingDirectory = ieCaptPath; Process ieCaptProcess = Process.Start(ieCaptProcessStartInfo); ieCaptProcess.WaitForExit(600000); ieCaptProcess.Close(); }

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  • Leftover Nav Bar in Landscape View

    - by Rob Bonner
    Hello, I am working to force a view into landscape mode, and have picked up all kinds of cool tips to make this happen, but am stuck on one item that is left on the screen. I have my XIB file laid out in landscape, and in my code I create the view controller normally: RedeemViewController *aViewController = [[RedeemViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"RedeemViewController" bundle:nil]; aViewController.hidesBottomBarWhenPushed = YES; aViewController.wantsFullScreenLayout = YES; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:aViewController animated:YES]; Inside the controller viewDidLoad I complete the following: [[UIApplication sharedApplication] setStatusBarOrientation:UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight]; [[self navigationController] setNavigationBarHidden:YES animated:YES]; [UIView beginAnimations:@"View Flip" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:.75]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseInOut]; if (self.interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait) { self.view.transform = CGAffineTransformIdentity; self.view.transform = CGAffineTransformMakeRotation(degreesToRadian(90)); self.view.bounds = CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, 480, 320); } [UIView commitAnimations]; What I end up with is a perfectly rotated view, with a grey vertical bar on the left side (see pic). So to the question, how do I get rid of the bar? Edit: I am pretty sure this is the navigation bar that is not being hidden. This is a duplicate of another post, with some modified code, the other question was being answered with the bug.

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  • Display Consistent Value of an Item using MVVM and WPF

    - by Blake Blackwell
    In my list view control (or any other WPF control that will fit the situation), I would like to have one TextBlock that stays consistent for all items while another TextBlock that changes based on the value in the ObservableCollection. Here is how my code is currently laid out: XAML <ListView ItemsSource="{Binding Path=MyItems, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ListView.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock x:Name="StrVal" Text="{Binding StrVal}" /> <TextBlock x:Name="ConstVal" Text="{Binding MyVM.ConstVal}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListView.ItemTemplate> </ListView> Model public class MyItem { public string StrVal { get; set; } } ViewModel public class MyVM { public MyVM() { ObservableCollection<MyItem> myItems = new ObservableCollection<MyItem>(); for (int i = 0 ; i < 10; i++) myItems.Add(new MyItem { StrVal = i.ToString()}); MyItems = myItems; ConstVal = "1"; } public string ConstVal { get; set; } public ObservableCollection<MyItem> MyItems { get; set; } } Code Behind this.DataContext = new MyVM(); The StrVal property repeats correctly in the ListView, but the ConstVal TextBlock does not show the ConstVal that is contained in the VM. I would guess that this is because the ItemsSource of the ListView is MyItems and I can't reference other variables outside of what is contained in the MyItems. My question is: How do I get ConstVal to show the value in the ViewModel for all listviewitems that will be controlled by the Observable Collection of MyItems.

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  • Session scoped bean as class attribute of Spring MVC Controller

    - by Sotirios Delimanolis
    I have a User class: @Component @Scope("session") public class User { private String username; } And a Controller class: @Controller public class UserManager { @Autowired private User user; @ModelAttribute("user") private User createUser() { return user; } @RequestMapping(value = "/user") public String getUser(HttpServletRequest request) { Random r = new Random(); user.setUsername(new Double(r.nextDouble()).toString()); request.getSession().invalidate(); request.getSession(true); return "user"; } } I invalidate the session so that the next time i got to /users, I get another user. I'm expecting a different user because of user's session scope, but I get the same user. I checked in debug mode and it is the same object id in memory. My bean is declared as so: <bean id="user" class="org.synchronica.domain.User"> <aop:scoped-proxy/> </bean> I'm new to spring, so I'm obviously doing something wrong. I want one instance of User for each session. How?

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  • WPF Binding Path=/ not working?

    - by Mark
    I've set up my DataContext like this: <Window.DataContext> <c:DownloadManager /> </Window.DataContext> Where DownloadManager is Enumerable<DownloadItem>. Then I set my DataGrid like this: <DataGrid Name="dataGrid1" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=/}" ... So that it should list all the DownloadItems, right? So I should be able to set my columns like: <DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding Path=Uri, Mode=OneWay}" Where Uri is a property of the DownloadItem. But it doesn't seem to like this. In the visual property editor, it doesn't recognize Uri is a valid property, so I'm guessing I'm doing something wrong. It was working before, when I had the data grid binding to Values, but then I took that enumerable out of the DownloadManager and made itself enumerable. How do I fix this? PS: By "doesn't work" I mean it doesn't list any items. I've added some to the constructor of the DM, so it shouldn't be empty.

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  • How combine TabBar + Navigation with XCode

    - by mamcx
    I'm triying to combine a TabBar + Navigation app. I have 5 tab bars, 4 are listing of stuff and drill down to details views. I try to follow this tutorial: http://www.iphonedevforums.com/forum/iphone-sdk-development/124-view-controller-problem.html But always get a blank view. This is what I do, with a clean project: I start with a TabBar template app. I put 5 tab bar buttons. I create a controller like: @interface FirstViewController : UINavigationController { } I put the main window.xib on tree mode & change the selected first view to FirstViewController I select the TabBar Controller in Interface builder, go to TabBar Attributes & change the class to navigation controler. Select the fist view & put the nib name "SecondView" In response, I get a blank screen. I must add that I wanna navigate from the details views, no from the main windows. i.e in the main window tab bar 1 is the list of people. I select a person then wanna navigate to the detail window.

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  • Deal with update location for click-once.

    - by Assimilater
    I'm not sure how many people here are experts with visual studios, but I'd imagine a handful (not to raise expectations but to appeal to your egos :P). I'm working primarily in visual basic for now (though I hope to switch to c# in the near future and maybe a java or web app). Basically I'm trying to create an update feature that will work similarly to how common programs such as firefox or itunes update automatically. There is supposed to be provided functionality for this in what is called click once. I carry out the following procedures and get the following errors when trying to change the update url of my program to a password-protected ftp location. Go to project properties Go to publish click updates click browse click FTP Site Under Server put: web###.opentransfer.com Under Port: 21 Under Directory put: CMSOFT Passive mode is selected (which is what filezilla tells me the server is accessed with) Anonymous User is unselected and a username and password are typed in Push Ok Under Update location it shows: ftp://web###.opentransfer.com/CMSOFT I push Ok I see a message box titled Microsoft Visual Basic 2010 Express with an x icon Publish.UpdateUrl: The string must be a fully qualified URL or UNC path, for example "http://www.microsoft.com/myapplication" or "\server\myapplication". I've tried changing the directory to "CMSOFT/PQCM.exe" and the results are the same...hope this was descriptive enough.

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  • HTTP post using php and curl failing

    - by user2916484
    I am trying to send an XML file to an external system. I am using the below code for doing so, which I got over the internet. But I observed that when i put an echo on the xml variable, it does not show me the XML as a string, but it is parsing the xml and showing me the values. Same is happening when I am sending this to external system. Which is failing. Can you please tell me a way, in which the XML is not parsed and I can send the entire XML text as a string to external system? My code is below. <?php $xml = '<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding="UTF-8" ?><shiporder><orderID>1234</orderID> <orderperson>John Smith</orderperson></shiporder>'; $xml2 = ''; $headers = array( "Content-type: text/xml", "Content-length: " . strlen($xml), "Connection: close", ); // give the path of the Third party site $url = "http://<server>:<port>/XMII/Illuminator?service=WSMessageListener&mode=WSMessageListenerServer&NAME=shiporder&IllumLoginName=<name>&IllumLoginPassword=<pswd>"; echo $xml; echo $url; $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL,$url); //curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_MUTE, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 10); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $headers); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $xml); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $output = curl_exec($ch); echo $output; curl_close($ch); ?> Regards, Gita

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  • No database connection when trying to use IIS locally with asp.net MVC 1.0

    - by mark4asp
    Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection. When I try to use IIS locally instead of Cassini I get this error. The ASP.NET MVC 1.0 site is running on WinXP. The database is local and has SQL Server and Windows Authentification mode enabled. The website runs OK using Cassini, with the same connection string. It fails when I try to use IIS instead of Cassini. These permissions are set on the Virtual directory which IIS points to. ASP.NET Machine Account [Full Control] Internet Guest Account [Full Control] System [Full Control] This virtual directory is the same are the directory holding my project files. I am using Linq and the database connection string is stored in the App.config file of my data project. I get the same error whether I set the connection string to use Windows or Sql server authentification. My sql server has both [MyMachineName\ASPNET] and SqlServerUser Logins and a User on the database. CREATE LOGIN [MyMachineName\ASPNET] FROM WINDOWS WITH DEFAULT_DATABASE=[master], DEFAULT_LANGUAGE=[us_english] Use My_database CREATE USER [MyMachineName\ASPNET] FOR LOGIN [MyMachineName\ASPNET] WITH DEFAULT_SCHEMA=[dbo] CREATE LOGIN [MwMvcLg] WITH PASSWORD=N'blahblah', DEFAULT_DATABASE=[master], DEFAULT_LANGUAGE=[British], CHECK_EXPIRATION=OFF, CHECK_POLICY=ON Use My_database CREATE USER [MwMvcLg] FOR LOGIN [MwMvcLg] WITH DEFAULT_SCHEMA=[dbo] How come I have no problem running this website on IIS6 remotely. Why does IIS5.1, running locally, need these extra logins? PS: My overwhelming preference is to use Sql Server authentification - as this is how it runs when deployed.

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  • How to configure a NSPopupButton for displaying multiple values in a TableView?

    - by jekmac
    Hi there! I'm using two entities A and B with to-many-to-many relationship. Lets say I got an entity A with attribute aAttrib and a to-many relationship aRelat to another entity B with attribute bAttrib and a to-many relationship bRelat with entity A. Now I am building an interface with two tables one for entity A and another for entity B. The table for entity B has two columns one for bAttrib and one for the relationship aRelat. The aRelat-column should be a NSPopupButtonCell to display multiple aAttrib values. I'd like to set all the bindings in InterfaceBuilder in Table Column Bindings: -- I have two NSArrayController each for one entity: Object Controller Mode:Entity Array Controller Bindings: Parameters Managed Object Context bind to File's Owner -- One Table Cloumn with a PopUpButtonCell: TableCloumnBindings Content bind to Entity A with ControllerKey arrangedObjects; Content Values bind to Entity A with ModelKeyPath aAttrib Selected Object bind to Entity B with ModelKeyPath bRelat I know that this configuration doesn't allow multiple value setting. But I don't know how to do the right one. Getting the following message: HIToolbox: ignoring exception 'Unacceptable type of value for to-many relationship: property = "bRelat"; desired type = NSSet; given type = NSCFString; value = testValue.' that raised inside Carbon event dispatch... Does anyone have any idea?

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  • Is there a way to create subdatabases as a kind of subfolders in sql server?

    - by user193655
    I am creating an application where there is main DB and where other data is stored in secondary databases. The secondary databases follow a "plugin" approach. I use SQL Server. A simple installation of the application will just have the mainDB, while as an option one can activate more "plug-ins" and for every plug-in there will be a new database. Now why I made this choice is because I have to work with an exisiting legacy system and this is the smartest thing I could figure to implement the plugin system. MainDB and Plugins DB have exactly the same schema (basically Plugins DB have some "special content", some important data that one can use as a kind of template - think to a letter template for example - in the application). Plugin DBs are so used in readonly mode, they are "repository of content". The "smart" thing is that the main application can also be used by "plugin writers", they just write a DB inserting content, and by making a backup of the database they creaetd a potential plugin (this is why all DBs has the same schema). Those plugins DB are downloaded from internet as there is a content upgrade available, every time the full PlugIn DB is destroyed and a new one with the same name is creaetd. This is for simplicity and even because the size of this DBs is generally small. Now this works, anyway I would prefer to organize the DBs in a kind of Tree structure, so that I can force the PlugIn DBs to be "sub-DBs" of the main application DB. As a workaround I am thinking of using naming rules, like: ApplicationDB (for the main application DB) ApplicationDB_PlugIn_N (for the N-th plugin DB) When I search for plugin 1 I try to connect to ApplicationDB_PlugIn_1, if I don't find the DB i raise an error. This situation can happen for example if som DBA renamed ApplicationDB_Plugin_1. So since those Plugin DBs are really dependant on ApplicationDB only I was trying to "do the subfolder trick". Can anyone suggest a way to do this? Can you comment on this self-made plugin approach I decribed above?

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  • How to delete ProgIDs from other user accounts when uninstalling from Windows?

    - by Mordachai
    I've been investigating "how should a modern windows c++ application register its file types" with Windows (see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2828637/c-how-do-i-correctly-register-and-unregister-file-type-associations-for-our-ap). And having combed through the various MSDN articles on the subject, the summary appears to be as follows: The installer (elevated) should register the global ProgID HKLM\Software\Classes\my-app.my-doc[.version] (e.g. HKLM\Software\Classes\TextPad.text) The installer also configures default associations for its document types (e.g. .myext) and points this to the aforementioned global ProgID in HKLM. NOTE: a user interface should be provided here to allow the user to either accept all default associations, or to customize which associations should be set. The application, running standard (unelevated), should provide a UI for allowing the current user to set their personal associations as is available in the installer, except that these associations are stored in HKCU\Software\Classes (per user, not per machine). The UN-installer is then responsible for deleting all registered ProgIDs (but should leave the actual file associations alone, as Windows is smart enough to handle associations pointing to missing ProgIDs, and this is the specified desired behavior by MSDN). So that schema sounds reasonable to me, except when I consider #4: How does an uninstaller, running elevated for a given user account, delete any per-user ProgIDs created in step #3 for other users? As I understand things, even in elevated mode, an uninstaller cannot go into another user's registry hive and delete items? Or can it? Does it have to load each given user hive first? What are the rules here? Thanks for any insight you might have to offer! EDIT: See below for the solution (My question was founded in confusion)

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  • Cant install .NET application in Clients PC

    - by Niraj Doshi
    Hello all, My client's PC runs Windows 7 Ultimate with .netframework 4 client profile. I am unable to install my application developed in VS2008. I tried uninstalling .NET Framework 4 From his PC and running the Clean up tool provided by Microsoft. But still I am unable to install it successfully. It provides Error 1001. I tried running the program as administrator. I also tried to Turn on .net 3.5 feature from add or remove program. Thanks in advance. :) Edit: The error what i get is shown here. Furthermore, I have confirmed that it is a 32bit processor and i run x86 release version of setup The application is developed in a Windows 7 OS with .NET Framework 3.5 I have installed this application in 7 PCs which have .NET 3.5 installed in them and having OS Windows XP,Vista and Windows 7; and all are working fine. In clients PC, when I try to install .NET 3.5 again, the installer starts but then it disappears suddenly without doing anything I have tried turning on .NET 3.5 framework feature from control panel Program and Features. I have tried running the program as Administrator I have tried setting the application setup in Windows XP and Vista compatible mode. But still the issue persists. Thanks :)

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  • Link failure with either abnormal memory consumption or LNK1106 in Visual Studio 2005.

    - by Corvin
    Hello, I am trying to build a solution for windows XP in Visual Studio 2005. This solution contains 81 projects (static libs, exe's, dlls) and is being successfully used by our partners. I copied the solution bundle from their repository and tried setting it up on 3 similar machines of people in our group. I was successful on two machines and the solution failed to build on my machine. The build on my machine encountered two problems: During a simple build creation of the biggest static library (about 522Mb in debug mode) would fail with the message "13libd\ui1d.lib : fatal error LNK1106: invalid file or disk full: cannot seek to 0x20101879" Full solution rebuild creates this library, however when it comes to linking the library to main .exe file, devenv.exe spawns link.exe which consumes about 80Mb of physical memory and 250MB of virtual and spawns another link.exe, which does the same. This goes on until the system runs out of memory. On PCs of my colleagues where successful build could be performed, there is only one link.exe process which uses all the memory required for linking (about 500Mb physical). There is a plenty of hard drive space on my machine and the file system is NTFS. All three of our systems are similar - Core2Quad processors, 4Gb of RAM, Windows XP SP3. We are using Visual studio installed from the same source. I tried using a different RAM and CPU, using dedicated graphics adapter to eliminate possibility of video memory sharing influencing the build, putting solution files to different location, using different versions of VS 2005 (Professional, Standard and Team Suite), changing the amount of available virtual memory, running memtest86 and building the project from scratch (i.e. a clean bundle). I have read what MSDN says about LNK1106, none of the cases apply to me except for maybe "out of heap space", however I am not sure how I should fight this. The only idea that I have left is reinstalling the OS, however I am not sure that it would help and I am not sure that my situation wouldn't repeat itself on a different machine. Would anyone have any sort of advice for me? Thanks

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  • Provider not notified from cookbook_file

    - by wittyhandle
    I'm working on an ssl provider using Vagrant (1.0.5) and chef-solo (10.12.0) I have my provider, called ssl within a cookbook called gtm_cq, I define it as such in my cookbook's default recipe: gtm_cq_ssl "author" do # attributes will come later end I then have my cookbook_file like below that should notify my ssl provider's import action once it pushes the cert up to the server: cookbook_file "#{node[:cq][:ssl][:author_cert_location]}/foo.cer" do source "foo.cer" owner "crx" group "root" mode "0644" notifies :import, resources(:gtm_cq_ssl => "author") end When I run this, the foo.cer gets pushed up as expected, but the import action of my ssl provider is never called. The most I see of any reference is these couple of lines in the log (removed log headers): .. cookbook_file[/opt/cq5/author/foo.cer] sending import action to gtm_cq_ssl[author] (delayed) .. Processing gtm_cq_ssl[author] action import (gtm_cq::author line 34) There's a large very obvious log statement as well as the use of another cookbook_file for a test file to push something up to the server. No log statement, no test file pushed. I'm certain too that the foo.cer file is removed from the server before each test. I found that if I edit my notifies line like so with :immediately notifies :import, resources(:gtm_cq_ssl => "author"), :immediately It seems to work. And I suppose this is ok in my particular case, but it would seem something is not right if that's the only way I can call my provider. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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