Search Results

Search found 12068 results on 483 pages for 'sv gets'.

Page 383/483 | < Previous Page | 379 380 381 382 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390  | Next Page >

  • Populate an unmapped property of domain object from result of join with Nhibernate

    - by Adam Pope
    I have a situation where I have 3 tables: StockItem, Office and StockItemPrice. The price for each StockItem can be different for each Office. StockItem( ID Name ) Office( ID Name ) StockItemPrice( ID StockItemID OfficeID Price ) I've set up a schema with 2 many-to-one relations to link StockItem and Office. So in my StockItem domain object I have a property: IList<StockItemPrice> Prices; which gets loaded with the price of the item for each office. That's working fine. Now I'm trying to get the price of an item for a single office. I have the following Criteria query: NHibernateSession.CreateCriteria(persistentType) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("ID", id)) .CreateAlias("Prices", "StockItemPrice") .Add(Restrictions.Eq("StockItemPrice.Office", office)) .UniqueResult<StockItem>(); This appears to work fine as the SQL it generates is what I qould expect. However, I dont know if it populates StockItem.Prices with a single object correctly as as soon as I reference that property NHibernate performs a lazy load of all the office's prices. Also, even if it does work, it feels really crufty having to access the price by using: mystockitem.Prices[0].Price What I would really like is to have a Price field on the StockItem object and have the price of the item put into that field by NHibernate. I've tried adding .CreateCriteria("Price", "StockItemPrice.Price") and the same with CreateAlias, but I get the error NHibernate.QueryException : could not resolve property: Price of: StockItem which makes sense I guess as Price isn't a mapped property. How would I adjust the query to make this possible?

    Read the article

  • Copy recordset data into multiple sheets to avoid problem of maximum rows limit in Excel VBA

    - by Sam
    I am developing reporting application in Excel/vba 2003. VBA code sends search query to database and gets the data through recordset. It will then be copied to one of excel sheet. The rertrieved data looks like as shown below. ProductID--|---DateProcessed--|----State----- 1................|.. 1/1/2010..............|.....Picked Up 1................|.. 1/1/2010..............|.....Forward To Approver 1................|.. 1/2/2010..............|.....Approver Picked Up 1................|.. 1/3/2010..............|.....Approval Completed 2................|.. 1/1/2010..............|.....Picked Up 3................|.. 1/2/2010..............|.....Picked Up 3................|.. 1/2/2010..............|.....Forward To Approver The problem is data retrieved from search query is so huge that it goes above the excel row limit (65536 rows in excel 2003). So I want to split this data into two excel sheets. While spliting the data I want to ensure that the data for same product shoud remain in one sheet. For example, if the last record in the above result set is 65537th record then I also want to move all records for product 3 into new sheet. So sheet1 will contain records for product id 1 and 2 with total records = 65534. Sheet 2 will cotain records for product id 3 - with total records = 2. How can I acheive this in vba? If it is not possible, is there any alternative solution ? Thanks in Advance !

    Read the article

  • Who's setting TCP window size down to 0, Indy or Windows?

    - by François
    We have an application server which have been observed sending headers with TCP window size 0 at times when the network had congestion (at a client's site). We would like to know if it is Indy or the underlying Windows layer that is responsible for adjusting the TCP window size down from the nominal 64K in adaptation to the available throughput. And we would be able to act upon it becoming 0 (nothing gets send, users wait = no good). So, any info, link, pointer to Indy code are welcome... Disclaimer: I'm not a network specialist. Please keep the answer understandable for the average me ;-) Note: it's Indy9/D2007 on Windows Server 2003 SP2. More gory details: The TCP zero window cases happen on the middle tier talking to the DB server. It happens at the same moments when end users complain of slowdowns in the client application (that's what triggered the network investigation). 2 major Network issues causing bottlenecks have been identified. The TCP zero window happened when there was network congestion, but may or may not be caused by it. We want to know when that happen and have a way to do something (logging at least) in our code. So where to hook (in Indy?) to know when that condition occurs?

    Read the article

  • Problem with impersonating a specific user in WCF service

    - by aJ
    I am having a WCF service hosted in IIS on WindowsServer 2008. This service needs to write to a shared folder present on another machine(Windows XP). The shared folder has write permissions for a particular user say "X" which is present on both the machines .i.e on the server where the service is running as well as the machine where the shared folder is present. The service runs under the NETWORK SERVICE account. For the service to access the shared folder I have added code to impersonate the user "X"in the service so that it gets the permission to write to the shared folder. Since I want to impersonate user "X" only when I run a particular section of code I have used the sample code. Even after the impersonation the service fails to write to the shared folder sometimes. It works sporadically. Whereas if I add tag in the Web.config file it works perfectly fine. <identity impersonate="true" userName="accountname" password="password" /> But the above is not desirable since it impersonates a specific user for all the requests. What I need is to impersonate a specific user only when I run a particular section of code. Also, the impersonation code works absolutely fine when the shared folder is present on another WindowsServer 2008. Could anyone give me ideas on what's going wrong here.

    Read the article

  • How can I share an entity framework model across website users

    - by richardmoss
    Hello, Currently my website is based around MVC and the Entity Framework running against a SQL Server 2005 database. So far, it has all been running very smoothly, and I really enjoy MVC and its slimmer more concise code (and no huge viewstates or soul destroying postbacks ;)) Recently I was working on upgrading the site to use a simple forum system, and this is where I started running into problems. When I was testing the site using two different browsers, if I created or replied to a post in one browser, the other browser couldn't see the post. At the moment, each visitor to the site gets their own copy of the entity model, which I store in their session data. Obviously this is the problem as updates to one model aren't getting carried to the other. As a test, I tried storing a single copy of the model which all visitors would access by assigning the model to a static variable. This worked, and both browsers could see each others modifications. However, it had its side effects. For example, if I fired up both browsers at the same time and the model was initialized, one browser would crash, and the other would work fine, despite me using a locking object so in theory one of them should have been delayed until the model was ready (of course I could have implemented this wrong ;)). Also, originally this site did use one model for all visitors and when it was live, it frequently shut down - killing the IIS application pool while it did. Now I'm not sure if this was related, but I don't really want to reintroduce whatever bug I had that caused this shut down. So, my question is a simple one really - what is the best way of either using the same model for all website users so they all see updates, or if they do have separate copies (which I imagine will have a performance impact in time) how can the models detect changes in the database and update themselves according. Thanks in advance for any advice! Regards; Richard Moss

    Read the article

  • Problem in getting response from server in jquery

    - by Alvin
    Hello, I'm using $.ajax(options) method to pass the request to server based on username and password, but whenever I try to print the response by XMLHttpRequest object when response gets successful, I'm getting an empty value. $(document).ready(function(){ $("#form").submit(function(){ $.ajax({url:"Chat.jsp",type:"POST",data:$("#form").serialize(),success:function(request) { alert(request.responseText); //This is displaying nothing },error:function(){document.write("YOU can't");}}); }); }); This is what I'm doing in my servlets code after executing query: try { String user = request.getParameter("j_username"); String password = request.getParameter("j_password"); if(user != null && password != null) { String query = "Select * from users where user_name="+"\'"+user+"\'"+"&& user_pass="+"\""+password+"\""; DBCheck db= new DBCheck(); boolean b = db.doExecuteQuery(con.createStatement(),query); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); if(b) { response.getWriter().println("Username already exits"); } else { response.getWriter().println("Username doesn't exit"); } } } catch(SQLException ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } May I know the problem, and how can I fix it?

    Read the article

  • How to exclude rows where matching join is in an SQL tree

    - by Greg K
    Sorry for the poor title, I couldn't think how to concisely describe this problem. I have a set of items that should have a 1-to-1 relationship with an attribute. I have a query to return those rows where the data is wrong and this relationship has been broken (1-to-many). I'm gathering these rows to fix them and restore this 1-to-1 relationship. This is a theoretical simplification of my actual problem but I'll post example table schema here as it was requested. item table: +------------+------------+-----------+ | item_id | name | attr_id | +------------+------------+-----------+ | 1 | BMW 320d | 20 | | 1 | BMW 320d | 21 | | 2 | BMW 335i | 23 | | 2 | BMW 335i | 34 | +------------+------------+-----------+ attribute table: +---------+-----------------+------------+ | attr_id | value | parent_id | +---------+-----------------+------------+ | 20 | SE | 21 | | 21 | M Sport | 0 | | 23 | AC | 24 | | 24 | Climate control | 0 | .... | 34 | Leather seats | 0 | +---------+-----------------+------------+ A simple query to return items with more than one attribute. SELECT item_id, COUNT(DISTINCT(attr_id)) AS attributes FROM item GROUP BY item_id HAVING attributes > 1 This gets me a result set like so: +-----------+------------+ | item_id | attributes | +-----------+------------+ | 1 | 2 | | 2 | 2 | | 3 | 2 | -- etc. -- However, there's an exception. The attribute table can hold a tree structure, via parent links in the table. For certain rows, parent_id can hold the ID of another attribute. There's only one level to this tree. Example: +---------+-----------------+------------+ | attr_id | value | parent_id | +---------+-----------------+------------+ | 20 | SE | 21 | | 21 | M Sport | 0 | .... I do not want to retrieve items in my original query where, for a pair of associated attributes, they related like attributes 20 & 21. I do want to retrieve items where: the attributes have no parent for two or more attributes they are not related (e.g. attributes 23 & 34) Example result desired, just the item ID: +------------+ | item_id | +------------+ | 2 | +------------+ How can I join against attributes from items and exclude these rows? Do I use a temporary table or can I achieve this from a single query? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Open txt files from a directory, compare the values, and output the top 15 in PHP

    - by Anon
    Hello, I recently designed a referral game website for the fun of it. There's a simple MySQL user system with a email verification. It's using the UserCake user management system. On top of this i added a php page that the user could give to "victims" that when they visit it they get "infected" and can infect other users or "victims". This page uses GET to get the username from the url. I have a folder that when a user registers it creates a file with 4 digits and then the username. (ex; 0000Username.txt) All the numbers are the same, it's just so that if a user discovers the folder they won't be able to find the files. There is also a txt file in the same format with IPS in the name. (ex; 0000IPSUsername.txt) The file when visited gets the username from the url, then checks if the text file for that username exists. If the username is present in the url, and a valid user it opens the IPS file and adds the IP of the visitor, then opens the user text file, takes the value and adds one to it, and saves. At the end it makes the difference between saying "You are infected, Username has infected (amount) people." or just you have been infected. Now to what i need! I need to add a hi-scores to the website so people can compete to be the one with the most "infections". I thought i could use readdir to get a list of the files and open them with the value in an array, but i need it to also strip the username from the file name. It would be best if it just saves to a text file like "Username | value" because then i can add echo's of the html tags and have it include the file in the page i want it to be one. Many thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Passing javascript object to webservice via Jquery ajax

    - by kralco626
    I have a webservice that returns an object [WebMethod] public List<User> ContractorApprovals() I also have a webservice that accepcts an object [WebMethod] public bool SaveContractor(Object u) When I make my webservice calls via Jquery: function ServiceCall(method, parameters, onSucess, onFailure) { var parms = "{" + (($.isArray(parameters)) ? parameters.join(',') : parameters) + "}"; // to json $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "services/"+method, data: parms, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(msg) { if (typeof onSucess == 'function' || typeof onSucess == 'object') onSucess(msg.d); }, error: function(msg, err) { $("#dialog-error").dialog('open');} }); I can call the first one just fine. My onSucess function gets passed a javascript object exactly structured like my User object on the service. However, I am now having trouble getting the object back to the server. I'm accepting Object as a parameter on the server side so I can't inagine there is an issue there. So I'm thinking something is wrong with the parms on the client side but i'm not sure what... I am doing something to the effect ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/ContractorApprovals", "", function(data,args){$("#div").data('user',data[0])}, null) then ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/SaveContractor", $("#div").data('user'), //These also do not work: "{'u': ' + $("#div").data("user") + '}", NOR JSON.stringify({u: userObject}) function(data,args){(alert(data)}, null) I know the first service call works, I can get the data. The second one is causing the "onFailure" method to execute rather then "OnSuccess". Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How to wait until location is completely found? (Core Location)

    - by sudo rm -rf
    Hello. I have a problem within my app. I'm trying to find the user's location to the best preciseness in order to determine their zip-code. Currently I have a button that, when pressed, starts a method named locateMe. -(IBAction)locateMe; { self.locationManager = [[CLLocationManager alloc] init]; locationManager.delegate = self; locationManager.desiredAccuracy = kCLLocationAccuracyBest; [locationManager startUpdatingLocation]; Then I've implemented didUpdateToLocation: -(void)locationManager:(CLLocationManager *)manager didUpdateToLocation:(CLLocation *)newLocation fromLocation:(CLLocation *)oldLocation; { NSLog(@"Found location! %f,%f",newLocation.coordinate.latitude,newLocation.coordinate.longitude); } I had previously done much more complicated stuff in didUpdateToLocation but as I tested some things I realized that the first location it found was not precise in the least. So, I put the NSLog call in there and it gave me an output similar to below... Found location! 39.594093,-98.614834 Found location! 39.601372,-98.592171 Found location! 39.601372,-98.592171 Found location! 39.611444,-98.538196 Found location! 39.611444,-98.538196 As you can see, it first gives me a value which is not correct, which was causing problems within my app because it wasn't giving the correct location. So, here's my question. Is there any way I can wait for the location manager to finish finding the most precise location? Thanks in advance! EDIT: I'm wanting something like this: if (newLocation.horizontalAccuracy <= locationManager.desiredAccuracy) { } But it never gets called!

    Read the article

  • Issue with Multiple Text Fields and SharedObject Storing

    - by user1662660
    I'm currently working on an AIR for iOS application in Flash CS6. I'm trying to store multiple pieces of data from various text inputs; i.e "name_txt", "number_txt" etc. I have the following code working for a local save file; import flash.events.Event; import flash.desktop.NativeApplication; import flash.events.Event; var n1:String = so.data.Number1; var so:SharedObject = SharedObject.getLocal("TravelPal"); emerg1.text = n1; emerg1.addEventListener(Event.CHANGE, updateEmerg1); function updateEmerg1 (e:Event):void { so.data.Number1 = emerg1.text; so.flush(); } NativeApplication.nativeApplication.addEventListener(Event.EXITING, onExit); function onExit(e:Event):void { so.flush(); } Now as soon as I create multiple text inputs and attempt to store them in my SharedObject, the whole system just falls apart. None of the text gets saved, even the previously working ones. I'm pretty new to ShardObject usage. What am I missing here? Is this a good way to go about storing multiple text inputs?

    Read the article

  • Extract history from Korn shell

    - by Luc
    I am not happy about the history file in binary format of the Korn shell. I like to "collect" some of my command lines, many of them actually, and for a long time. I'm talking about years. That doesn't seem easy in Korn because the history file is not plain text so I can't edit it, and a lot of junk is piling up in it. By "junk" I mean lines that I don'twant to keep, like 'cat' or 'man'. So I added these lines to my .profile: fc -ln 1 9999 ~/khistory.txt source ~/loghistory.sh ~/khistory.txt loghistory.sh contains a handful of sed and sort commands that gets rid of a lot of the junk. But apparently it is forbidden to run fc in the .profile file. I can't login whenever I do, the shell exits right away with signal 11. So I removed that 'fc -l' line from my .profile file and added it to the loghistory.sh script, but the shell still crashes. I also tried this line in my .profile: strings ~/.sh_history ~/khistory.txt source ~/loghistory.sh That doesn't crash, but the output is printed with an additional, random character in the beginning of many lines. I can run 'fc -l' on the command line, but that's no good. I need to automate that. But how? How can I extract my ksh history as plain text? TIA

    Read the article

  • Euler Project Help (Problem 12) - Prime Factors and the like

    - by Richie_W
    I hate to have to ask, but I'm pretty stuck here. I need to test a sequence of numbers to find the first which has over 500 factors: http://projecteuler.net/index.php?section=problems&id=12 -At first I attempted to brute force the answer (finding a number with 480 after a LONG time) -I am now looking at determining the prime factors of a number and then use them to find all other factors. I am currently at the stage where I can get an array of prime factors for any number I input - i.e 300 has the prime factors 2 2 3 5 5 Using this array of prime factors I need to be able to calculate the remaining factors - This is the part I am stuck on. Basically, as I understand it, I need to calculate ALL possible combinations of the numbers in the array... i.e 2 * 2 2 * 2 * 3 2 * 2 * 3 * 5 2 * 3 2 * 3 * 3 ...and so forth - But where it gets interesting is with things like... 2 * 5 2 * 3 * 5 ...i.e Numbers which are not adjacent to each other in the array I can't think of a way to code this in a generic fashion for any length array... I need help! P.S - I am working in Java EDIT: My brute force code - As it has been suggested brute forcing the problem will work and so there may be an error in my code :( package euler.problem12; public class Solution { public static void main(String[] args) { int next = 1; int triangle = 0; int maxFactors = 0; while(true) { triangle = triangle + next; int factors = 1; int max = (int) triangle / 2; for(int i = 1; i <= max; ++i) { if(triangle % i == 0) { factors ++; } } if(factors > maxFactors) { maxFactors = factors; System.out.println(triangle + "\t" + factors); } next++; } } }

    Read the article

  • passenger won't spawn more than 6 instances despite passenger_max_pool_size = 30

    - by mrD
    I have some problems with passenger + nginx and hope someone might be able help me and direct me in the right direction. I've set the passenger_max_pool_size to 30 but passenger never spawns more than 6 instances. I'm loading a webpage that uses ajax to load 30 sub pages from the server but because passenger only spawns 6 instances they are queued. What makes me confused is that Waiting on global queue is 0 but I can see in my browser that everything gets queued. When the first 6 ajax requests are done the next 6 starts loading. What am I missing? :) This is the output from passenger-status (I had about 24 requests in the browser waiting for response from the server when I checked this status) ----------- General information ----------- max = 30 count = 6 active = 6 inactive = 0 Waiting on global queue: 0 ----------- Domains ----------- /srv/rails/production/current: PID: 28428 Sessions: 1 Processed: 42 Uptime: 5m 43s PID: 28424 Sessions: 1 Processed: 23 Uptime: 5m 43s PID: 28422 Sessions: 1 Processed: 7 Uptime: 5m 43s PID: 28420 Sessions: 1 Processed: 22 Uptime: 6m 0s PID: 28426 Sessions: 1 Processed: 39 Uptime: 5m 43s PID: 28430 Sessions: 1 Processed: 7 Uptime: 5m 43s These are my passenger related settings in nginx.conf http { passenger_root /opt/ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/passenger-2.2.11; passenger_ruby /opt/ruby/bin/ruby; passenger_max_pool_size 30;

    Read the article

  • Doctrine 2 entity cannot be saved with its many-to-many related entities

    - by user1333185
    I'm writing a project in ZF and have many-to-many related accounts and videos entities and I provide the account with the videos collection. When I try to save the account I receive the following error: A new entity was found through the relationship 'Entities\Account#playlistVideos' that was not configured to cascade persist operations for entity: Entities\Video@000000004d5f02ef00000000196757dc. Explicitly persist the new entity or configure cascading persist operations on the relationship. If you cannot find out which entity causes the problem implement 'Entities\Video#__toString()' to get a clue. I found a suggested solution with cascade={"persist"} which should allow videos to be saved together with the account by only specifying $this-em-persist($account) but then I get the error: Fatal error: method_exists(): The script tried to execute a method or access a property of an incomplete object. Please ensure that the class definition "Proxies\EntitiesAccountProxy" of the object you are trying to operate on was loaded before unserialize() gets called or provide a __autoload() function to load the class definition in... The same happens when I try to manually persist videos and account. Thank you for the help in advance.

    Read the article

  • Is there an easier way to do Classic ASP "relative path"?

    - by Alex.Piechowski
    Right now, I'm having trouble. First of all I have a page, let's call it "http://blah.com/login". That obviously goes strait to "index.asp" A line of Main.asp: <!--#include file="resource/menu.asp"--> Page top includes all of what I need for my menu... so: Part of resource/menu.htm: <div id="colortab" class="ddcolortabs"> <ul> <li><a href="main.asp" title="Main" rel="dropmain"><span>Main</span></a></li> ... </ul> </div> <!--Main drop down menu --> <div id="dropmain" class="dropmenudiv_a"> <a href="main/announcements.asp">Announcements</a> <a href="main/contacts.asp">Contact Information</a> <a href="main/MeetingPlans.asp">Meeting Plan</a> <a href="main/photos.asp">Photo Gallery</a> <a href="main/events.asp">Upcoming Events</a> </div> Let's say I click on the "announcements" (http://blah.com/login/main/announcements.asp) link... Now I'm at the announcements page! But wait, I include the same menu file. Guess what happens: I get sent to "http://blah.com/login/main/main/announcements.asp Which doesn't exist... My solution: Make a menu_sub.asp include for any subpages. But wait a second... this WORKS, but it gets REALLY REALLY messy... What can I do to use just one main "menu.asp" instead of "menu_sub.asp"? using "/main/announcements.asp" WON'T be an option because this is a web application that will be on different directories per server. Any ideas? PLEASE

    Read the article

  • Global javascript variable not accessible in jquery change event

    - by Dan
    I have to be missing something simple, but I'm really not sure what. I'm not a JS veteran, so this may be an easy answer - sure hope so :). I have a button that, when clicked, gets JSON data. When a drop-down is changed, I check to see if there is data, if there is, I want to clear it out as the drop-down indicates what data to retrieve when the button is clicked The Code: var selected, $locDialog; var locations = []; $(function() { // Save the selected Name selected = $("#selected option:selected").val(); // Setup Dialog for Locations $locDialog = $('#location-dialog').dialog({ autoOpen: false }); // If user changes the selected // 1. Prompt for confirmation // 2. If users confirms, clear data $('#selected').change(function() { if (locations) { var confirmed = confirm("Oh Rly?"); if (confirmed) { // Clear data var locations; } } }); // When user clicks "Location" Button.. $('.loc-select button').click(function() { if (!locations) { $.getJSON("/Controller/JSONAction", { selectedId: selected, pageNum: 1, pageSize: 100 }, function(data) { locations = data; $.each(locations, function(index, loc) { var $tr = $('<tr/>') .append($('<td/>') .append('<input type="checkbox" name="TEST-'+index+'" value="'+loc.Id+'"/>')) .append('<td>' + loc.Name + '</td>'); $("#location-dialog table tbody").append($tr); }); }); } $locDialog.dialog('open'); return false; }); }); Here's the thing, Inside the .click(...) callback, I can see locations is []. Now, when I am in the .change(...) callback, I see locations is undefined. Any help/insight, as always, is appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Javascript Getting Objects to Fallback to One Another

    - by Ian
    Here's a ugly bit of Javascript it would be nice to find a workaround. Javascript has no classes, and that is a good thing. But it implements fallback between objects in a rather ugly way. The foundational construct should be to have one object that, when a property fails to be found, it falls back to another object. So if we want a to fall back to b we would want to do something like: a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; a.__fallback__ = b; then a.dock == 2; But, Javascript instead provides a new operator and prototypes. So we do the far less elegant: function A(sun) { this.sun = sun; }; A.prototype.dock = 2; a = new A(1); a.dock == 2; But aside from elegance, this is also strictly less powerful, because it means that anything created with A gets the same fallback object. What I would like to do is liberate Javascript from this artificial limitation and have the ability to give any individual object any other individual object as its fallback. That way I could keep the current behavior when it makes sense, but use object-level inheritance when that makes sense. My initial approach is to create a dummy constructor function: function setFallback(from_obj, to_obj) { from_obj.constructor = function () {}; from_obj.constructor.prototype = to_obj; } a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; setFallback(a, b); But unfortunately: a.dock == undefined; Any ideas why this doesn't work, or any solutions for an implementation of setFallback? (I'm running on V8, via node.js, in case this is platform dependent)

    Read the article

  • When an NSWindow object has a delegate that is a NSWindow subclass, who is responsible to act on received events?

    - by spade78
    So I'm building a program that features the use of the IKImageBrowserView component as a subview in an NSWindow. As a side note, I have a controller object called ImageBrowserController which subclasses NSWindow and is set as the delegate of the NSWindow object of my app. I have sent IKImageBrowserView the message setCanControlQuickLookPanel:YES to enable it to automatically use the QuickLook functionality to preview image files when the IKImageBrowserView is a first responder to receive key events. Then it took me a while to figure out how to make the IKImageBrowserView a first responder which I finally got working by overriding acceptsFirstResponder inside my ImageBrowserController. Now I understand that as the delegate to the NSWindow, ImageBrowserController has a place in the responder chain after the event gets triggered on NSWindow. And I understand that as a subview of NSWindow, IKImageBrowserView is in line to be passed events for event handling. What I don't get is where the connection is between the ImageBrowserController being a first responder and the event somehow making it to the IKImageBrowserView. I didn't set NSWindow or IKImageBrowserView as first responders explicitly. So why isn't it necessary for me to implement event handling inside my ImageBrowserController? EDIT: So after reading the accepted answer and going back to my code I tried removing the acceptsFirstResponder override in my ImageBrowserController and the QuickLook functionality still triggered just like the accepted answer said it would. Commenting out the setCanControlQuickLookPanel:YES made the app beep at me when I tried to invoke QuickLook functionality via the spacebar. I'm getting the feeling that my troubles were caused by user error of XCode in hitting the RUN button instead of the BUILD button after making changes to my code (sigh).

    Read the article

  • Android: CustomListAdapter

    - by primal
    Hi, I have implemented a custom list view which looks like the twitter timeline. adapter = new MyClickableListAdapter(this, R.layout.timeline, mObjectList); setListAdapter(adapter); The constructor for MyClickableListAdapter is as follows private class MyClickableListAdapter extends ClickableListAdapter{ public MyClickableListAdapter(Context context, int viewId, List objects) { super(context, viewId, objects); } ClickableListAdapter extends BaseAdapter and implements the necessary methods. The xml code for the list view is as follows <ListView android:id="@+id/android:list" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> This is what it looks like. I have 3 questions 1) I tried registering a context menu for the list view by adding the line after setting the list adapter registerforContextMenu(getListView()); But on long-click the menu doesnt get displayed. I cannot understand what I am doing wrong! 2) Is it possible to display a textview above the listview? I tried it by adding the code for textview above the listview. But then, only the textview gets displayed. 3) I have seen in many twitter clients that on clicking post a window pops up from the top covering only some portion of the screen and rest of the timeline is visible. How can this be done possibly without starting a new activity? Any help would be much appreciated..

    Read the article

  • Ruby and public_method_defined? : strange behaviour

    - by aXon
    Hi there Whilst reading through the book "The well grounded Rubyist", I came across some strange behaviour. The idea behind the code is using one's own method_missing method. The only thing I am not able to grasp is, why this code gets executed, as I do not have any Person.all_with_* class methods defined, which in turn means that the self.public_method_defined?(attr) returns true (attr is friends and then hobbies). #!/usr/bin/env ruby1.9 class Person PEOPLE = [] attr_reader :name, :hobbies, :friends def initialize(mame) @name = name @hobbies = [] @friends = [] PEOPLE << self end def has_hobby(hobby) @hobbies << hobby end def has_friend(friend) @friends << friend end def self.method_missing(m,*args) method = m.to_s if method.start_with?("all_with_") attr = method[9..-1] if self.public_method_defined?(attr) PEOPLE.find_all do |person| person.send(attr).include?(args[0]) end else raise ArgumentError, "Can't find #{attr}" end else super end end end j = Person.new("John") p = Person.new("Paul") g = Person.new("George") r = Person.new("Ringo") j.has_friend(p) j.has_friend(g) g.has_friend(p) r.has_hobby("rings") Person.all_with_friends(p).each do |person| puts "#{person.name} is friends with #{p.name}" end Person.all_with_hobbies("rings").each do |person| puts "#{person.name} is into rings" end The output is is friends with is friends with is into rings which is really understandable, as there is nothing to be executed.

    Read the article

  • How to pair users? (Like Omegle.com)

    - by Carlos Dubus
    Hi, I'm trying to do an Omegle.com clone script, basically for learning purposes. I'm doing it in PHP/MySQL/AJAX. I'm having problems finding two users and connecting them. The purpose of omegle is connecting two users "randomly". What I'm doing right now is the following: When a user enters the website a session is assigned. There are 3 states for each session/user (Normal,Waiting,Chatting) At first the user has state Normal and a field "connected_to" = NULL If the users clicks the START button, a state of "Waiting" is assigned. Then it looks for another user with state Waiting, if doesn't find one then it keeps looping, waiting for the "connected_to" to change. The "connected_to" will change when other user click START and then find another user waiting and updates the sessions accordingly. Now this have several problems, like: A user only can be connected to one user at a time. In omegle you can open more than one chat simultaneously. I don't know if this is the best way. About the chat, each user is polling the events from the server with AJAX calls, I saw that omegle, instead of several HTTP requests each second (let's say), does ONE request and wait for an answer, that means that the PHP script is looping indefinitely until gets an answer.I did this using set_time_limit(30) each time the loop is started. Then when the Ajax call is done start over again. Is this approach correct? I will appreciate a LOT your answers, Thank you, Carlos

    Read the article

  • I can't get RedirectToAction to work

    - by DaveDev
    I have the following Action Method that I'm trying to redirect from if the user is valid. But nothing happens. The breakpoint in the redirected-to action method never gets hit. [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Login(User user) { try { if (ModelState.IsValid) { if (userRepository.ValidUser(user)) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Group"); } else { return Json("Invalid"); } } } catch (Exception) { return Json("Invalid"); } } And in another Controller, I have the following Action Method that I'm trying to redirect to: // HttpVerbs.Post doesn't work either [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get)] public ActionResult Index(int? page) { const int pageSize = 10; IEnumerable<Group> groups = GetGroups(); var paginatedGroups = new PaginatedList<Group>(groups, page ?? 0, pageSize); return View(paginatedGroups); } private IEnumerable<Group> GetGroups() { return groupRepository.GetGroups(); } Is there anything obviously wrong with what I'm doing? Could somebody suggest a different approach I could take?

    Read the article

  • How can I shared controller logic in ASP.NET MVC for 2 controllers, where they are overriden

    - by AbeP
    Hello, I am trying to implement user-friendly URLS, while keeping the existing routes, and was able to do so using the ActionName tag on top of my controller (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/436866/can-you-overload-controller-methods-in-asp-net-mvc) I have 2 controllers: ActionName("UserFriendlyProjectIndex")] public ActionResult Index(string projectName) { ... } public ActionResult Index(long id) { ... } Basically, what I am trying to do is I store the user-friendly URL in the database for each project. If the user enters the URL /Project/TopSecretProject/, the action UserFriendlyProjectIndex gets called. I do a database lookup and if everything checks out, I want to apply the exact same logic that is used in the Index action. I am basically trying to avoid writing duplicate code. I know I can separate the common logic into another method, but I wanted to see if there is a built-in way of doing this in ASP.NET MVC. Any suggestions? I tried the following and I go the View could not be found error message: [ActionName("UserFriendlyProjectIndex")] public ActionResult Index(string projectName) { var filteredProjectName = projectName.EscapeString().Trim(); if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filteredProjectName)) return RedirectToAction("PageNotFound", "Error"); using (var db = new PIMPEntities()) { var project = db.Project.Where(p => p.UserFriendlyUrl == filteredProjectName).FirstOrDefault(); if (project == null) return RedirectToAction("PageNotFound", "Error"); return View(Index(project.ProjectId)); } } Here's the error message: The view 'UserFriendlyProjectIndex' or its master could not be found. The following locations were searched: ~/Views/Project/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.aspx ~/Views/Project/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.ascx ~/Views/Shared/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.aspx ~/Views/Shared/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.ascx Project\UserFriendlyProjectIndex.spark Shared\UserFriendlyProjectIndex.spark I am using the SparkViewEngine as the view engine and LINQ-to-Entities, if that helps. thank you!

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Unit Testing Controllers - Repositories

    - by Brian McCord
    This is more of an opinion seeking question, so there may not be a "right" answer, but I would welcome arguments as to why your answer is the "right" one. Given an MVC application that is using Entity Framework for the persistence engine, a repository layer, a service layer that basically defers to the repository, and a delete method on a controller that looks like this: public ActionResult Delete(State model) { try { if( model == null ) { return View( model ); } _stateService.Delete( model ); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View( model ); } } I am looking for the proper way to Unit Test this. Currently, I have a fake repository that gets used in the service, and my unit test looks like this: [TestMethod] public void Delete_Post_Passes_With_State_4() { //Arrange var stateService = GetService(); var stateController = new StateController( stateService ); ViewResult result = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var model = (State)result.ViewData.Model; //Act RedirectToRouteResult redirectResult = stateController.Delete( model ) as RedirectToRouteResult; stateController = new StateController( stateService ); var newresult = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var newmodel = (State)newresult.ViewData.Model; //Assert Assert.AreEqual( redirectResult.RouteValues["action"], "Index" ); Assert.IsNull( newmodel ); } Is this overkill? Do I need to check to see if the record actually got deleted (as I already have Service and Repository tests that verify this)? Should I even use a fake repository here or would it make more sense just to mock the whole thing? The examples I'm looking at used this model of doing things, and I just copied it, but I'm really open to doing things in a "best practices" way. Thanks.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 379 380 381 382 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390  | Next Page >