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  • C# parameter count mismatch when trying to add AsyncCallback into BeginInvoke()

    - by PunX
    I have main form (PrenosForm) and I am trying to run Form2 asynchronously. It works without callback delegate: this.BeginInvoke(cp, new object[] { datoteke, this.treeView1.SelectedNode.FullPath.ToString(), this, efekt }, null); //works 1. Doesn't work with callback delegate (parameter count mismatch): this.BeginInvoke(cp, new object[] { datoteke, this.treeView1.SelectedNode.FullPath.ToString(), this, efekt }, new AsyncCallback(callBackDelegate), null); //doesn't work parameter count mismatch 2. Works with callback delegate if I do it like this: cp.BeginInvoke(datoteke, this.treeView1.SelectedNode.FullPath.ToString(), this, efekt, new AsyncCallback(callBackDelegate), null); //works 3. My question is why does one way work and the other doesn't? I'm new at this. Would anyone be so kind as to answer my question and point out my mistakes? private delegate void copyDelegat(List<ListViewItem> datoteke, string path, PrenosForm forma, DragDropEffects efekt); private delegate void callBackDelegat(IAsyncResult a); public void doCopy(List<ListViewItem> datoteke, string path, PrenosForm forma, DragDropEffects efekt) { new Form2(datoteke, path, forma, efekt); } public void callBackFunc(IAsyncResult a) { AsyncResult res = a.AsyncState as AsyncResult; copyDelegat delegat = res.AsyncDelegate as copyDelegat; delegat.EndInvoke(a); } public void kopiraj(List<ListViewItem> datoteke, DragDropEffects efekt) { copyDelegat cp = new copyDelegat(doCopy); callBackDelegat callBackDelegate = new callBackDelegat(callBackFunc); this.BeginInvoke(cp, new object[] { datoteke, this.treeView1.SelectedNode.FullPath.ToString(), this, efekt }, new AsyncCallback(callBackDelegate), null); //doesn't work parameter count missmatch 2. this.BeginInvoke(cp, new object[] { datoteke, this.treeView1.SelectedNode.FullPath.ToString(), this, efekt }, null); //works 1. cp.BeginInvoke(datoteke, this.treeView1.SelectedNode.FullPath.ToString(), this, efekt, new AsyncCallback(callBackDelegate), null); //works 3. }

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  • php class scope when calling a non-method function not accessing all class members

    - by Aglystas
    So I'm using a stand alone function from within a class that that uses the class it's being called from. Here's the function function catalogProductLink($product_id,$product_name,$categories=true) { //This is the class that the function is called from global $STATE; if ($categories) { //The $STATE->category_id is the property I want to access, which I can't if (is_array($STATE->category_id)) { foreach($STATE->category_id as $cat_id) { if ($cat_id == 0) continue; $str .= "c$cat_id/"; } } } $str .= catalogUrlKeywords($product_name).'-p'.$product_id.'.html'; return $str; } And here's the function call, which is being made from within the $STATE class. $redirect = catalogProductLink($this->product_id, $tempProd->product_name, true, false); The object that I need access to is the $STATE object that has been declared global. Prior to this function call there are lots of public properties populated, but when I look at the $STATE object within the function scope it loses all the properties but one, product_id. The property that matters for this function is the category_id property, which is an array of category id's. I'm wondering why I don't have access to all the public properties of the $STATE object and how I can get access to them.

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  • Why is Request not available for my PDF request?

    - by Beska
    We're trying to create a .NET aspx page that will have a PDF within it. Doing this by hardcoding it is easy. <object height="1250px" width="100%" type="application/pdf" data="our.pdf"> <param value="our.pdf" name="src" /> <param value="transparent" name="wmode" /> </object> (don't worry too much about the transparent thing...we're doing that for other reasons...but I include it here "just in case".) The problem is when we want to generate the PDF dynamically. Our code to populate the literal on the front end looks like this: ltrPDF.Text = String.Format("<object height=\"1250px\" width=\"100%\" type=\"application/pdf\" data=\"ourPdfGenerator.aspx?var0={0}&var1={1}&var2={2}\">", var0, var1, var2); ltrPDF.Text += String.Format("<param value=\"ourPdfGenerator.aspx?var0={0}&var1={1}&var2={2}\">", var0, var1, var2); ltrPDF.Text += "<param value=\"transparent\" name=\"wmode\"/>"; ltrPDF.Text += "</object>"; Kind of ugly, but it seems like it should work. But it doesn't. When I debug, and put a breakpoint on the first line of ourPdfGenerator.aspx.cs Page_Load method, I reach the breakpoint without any difficulty. However, the first thing we do is try to use Request.QueryString: string var0 = Request.QueryString["var0"]; which immediately throws an HttpException: "Request is not available in this context." I'm not clear on: Why isn't it available? What can I do about it?

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  • Constructor Overloading

    - by Mark Baker
    Normally when I want to create a class constructor that accepts different types of parameters, I'll use a kludgy overloading principle of not defining any args in the constructor definition: e.g. for an ECEF coordinate class constructor, I want it to accept either $x, $y and $z arguments, or to accept a single array argument containg x, y and z values, or to accept a single LatLong object I'd create a constructor looking something like: function __construct() { // Identify if any arguments have been passed to the constructor if (func_num_args() > 0) { $args = func_get_args(); // Identify the overload constructor required, based on the datatype of the first argument $argType = gettype($args[0]); switch($argType) { case 'array' : // Array of Cartesian co-ordinate values $overloadConstructor = 'setCoordinatesFromArray'; break; case 'object' : // A LatLong object that needs converting to Cartesian co-ordinate values $overloadConstructor = 'setCoordinatesFromLatLong'; break; default : // Individual Cartesian co-ordinate values $overloadConstructor = 'setCoordinatesFromXYZ'; break; } // Call the appropriate overload constructor call_user_func_array(array($this,$overloadConstructor),$args); } } // function __construct() I'm looking at an alternative: to provide a straight constructor with $x, $y and $z as defined arguments, and to provide static methods of createECEFfromArray() and createECEFfromLatLong() that handle all the necessary extraction of x, y and z; then create a new ECEF object using the standard constructor, and return that Which option is cleaner from an OO purists perspective?

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  • Dynamically Run IQueryable Method

    - by Micah
    Hi! I'm trying to run the Count() function of a Linq statement in an overriden Gridview function. Basically, I want to be able to assign a linq query to a gridview, and on the OnDataBound(e) event in my new extended gridview have it retrieve the count, using the IQueryable. This is where I'm at so far: protected override void OnDataBound(EventArgs e) { IEnumerable _data = null; if (this.DataSource is IQueryable) { _data = (IQueryable)this.DataSource; } System.Type dataSourceType = _data.GetType(); System.Type dataItemType = typeof(object); if (dataSourceType.HasElementType) { dataItemType = dataSourceType.GetElementType(); } else if (dataSourceType.IsGenericType) { dataItemType = dataSourceType.GetGenericArguments()[0]; } else if (_data is IEnumerable) { IEnumerator dataEnumerator = _data.GetEnumerator(); if (dataEnumerator.MoveNext() && dataEnumerator.Current != null) { dataItemType = dataEnumerator.Current.GetType(); } } Object o = Activator.CreateInstance(dataItemType); object[] objArray = new object[] { o }; RowCount = (int)dataSourceType.GetMethod("Count").Invoke(_data, objArray); Any ideas? I'm really new with working with IQueryables and Linq so I may be way off. How can I get my _data to allow me to run the Count function?

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  • C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

    - by zinking
    there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

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  • C# generics when T could be an array

    - by bufferz
    I am writing a C# wrapper for a 3rd party library that reads both single values and arrays from a hardware device, but always returns an object[] array even for one value. This requires repeated calls to object[0] when I'd like the end user to be able to use generics to receive either an array or single value. I want to use generics so the callee can use the wrapper in the following ways: MyWrapper<float> mw = new MyWrapper<float>( ... ); float value = mw.Value; //should return float; MyWrapper<float[]> mw = new MyWrapper<float[]>( ... ); float[] values = mw.Value; //should return float[]; In MyWrapper I have the Value property currently as the following: public T Value { get { if(_wrappedObject.Values.Length > 1) return (T)_wrappedObject.Value; //T could be float[]. this doesn't compile. else return (T)_wrappedObject.Values[0]; //T could be float. this compiles. } } I get a compile error in the first case: Cannot convert type 'object[]' to 'T' If I change MyWrapper.Value to T[] I receive: Cannot convert type 'object[]' to 'T[]' Any ideas of how to achieve my goal? Thanks!

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  • Can't get KnownType to work with WCF

    - by Kelly Cline
    I have an interface and a class defined in separate assemblies, like this: namespace DataInterfaces { public interface IPerson { string Name { get; set; } } } namespace DataObjects { [DataContract] [KnownType( typeof( IPerson ) ) ] public class Person : IPerson { [DataMember] public string Name { get; set; } } } This is my Service Interface: public interface ICalculator { [OperationContract] IPerson GetPerson ( ); } When I update my Service Reference for my Client, I get this in the Reference.cs: public object GetPerson() { return base.Channel.GetPerson(); I was hoping that KnownType would give me IPerson instead of "object" here. I have also tried [KnownType( typeof( Person ) ) ] with the same result. I have control of both client and server, so I have my DataObjects (where Person is defined) and DataInterfaces (where IPerson is defined) assemblies in both places. Is there something obvious I am missing? I thought KnownType was the answer to being able to use interfaces with WCF. ----- FURTHER INFORMATION ----- I removed the KnownType from the Person class and added [ServiceKnownType( typeof( Person ) ) ] to my service interface, as suggested by Richard. The client-side proxy still looks the same, public object GetPerson() { return base.Channel.GetPerson(); , but now it doesn't blow up. The client just has an "object", though, so it has to cast it to IPerson before it is useful. var person = client.GetPerson ( ); Console.WriteLine ( ( ( IPerson ) person ).Name );

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  • Java - Call to start method on thread : how does it route to Runnable interface's run () ?

    - by Bhaskar
    Ok , I know the two standard ways to create a new thread and run it in Java : 1 Implement Runnable in a class , define run method ,and pass an instance of the class to a new Thread. When the start method on the thread instance is called , the run method of the class instance will be invoked. 2 Let the class derive from Thread, so it can to override the method run() and then when a new instance's start method is called , the call is routed to overridden method. In both methods , basically a new Thread object is created and its start method invoked. However , while in the second method , the mechanism of the call being routed to the user defined run() method is very clear ,( its a simple runtime polymorphism in play ), I dont understand how the call to start method on the Thread object gets routed to run() method of the class implementing Runnable interface. Does the Thread class have an private field of Type Runnable which it checks first , and if it is set then invokes the run method if it set to an object ? that would be a strange mechanism IMO. How does the call to start() on a thread get routed to the run method of the Runnable interface implemented by the class whose object is passed as a parameter when contructing the thread ?

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  • tomcat resource missing, servlet not running

    - by user2837260
    import javax.servlet.*; import java.io.*; public class MyServlet implements Servlet { public void init(ServletConfig con) {} public void service(ServletRequest req, ServletResponse res) throws IOException,ServletException { res.setContentType("text/html"); PrintWriter out=res.getWriter(); String s="blah"; String s1="blah"; out.println("<html><body>"); if((s.equals(req.getParameter("firstname")))&&(s1.equals(req.getParameter("pwd")))) out.println("passwords match"); else out.println("password and name combo does not match"); out.println("</body></html>"); } public void destroy() {} public ServletConfig getServletConfig() { return null;} public String getServletInfo() { return null;} } this is my java file with the servlet class.its saved with the name MyServlet.java and so is the class file. and here is the xml file: <web-app> <servlet> <servlet-name>demoo</servlet-name> <servlet-class>MyServlet</servlet-class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>demoo</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/demo</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> </web-app> i have made the folder as WEB-INF and then classes... WEB-INF also contains the .xml file but when i try to run the servlet , it says resource not found ps- i am already looking for the servlet with the name :demo localhost:8081/s1/demo* s1 is the war file * a html file in the war file seems to run fine on the server though. *

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  • Call a dynamically generated method on a ILGenerator on the same type

    - by Thiado de Arruda
    Normally, when I want to call a dynamic method in another ILGenerator object that is writing a method on the same type I do the following : generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_0); // reference to the current object generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldstr, "someArgument"); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, methodBuilder); //this methodbuilder is also defined on this dynamic type. However, I faced the following problem: I cant have a reference to the methodbuilder of the method I want to call, because it is generated by another framework(I only get a reference to the current TypeBuilder). This method is defined as protected virtual(and overriden on the methodbuilder I cant get a reference to) in the base class of the current dynamic type and I can get a reference to it by doing this : generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_0); // reference to the current object generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldstr, "someArgument"); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, baseType.GetMethod("SomeMethodDefinedInBaseClassThatWasOverridenInThisDynamicType")); The problem is that this calls the method on the base type and not the overriden method. Is there any way I can get a reference to a methodbuilder only having a reference to the typebuilder that defined it? Or is there a way to call a method using ILGenerator without having to pass the 'MethodInfo' object to it?

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  • WCF Custom SOAP Header Issues

    - by WayneC
    I'm trying to implement an endpoint behavior which injects a custom SOAP header into all messages to and from a service. I've gotten pretty close by implementing the approach from the accepted answer of this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/986455/wcf-wsdl-soap-header-on-all-operations/995951#995951 After implementing that solution, my custom SOAP header does indeed show up in the WSDL; however, when I try to call the methods on my service, I get the following exception/fault: <ExceptionDetail xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System.ServiceModel" xmlns:i="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <HelpLink i:nil="true" /> <InnerException i:nil="true" /> <Message>Index was outside the bounds of the array.</Message> <StackTrace> at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DataContractSerializerOperationFormatter.AddHeadersToMessage(Message message, MessageDescription messageDescription, Object[] parameters, Boolean isRequest) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.OperationFormatter.SerializeReply(MessageVersion messageVersion, Object[] parameters, Object result) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DispatchOperationRuntime.SerializeOutputs(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DispatchOperationRuntime.InvokeBegin(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage5(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage4(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage3(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage2(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage1(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.MessageRpc.Process(Boolean isOperationContextSet)</StackTrace> <Type>System.IndexOutOfRangeException</Type> </ExceptionDetail> Looking in Reflector at the DataContractSerializerOperationFormatter.AddHeadersToMessage method thats throwing the exception, leads me to believe that the following snippet is causing the problem...but I'm not sure why. MessageHeaderDescription description = (MessageHeaderDescription) headerPart.Description; object parameterValue = parameters[description.Index]; I think the last line above is throwing the exception. The parameters variable is from IDispatchFormatter.SerializeReply What's going on?!?!! Any help would be greatly appreciated...

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  • How do I create an inheritable Semaphore in .NET?

    - by pauldoo
    I am trying to create a Win32 Semaphore object which is inheritable. This means that any child processes I launch may automatically have the right to act on the same Win32 object. My code currently looks as follows: Semaphore semaphore = new Semaphore(0, 10); Process process = Process.Start(pathToExecutable, arguments); But the semaphore object in this code cannot be used by the child process. The code I am writing is a port of come working C++. The old C++ code achieves this by the following: SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES security = {0}; security.nLength = sizeof(security); security.bInheritHandle = TRUE; HANDLE semaphore = CreateSemaphore(&security, 0, LONG_MAX, NULL); Then later when CreateProcess is called the bInheritHandles argument is set to TRUE. (In both the C# and C++ case I am using the same child process (which is C++). It takes the semaphore ID on command line, and uses the value directly in a call to ReleaseSemaphore.) I suspect I need to construct a special SemaphoreSecurity or ProcessStartInfo object, but I haven't figured it out yet.

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  • Returning XML natively in a .NET (C#) webservice?

    - by James McMahon
    I realize that SOAP webservices in .NET return XML representation of whatever object the web method returns, but if I want to return data formatting in XML what is the best object to store it in? I am using the answer to this question to write my XML, here is the code: XmlWriter writer = XmlWriter.Create(pathToOutput); writer.WriteStartDocument(); writer.WriteStartElement("People"); writer.WriteStartElement("Person"); writer.WriteAttributeString("Name", "Nick"); writer.WriteEndElement(); writer.WriteStartElement("Person"); writer.WriteStartAttribute("Name"); writer.WriteValue("Nick"); writer.WriteEndAttribute(); writer.WriteEndElement(); writer.WriteEndElement(); writer.WriteEndDocument(); writer.Flush(); Now I can return this output as a String to my calling webmethod, but it shows up as <string> XML HERE </string>, is there anyway to just return the full xml? Please in your answer, give an example of how to use said object with either XmlWriter or another internal object (if you consider XmlWriter to be a poor choice). The System.Xml package (namespace) has many objects, but I haven't been able to uncover decent documentation on how to use the objects together, or what to use for what situations.

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  • ClassCastException in iterating list returned by Query using Hibernate Query Language

    - by Tushar Paliwal
    I'm beginner in hibernate.I'm trying a simplest example using HQL but it generates exception at line 25 ClassCastException when i try to iterate list.When i try to cast the object returned by next() methode of iterator it generates the same problem.I could not identify the problem.Kindly give me solution of the problem. Employee.java package one; import javax.persistence.Entity; import javax.persistence.Id; @Entity public class Employee { @Id private Long id; private String name; public Long getId() { return id; } public void setId(Long id) { this.id = id; } public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } public Employee(Long id, String name) { super(); this.id = id; this.name = name; } public Employee() { } } Main2.java package one; import java.util.Iterator; import java.util.List; import org.hibernate.Query; import org.hibernate.Session; import org.hibernate.SessionFactory; import org.hibernate.Transaction; import org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration; public class Main2 { public static void main(String[] args) { SessionFactory sf=new Configuration().configure().buildSessionFactory(); Session s1=sf.openSession(); Query q=s1.createQuery("from Employee "); Transaction tx=s1.beginTransaction(); List l=q.list(); Iterator itr=l.iterator(); while(itr.hasNext()) { Object obj[]=(Object[])itr.next();//Line 25 for(Object temp:obj) { System.out.println(temp); } } tx.commit(); s1.close(); sf.close(); } }

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  • Creation of Objects: Constructors or Static Factory Methods

    - by Rachel
    I am going through Effective Java and some of my things which I consider as standard are not suggested by the book, for instance creation of object, I was under the impression that constructors are the best way of doing it and books says we should make use of static factory methods, I am not able to few some advantages and so disadvantages and so am asking this question, here are the benefits of using it. Advantages: One advantage of static factory methods is that, unlike constructors, they have names. A second advantage of static factory methods is that, unlike constructors, they are not required to create a new object each time they’re invoked. A third advantage of static factory methods is that, unlike constructors, they can return an object of any subtype of their return type. A fourth advantage of static factory methods is that they reduce the verbosity of creating parameterized type instances. I am not able to understand this advantage and would appreciate if someone can explain this point Disadvantages: The main disadvantage of providing only static factory methods is that classes without public or protected constructors cannot be subclassed. A second disadvantage of static factory methods is that they are not readily distinguishable from other static methods.I am not getting this point and so would really appreciate some explanation. Reference: Effective Java, Joshua Bloch, Edition 2, pg: 5-10 Also, How to decide to use whether to go for Constructor or Static Factory Method for Object Creation ?

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  • Run-time error 459 when using WithEvents with a class that implements another

    - by Ken Keenan
    I am developing a VBA project in Word and have encountered a problem with handling events when using a class that implements another. I define an empty class, IMyInterface: Public Sub Xyz() End Sub Public Event SomeEvent() And a class, MyClass that implements the above: Implements IMyInterface Public Event SomeEvent() Public Sub Xyz() ' ... code ... RaiseEvent SomeEvent End Sub Private Sub IMyInterface_Xyz() Xyz End Sub If I create a third class, OtherClass, that declares a member variable with the type of the interface class: Private WithEvents mMy As IMyInterface and try to initialize this variable with an instance of the implementing class: Set mMy = New MyClass I get a run-time error '459': This component doesn't support this set of events. The MSDN page for this error message states: "You tried to use a WithEvents variable with a component that can't work as an event source for the specified set of events. For example, you may be sinking events of an object, then create another object that Implements the first object. Although you might think you could sink the events from the implemented object, that isn't automatically the case. Implements only implements an interface for methods and properties." The above pretty much sums up what I'm trying to do. The wording, "that isn't automatically the case", rather than "this is flat-out impossible", seems to suggest that there is some bit of manual work I need to do to get it to work, but it doesn't tell me what! Does anybody know if this is possible in VBA?

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  • problem configure JBoss to work with JNDI(2)

    - by Spiderman
    in continuation to the question from last week: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2828237/problem-configure-jboss-to-work-with-jndi I'm trying to bind datasource in JBoss and use it in my application. In my struggling, I already managed to avoid the javax.naming.NameNotFoundException by: 1. using in java new InitialContext().lookup(connection); instead of new JndiObjectFactoryBean().setJndiName(connection); 2. changing the connection name from: 'jndi-name' to 'java:jndi-name' Now the problem is that the datasouce that I get from the lookup is null. I created the datsource file: <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>bilby</jndi-name> <connection-url>jdbc:oracle:myURL</connection-url> <driver-class>oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver </driver-class> <user-name>myUsername</user-name> <password>myPassword</password> <exception-sorter-class- name>org.jboss.resource.adapter.jdbc.vendor.OracleExceptionSorter</exception-sorter-class-name> <metadata> <type-mapping>Oracle9i</type-mapping> </metadata> </local-tx-datasource> </datasources> and put it under \server\default\deploy\oracle-ds.xml I get during runtime the line: 18:37:56,560 INFO [ConnectionFactoryBindingService] Bound ConnectionManager 'jb oss.jca:service=DataSourceBinding,name=bilby' to JNDI name 'java:bilby' So my question is - why do I get null as my datasource???

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  • DuplicateKeyException in LINQ, but I've set auto increment and auto sync

    - by Fritos
    I'm getting a DuplicateKeyException error in my C# code. I've set Auto Generated = true, and Auto-Sync = OnInsert in my dbml. I'm not even touching the PK field in any manually written code (as seen below [My primary key field is actually called PK]). using (DeviceExerciseDataDataContext context = new DeviceExerciseDataDataContext()) { foreach(Data tgudData in data.Data) { tgd = new tableData(); tgd.FK = key; tgd.Time = tgudData.TimeStamp; tgd.Calories = Convert.ToInt32(tgudData.Calories); tgd.HeartRate = tgudData.AvgHr; tgd.BenchAngle = tgudData.Angle; tgd.WorkoutTarget = 0; tgd.Reps = tgudData.Reps; context.tableDatas.InsertOnSubmit(tgd); } context.SubmitChanges(); } This is the code for the column in the designer (columns are named PK and FK) [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage="_PK", AutoSync=AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType="Int NOT NULL", IsPrimaryKey=true, IsDbGenerated=true)] public int PK { get { return this._PK; } set { if ((this._PK != value)) { this.OnPKChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._PK = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("PK"); this.OnPKChanged(); } } } [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage="_FK", DbType="Int")] public System.Nullable<int> FK { get { return this._FK; } set { if ((this._FK != value)) { this.OnFKChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._FK = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("FK"); this.OnFKChanged(); } } }

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  • Doctrine2 - relationship

    - by Filip Golonka
    I'm developing an application, which is looking for optimal route and timetable in public transport. I have some experience about Doctrine1, but it's my first time with Doctrine2. There is soem new fields to describe relations (mappedBy and inversedBy) and also some new ways of mapping. I have following code: $query = $this->em->createQuery("SELECT partial cls.{stop}, partial t.{arriveTime, departureTime} FROM \Entities\Timetable t JOIN t.ride r JOIN t.carrierLineStop cls WHERE t.departureTime>=:time AND r.idCarrierLine=:carrierLine AND (cls.idStop=:firstStop OR cls.idStop=:lastStop)"); $query->setParameters(array( 'time' => $time, 'carrierLine' => $path->getLine(), 'firstStop' => $path->getFirstStop(), 'lastStop' => $path->getLastStop() )); When I try to execute that script I've got an error: [Semantical Error] line 0, col 24 near '}, partial t.{arriveTime,': Error: There is no mapped field named 'stop' on class Entities\CarrierLineStop. Mapping files: Entities\CarrierLineStop: type: entity table: carrier_line_stop fields: idCarrierLineStop: id: true type: integer unsigned: false nullable: false column: id_carrier_line_stop generator: strategy: IDENTITY nextStop: type: integer unsigned: false nullable: true column: next_stop manyToOne: idCarrierLine: targetEntity: Entities\CarrierLine cascade: { } mappedBy: null inversedBy: null joinColumns: id_carrier_line: referencedColumnName: id_carrier_line orphanRemoval: false stop: column: id_stop targetEntity: Entities\Stop cascade: { } mappedBy: null inversedBy: carrierLineStop joinColumns: id_stop: referencedColumnName: id_stop orphanRemoval: false lifecycleCallbacks: { } - Entities\Stop: type: entity table: stop fields: idStop: id: true type: integer unsigned: false nullable: false column: id_stop generator: strategy: IDENTITY name: type: string length: 45 fixed: false nullable: true miejscowosc: type: string length: 45 fixed: false nullable: true latitude: type: decimal nullable: true longitude: type: decimal nullable: true oneToMany: carrierLineStop: targetEntity: Entities\CarrierLineStop cascade: { } mappedBy: stop inversedBy: null joinColumns: id_stop: referencedColumnName: id_stop orphanRemoval: false lifecycleCallbacks: { } I have no idea about where the problem is...

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  • Nullability (Regular Expressions)

    - by danportin
    In Brzozowski's "Derivatives of Regular Expressions" and elsewhere, the function d(R) returning ? if a R is nullable, and Ø otherwise, includes clauses such as the following: d(R1 + R2) = d(R1) + d(R2) d(R1 · R2) = d(R1) ? d(R2) Clearly, if both R1 and R2 are nullable then (R1 · R2) is nullable, and if either R1 or R2 is nullable then (R1 + R2) is nullable. It is unclear to me what the above clauses are supposed to mean, however. My first thought, mapping (+), (·), or the Boolean operations to regular sets is nonsensical, since in the base case, d(a) = Ø (for all a ? S) d(?) = ? d(Ø) = Ø and ? is not a set (nor is the return type of d, which is a regular expression). Furthermore, this mapping isn't indicated, and there is a separate notation for it. I understand nullability, but I'm lost on the definition of the sum, product, and Boolean operations in the definition of d: how are ? or Ø returned from d(R1) ? d(R2), for instance, in the definition off d(R1 · R2)?

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  • Worklight console app, update

    - by jarkko
    We're using Worklight 6.1.0.0 / WebSphere 8.0.0.2 (ND/aix). This seemed pretty close to my question too, but for version 6.0. I've successfully done uninstall/install to our worklight console war package. However, there is some extra work on re-deploying adapters and such. I was looking for a way to just update the console. Among the ant tasks there is a target 'minimal-update', which sounds like what I'm looking for (is it?). However when all other pieces fell into place, I have an error for mapping the datasources: ADMA0007E: A validation error occurred in task Mapping resource references to resources. The Java Naming and Directory Interface (JNDI) name is not specified for resource reference jdbc/WorklightDS in module Worklight with EJB name . Contents of the 'minimal-update' task is pretty much the same as for 'install'. I tried that as update from websphere admin console (but i should use the ant task - right?), that gave me a wizard screen to map jdbc/WorklightDS from package to jdbc/WorklightDS on server. This left me wondering how could I tell this using the ant task.

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  • Thread Locking CollectionViewSource

    - by Robert
    I added an event handler to my code and it broke all access to the CollectionViewSources in the SystemHTA class saying "The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it". My class was working when "this.systemHTA = new SystemHTA();" was placed outside of the DeviceManager_StateChanged() function. public partial class MainWindow : Window { private DeviceManager DeviceManager = DeviceManager.Instance; public SystemHTA systemHTA; public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Window_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { DeviceManager.StateChanged += new EventHandler<DeviceManagerStateChangedEventArgs>(DeviceManager_StateChanged); DeviceManager.Initialize(); } void DeviceManager_StateChanged(object sender, DeviceManagerStateChangedEventArgs e) { if (e.State == DeviceManagerState.Operational) { this.systemHTA = new SystemHTA(); } } private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { this.systemHTA.GetViewSourceTest(); } } public class SystemHTA { private CollectionViewSource _deviceTestSource; public SystemHTA() { _deviceTestSource = new CollectionViewSource(); _deviceTestSource.Source = CreateLoadData<HWController>.ControllerCollection; } public void GetViewSourceTest() { ListCollectionView view = (ListCollectionView)_deviceTestSource.View; //This creates an error saying a thread already owns _deviceTestSource } }

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  • Whose fault is a NullReferenceException?

    - by stefan.at.wpf
    I'm currently working on a class which exposes an internal List through a property. The List shall and can be modified. The problem is, entries in the internal list could be set to null from outside the class. My code actually looks like this: class ClassWithList { List<object> _list = new List<object>(); // get accessor, which however returns the reference to the list, // therefore the list can be modified (this is intended) public List<object> Data { get { return _list; } } private void doSomeWorkWithTheList() { foreach(object obj in _list) // do some work with the objects in the list without checking for null. } } So now in the doSomeWorkWithTheList() I could always check whether the current list entry is null or I could just asume that the person using this class doesn't have the great idea to set entries to null. So finally the questions end up in: Whose fault is a NullReferenceException in this case? Is it the fault of the class developer not checking everything for null (which would make code generally - not only in this class - more complex) or is it the fault of the user of this class, as setting a List entry to null doesn't really make sense? I'd tend to generally not check values for null except in some really special cases. Is this a bad style or de facto standard / standard in praxis? I know there's probably no ultimate answer for this, I'm just missing enough experience for such thing and therefore wondering what other developers think about such cases and want to hear what's done in reality about checking null (or not).

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  • How to use AFIncrementalStore to binding with a NSManagedObject

    - by Matrosov Alexander
    I am searching for more information on how to use AFIncrementalStore. I need to know how to implement it step by step. Please don't down vote it, because of many resources, I really need help with this. If I understood right AFIncrementalStore it is a layer for fetching data from the server and for the mapping data model. Am I right? So I have few URL that I need to mapping into my local model. All of them use GET requests. For example base_url/api/categories I get this string in response: [{"category":{"name":"3d max","id":"1111001","users":[]}}, {"category":{"name":"photoshop","id":"1111002","users":[]}}, {"category":{"name":"auto cad","id":"1111003","users":[]}}] So I have a question how I can binding my local db with this data using AFIncrementalStore. Also if you can see there are relationships in the response string that are connected to uses. The array for users will contain id that is correspond to concert users. So I think second question is how to point that model has to have relationship.

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