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  • NSURLConnection receives data even if no data was thrown back

    - by Anna Fortuna
    Let me explain my situation. Currently, I am experimenting long-polling using NSURLConnection. I found this and I decided to try it. What I do is send a request to the server with a timeout interval of 300 secs. (or 5 mins.) Here is a code snippet: NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlString]; NSURLRequest *request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url cachePolicy:NSURLCacheStorageAllowedInMemoryOnly timeoutInterval:300]; NSData *data = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&resp error:&err]; Now I want to test if the connection will "hold" the request if no data was thrown back from the server, so what I did was this: if (data != nil) [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(dataReceived:) withObject:data waitUntilDone:YES]; And the function dataReceived: looks like this: - (void)dataReceived:(NSData *)data { NSLog(@"DATA RECEIVED!"); NSString *string = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:[data bytes]]; NSLog(@"THE DATA: %@", string); } Server-side, I created a function that will return a data once it fits the arguments and returns none if nothing fits. Here is a snippet of the PHP function: function retrieveMessages($vardata) { if (!empty($vardata)) { $result = check_data($vardata) //check_data is the function which returns 1 if $vardata //fits the arguments, and 0 if it fails to fit if ($result == 1) { $jsonArray = array('Data' => $vardata); echo json_encode($jsonArray); } } } As you can see, the function will only return data if the $result is equal to 1. However, even if the function returns nothing, NSURLConnection will still perform the function dataReceived: meaning the NSURLConnection still receives data, albeit an empty one. So can anyone help me here? How will I perform long-polling using NSURLConnection? Basically, I want to maintain the connection as long as no data is returned. So how will I do it? NOTE: I am new to PHP, so if my code is wrong, please point it out so I can correct it.

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  • MySQL default value based on view

    - by Jake
    Basically I have a bunch of views based on a simple discriminator column (eg. CREATE VIEW tablename AS SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE discrcolumn = "discriminator value"). Upon inserting a new row into this view, it should insert "discriminator value" into discrcolumn. I tried this, but apparently MySQL doesn't figure this out itself, as it throws an error "Field of view viewname underlying table does not have a default value". The discriminator column is set to NOT NULL of course. How do I mend this? Perhaps a pre-insert trigger? UPDATE: Triggers won't work on views, see below comment. Would it work to create a trigger on the table which uses a variable, and set that variable at establishing the connection? For each connection the value of that variable would be the same, but it could differ from other connections. EDIT: This appears to work... Setup: CREATE TRIGGER insert_[tablename] BEFORE INSERT ON [tablename] FOR EACH ROW SET NEW.[discrcolumn] = @variable Runtime: SET @variable = [descrvalue]; INSERT INTO [viewname] ([columnlist]) VALUES ([values]);

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  • ASP: Assigning CSS to dynamically created Label in C#

    - by Tucker
    I'm trying to figure out how to apply CSS to a Label created in C#. Everything compiles and runs, it just doesn't seem to be applying the CSS. The CSS is in the file linked to in the site master page. Everything else in the CSS file is being applied as it should be. Codebehind: ... Label label = new Label(); SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand("SELECT Q_Text FROM HRA.dbo.Questions WHERE QID = 1"); command.Connection = connection; reader = command.ExecuteReader(); reader.Read(); label.Text = reader["Q_Text"].ToString(); label.ID = "rblabel"; label.CssClass = "rblabel"; reader.Close(); ... ASP: <asp:Content runat="server" ID="BodyContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent"> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="holder" runat="server"> </asp:PlaceHolder> </asp:Content> CSS: .rblabel { text-align:left; padding-left: 2em; font-size: 4em; }

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  • Why doesn't my test run tearDownAfterTestClass when it fails

    - by Memor-X
    in a test i am writing the setUpBeforeTests creates a new customer in the database who is then used to perform the tests with so naturally when i finish the test i should get rid of this test customer in tearDownAfterTestClass so that i can create then anew when i rerun the test and not get any false positives how when the tests all run fine i have no problem but if a test fails and i go to rerun it my setUpBeforeTests fails because i check for mysql errors in it like this try { if(!mysqli_query($connection,$query)) { $this->assertTrue(false); } } catch (Exception $exc) { $msg = '[tearDownAfterTestClass] Exception Error' . PHP_EOL . PHP_EOL; $msg .= 'Could not run query - '.mysqli_error($connection). PHP_EOL;; $this->fail($msg); } the error i get is that there is a primary key violation which is expected cause i'm trying to create a new customer using the same data (primary key is on email which is also used to log in) however that means when the test failed it didn't run tearDownAfterTestClass now i could just move everything in tearDownAfterTestClass to the start of setUpBeforeTests however to me that seems like bad programming since it defeates the purpose of even have tearDownAfterTestClass so i am wondering, why isn't my tearDownAfterTestClass running when a test fails NOTE: the database is a fundamental part of the system i'm testing and the database and system are on a separate development environment not the live one, the backup files for the database are almost 2 GBs and takes almost 1/2 an hour to restore, the purpose of the tear down is to remove any data we have added because of the test so that we don't have to restore the database every time we run the tests

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  • SSIS Transaction with Sql Transaction

    - by Mike
    I started with a package to make sure Transactions are working correctly. The package level transaction is set to Required. I have two Execute Sql Task, one deletes rows from a table and one does 1/0, to throw the error. Both task are set to supported transaction level and Serializable IsolationLevel. That works. Now when I replace my two sql task to two separate procedure calls, the first one, ChargeInterest, runs successful but the second one, PaymentProcess, fails always saying. [Execute SQL Task] Error: Executing the query "Exec [proc_xx_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] ..." failed with the following error: "Uncommittable transaction is detected at the end of the batch. The transaction is rolled back.". Possible failure reasons: Problems with the query, "ResultSet" property not set correctly, parameters not set correctly, or connection not established correctly. PaymentProcess being the second stored procedure. Both procedures have there own BEGIN, COMMIT AND ROLLBACKS inside the SP. I believe that the transactions are being successfully handed in the Charge Interest because I can run the following without issues or the dreaded you started with 0 and now have 1 transaction. EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_ChargeInterest] 'NR', 'M', 186, 300 EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] 'NR', 186, 300 --OR GO BEGIN TRAN EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_ChargeInterest] 'NR', 'M', 186, 300 EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] 'NR', 186, 300 ROLLBACK TRAN Now I have noticed that DTC does get kicked off in both instances? Why I am not sure because it is using the same connection. In the live example I can see the transaction get started but disappears if I put a breakpoint on the PreExecute event of the second stored procedure. What is the correct way to mingle SP transactions with SSIS transactions?

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  • Sending Email over VPN SmtpException net_io_connectionclosed

    - by Holy Christ
    I am sending an email from a WPF application. When sending as a domain user on the network, the emails sends as expected. However, when I attempt to send email over a VPN connection, I get the following exception: Exception: System.Net.Mail.SmtpException: Failure sending mail. --- System.IO.IOException: Unable to read data from the transport connection: net_io_connectionclosed. at System.Net.Mail.SmtpReplyReaderFactory.ProcessRead(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 read, Boolean readLine) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpReplyReaderFactory.ReadLines(SmtpReplyReader caller, Boolean oneLine) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpReplyReaderFactory.ReadLine(SmtpReplyReader caller) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpConnection.GetConnection(String host, Int32 port) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpTransport.GetConnection(String host, Int32 port) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpClient.GetConnection() at System.Net.Mail.SmtpClient.Send(MailMessage message) I have tried using impersonation as well as setting the Credentials on the SmtpClient. Neither seem to work: using (new ImpersonateUser("myUser", "MYDOMAIN", "myPass")) { var client = new SmtpClient("myhost.com"); client.UseDefaultCredentials = true; client.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("myUser", "myPass", "MYDOMAIN"); client.Send(mailMessage); } I've also tried using Wireshark to view the message over the wire, but I don't know enough about SMTP to know what I'm looking for. One other variable is that the machine I'm using on the VPN is Vista Business and the machine on the network is Win7. I don't think it's related, but then I wouldn't be asking if I knew the issue! :) Any ideas?

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  • Calculate the retrieved rows in database Visual C#

    - by Tanya Lertwichaiworawit
    I am new in Visual C# and would want to know how to calculate the retrieved data from a database. Using the above GUI, when "Calculate" is click, the program will display the number of students in textBox1, and the average GPA of all students in textBox2. Here is my database table "Students": I was able to display the number of students but I'm still confused to how I can calculate the average GPA Here's my code: private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string connection = @"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source=C:\Database1.accdb"; OleDbConnection connect = new OleDbConnection(connection); string sql = "SELECT * FROM Students"; connect.Open(); OleDbCommand command = new OleDbCommand(sql, connect); DataSet data = new DataSet(); OleDbDataAdapter adapter = new OleDbDataAdapter(command); adapter.Fill(data, "Students"); textBox1.Text = data.Tables["Students"].Rows.Count.ToString(); double gpa; for (int i = 0; i < data.Tables["Students"].Rows.Count; i++) { gpa = Convert.ToDouble(data.Tables["Students"].Rows[i][2]); } connect.Close(); }

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  • Why can't I access the facebook friends list after reopening a session in ios

    - by user1532390
    I am upgrading to the facebook 3.0 sdk for ios. Things went well, until I tried to open an existing session after relaunching the application. I am trying to access the list of friends for the facebook user. if ([[FBSession activeSession] isOpen]) { [request startWithCompletionHandler:^(FBRequestConnection *connection, id result, NSError *error) { //do something here }]; }else{ [[self session] openWithCompletionHandler:^(FBSession *session, FBSessionState status, NSError *error) { if ([self isValid]) { [request startWithCompletionHandler:^(FBRequestConnection *connection, id result, NSError *error) { //log this error we always get NSLog(@"%@",error); //do something else }]; } }]; } However I get this error: Error Domain=com.facebook.sdk Code=5 "The operation couldn’t be completed. (com.facebook.sdk error 5.)" UserInfo=0x1d92ff40 {com.facebook.sdk:ParsedJSONResponseKey={ body = { error = { code = 2500; message = "An active access token must be used to query information about the current user."; type = OAuthException; }; }; code = 400; }, com.facebook.sdk:HTTPStatusCode=400} I've found that if I use the FBSession reauthorize method it allows me to complete the request without error, but it also means I must show UI or switch apps every time we relaunch the application which is unacceptable. Any suggestions on what I should be doing differently?

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  • Cannot connect to SQL Server from ASP.NET MVC app

    - by Dan Fergus
    I have an ASP.NET MVC app that has on a hosted server for over a year, connecting to SQL Server. I've had to change hosting services, the new one supports MVC 1.0. I've also moved a non MVC ASP app to the same hosting service. Now, MY MVC based app retturnes this error when I try to validate a user login. A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) Now, the non-MVC app can access the exact same database and authenticate users just fine. The MVC app, when run from my dev box connects fine. It also run/connects/authenticates without problem when I install and run the site from an internal SQL 2008 server running IIS 7. I, along with the hosting support techs, am at a loss how the exact same connect string works every where except on the hosted server, and only when run from inside an ASP.NET MVC web app. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Return type from DAL class (Sql ce, Linq to Sql)

    - by bretddog
    Hi, Using VS2008 and Sql CE 3.5, and preferably Linq to Sql. I'm learning database, and unsure about DAL methods return types and how/where to map the data over to my business objects: I don't want direct UI binding. A business object class UserData, and a class UserDataList (Inherits List(Of UserData)), is represented in the database by the table "Users". I use SQL Compact and run SqlMetal which creates dbml/designer.vb file. This gives me a class with a TableAttribute: <Table()> _ Partial Public Class Users I'm unsure how to use this class. Should my business object know about this class, such that the DAL can return the type Users, or List(Of Users) ? So for example the "UserDataService Class" is a part of the DAL, and would have for example the functions GetAll and GetById. Will this be correct : ? Public Class UserDataService Public Function GetAll() As List(Of Users) Dim ctx As New MyDB(connection) Dim q As List(Of Users) = From n In ctx.Users Select n Return q End Function Public Function GetById(ByVal id As Integer) As Users Dim ctx As New MyDB(connection) Dim q As Users = (From n In ctx.Users Where n.UserID = id Select n).Single Return q End Function And then, would I perhaps have a method, say in the UserDataList class, like: Public Class UserDataList Inherits List(Of UserData) Public Sub LoadFromDatabase() Me.clear() Dim database as New UserDataService dim users as List(Of Users) users = database.GetAll() For each u in users dim newUser as new UserData newUser.Id = u.Id newUser.Name = u.Name Me.Add(newUser) Next End Sub End Class Is this a sensible approach? Would appreciate any suggestions/alternatives, as this is my first attempt on a database DAL. cheers!

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  • PHP - DOM class - numbered entities and encodings problem

    - by user343607
    Hi guys, I'm having some difficult with PHP DOM class. I am making a sitemap script, and I need the output of $doc-saveXML() to be like <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <root> <url> <loc>http://www.somesite.com/servi&#xE7;os/redesign</loc> </url> </root> or <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <root> <url> <loc>http://www.somesite.com/servi&#231;os/redesign</loc> </url> </root> but I am getting: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <root> <url> <loc>http://www.somesite.com/servi&amp;#xE7;os/redesign</loc> </url> </root> This is the closet I could get, using a replace named to numbered entities function. I was also able to reproduce <?xml version="1.0" ?> <root> <url> <loc>http://www.somesite.com/servi&amp;#xE7;os/redesign</loc> </url> </root> But without the encoding specified. The best solution (the way I think the code should be written) would be: <?php $myArray = array(); // do some stuff to populate the with URL strings $doc = new DOMDocument('1.0', 'UTF-8'); // here we modify some property. Maybe is the answer I am looking for... $urlset = doc->createElement("urlset"); $urlset = $doc->appendChild($urlset); foreach($myArray as $address) { $url = $doc->createElement("url"); $url = $urlset->appendChild($url); $loc = $doc->createElement("loc"); $loc = $url->appendChild($loc); $valueContent = $doc->createTextNode($value); $valueContent = $loc->appendChild($address); } echo $doc->saveXML(); ?> Notes: Server response header contains charset as UTF-8; PHP script is saved in UTF-8; URLs read are UTF-8 strings; Above script contains encoding declaration on DOMDocument constructor, and does not use any convert functions, like htmlentities, urlencode, utf8_encode... I've tried changing the DOMDocument properties DOMDocument::$resolveExternals and DOMDocument::$substituteEntities values. None combinations worked. And yes, I know I can made all process without specifying the character set on DOMDocument constructor, dump string content into a variable and make a very simple string substitution with string replace functions. This works. But I would like to know where I am slipping, how can this be made using native API's and settings, or even if this is possible. Thanks in advance.

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  • QLocalSocket and QLocalServer in browser plugins

    - by kambamsu
    Hi, I have a simple doubt. Does the ipc mechanism in qt work when we use it for developing browser plugins? The reason i ask this is that I can easily get the QLocalSocket and QLocalServer communication to work in a qt application, but when i write a similar piece of code in a browser plugin dll i see that the server does not accept a new connection at all. This is what i do in the server: server = new QLocalServer(this); if( !server->listen("myServer")) { writeFile("Listen failed"); } connect(server, SIGNAL(newConnection()), this, SLOT(handleConn()),Qt::QueuedConnection); and this is what i do in the client: client = new QLocalSocket(this); client->abort(); QObject::connect(client,SIGNAL(connected()),this,SLOT(connClient()),Qt::QueuedConnection); client->connectToServer("myServer"); after i call connectToServer, my client emits the connected() signal and the connClient() slot is called. But, on the server side, there is no signal emitted. It doesn't seem to be receiving any connection at all. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks

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  • Blocking apache access via user agent string

    - by Tchalvak
    I've got a scripter who is using a proxy to attack a website I'm serving. I've noticed that they tend to access the site via software with a certain common user agent string (i.e. http://www.itsecteam.com/en/projects/project1_page2.htm "Havij advanced sql injection software" with a user_agent string of Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 7.0; Windows NT 5.1; SV1; .NET CLR 2.0.50727) Havij). I'm aware that any cracking software worth it's salt will probably be able to modify it's user agent string, but I'm fine with the scripter having to deal with that feature at some point. So, is there any software out there for automatically blocking access & permanently blacklisting by matching user agent strings?

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  • What is the best way to return result from business layer to presentation layer when using linq - I

    - by samsur
    I have a business layer that has DTOs that are used in the presentation layer. This application uses entity framework. Here is an example of a class called RoleDTO public class RoleDTO { public Guid RoleId { get; set; } public string RoleName { get; set; } public string RoleDescription { get; set; } public int? OrganizationId { get; set; } } In the BLL I want to have a method that returns a list of DTO.. I would like to know which is the better approach: returning IQueryable or list of DTOs. Although i feel that returning Iqueryable is not a good idea because the connection needs to be open. Here are the 2 different methods using the different approaches public class RoleBLL { private servicedeskEntities sde; public RoleBLL() { sde = new servicedeskEntities(); } public IQueryable<RoleDTO> GetAllRoles() { IQueryable<RoleDTO> role = from r in sde.Roles select new RoleDTO() { RoleId = r.RoleID, RoleName = r.RoleName, RoleDescription = r.RoleDescription, OrganizationId = r.OrganizationId }; return role; } Note: in the above method the datacontext is a private attribute and set in the constructor, so that the connection stays opened. Second approach public static List GetAllRoles() { List roleDTO = new List(); using (servicedeskEntities sde = new servicedeskEntities()) { var roles = from pri in sde.Roles select new { pri.RoleID, pri.RoleName, pri.RoleDescription }; //Add the role entites to the DTO list and return. This is necessary as anonymous types can be returned acrosss methods foreach (var item in roles) { RoleDTO roleItem = new RoleDTO(); roleItem.RoleId = item.RoleID; roleItem.RoleDescription = item.RoleDescription; roleItem.RoleName = item.RoleName; roleDTO.Add(roleItem); } return roleDTO; } Please let me know, if there is a better approach - Thanks,

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  • ~1 second TcpListener Pending()/AcceptTcpClient() lag

    - by cpf
    Probably just watch this video: http://screencast.com/t/OWE1OWVkO As you see, the delay between a connection being initiated (via telnet or firefox) and my program first getting word of it. Here's the code that waits for the connection public IDLServer(System.Net.IPAddress addr,int port) { Listener = new TcpListener(addr, port); Listener.Server.NoDelay = true;//I added this just for testing, it has no impact Listener.Start(); ConnectionThread = new Thread(ConnectionListener); ConnectionThread.Start(); } private void ConnectionListener() { while (Running) { while (Listener.Pending() == false) { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1); }//this is the part with the lag Console.WriteLine("Client available");//from this point on everything runs perfectly fast TcpClient cl = Listener.AcceptTcpClient(); Thread proct = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(InstanceHandler)); proct.Start(cl); } } (I was having some trouble getting the code into a code block) I've tried a couple different things, could it be I'm using TcpClient/Listener instead of a raw Socket object? It's not a mandatory TCP overhead I know, and I've tried running everything in the same thread, etc.

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  • Socket.Recieve Failing When Multithreaded

    - by Qua
    The following piece of code runs fine when parallelized to 4-5 threads, but starts to fail as the number of threads increase somewhere beyond 10 concurrentthreads int totalRecieved = 0; int recieved; StringBuilder contentSB = new StringBuilder(4000); while ((recieved = socket.Receive(buffer, SocketFlags.None)) > 0) { contentSB.Append(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(buffer, 0, recieved)); totalRecieved += recieved; } The Recieve method returns with zero bytes read, and if I continue calling the recieve method then I eventually get a 'An established connection was aborted by the software in your host machine'-exception. So I'm assuming that the host actually sent data and then closed the connection, but for some reason I never recieved it. I'm curious as to why this problem arises when there are a lot of threads. I'm thinking it must have something to do with the fact that each thread doesn't get as much execution time and therefore there are some idle time for the threads which causes this error. Just can't figure out why idle time would cause the socket not to recieve any data.

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  • Login as SYS user to Oracle 11g from .NET

    - by Jens Bannmann
    Using the Oracle Data Provider for .NET, my application connects to the database using the privileged SYS user. The connection string is as follows: Data Source=MyTnsName;User ID=sys;Password=MySysPassword;DBA Privilege=SYSDBA This works fine with Oracle 10, but Oracle 11 keeps complaining about an invalid username or password. I verified that the password is correct - other apps work fine with the same credentials. Note that for regular users (without the DBA Privilege part), connecting to Oracle 11 works perfectly. So, what's wrong? Update: This is not an issue with case sensitivity - when constructing the connection string, the password case is not altered by my code, and the password works fine with other, non-.NET-applications. I suspect that this might be caused by the Oracle 10 client I'm using to connect to the 11 database. Oracle states that the client is upward-compatible, the only drawback being that you cannot use some new features of the database. However, SYSDBA connections clearly are not a new Oracle 11 feature, and - again - a non-.NET-app (Keeptool Hora) can connect using the same setup. Any other ideas? Update 2: The problem persists when using an Oracle 11 client :-(

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  • apache web server configuration problem

    - by mohit
    i want to have apache server to serve only /var/www/ directory now it serves all my files on system from directory "/" i tried to edit httpd.conf placed in /etc/apache2 and placed the folllowing content in it(intially it was empty) <Directory /> Options None AllowOverride None </Directory> DocumentRoot "/var/www" <Directory "/var/www"> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> then saved it,restarted apache server put the location /var/www in the web browser address bar,still it shows the higher level directories too then i edited the file Default,Default-ssl in the sites-available folder repeated the same process still apache serves all files on my system 2.when i try to use the following command gedit httpd.conf I get the error gedit:2696): EggSMClient-WARNING **: Failed to connect to the session manager: None of the authentication protocols specified are supported GConf Error: Failed to contact configuration server; some possible causes are that you need to enable TCP/IP networking for ORBit, or you have stale NFS locks due to a system crash. See http://projects.gnome.org/gconf/ for information. (Details - 1: Failed to get connection to session: Did not receive a reply. Possible causes include: the remote application did not send a reply, the message bus security policy blocked the reply, the reply timeout expired, or the network connection was broken.)

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  • ASP.NET Login Control rejects users who exist

    - by rsteckly
    Hi, I'm having some trouble with the ASP.NET 2.0 Login Control. I've setup a database with the aspI.net regsql tool. I've checked the application name. It is set to "/". The application can access the SQL Server. In fact, when I go to retrieve the password, it will even send me the password. Despite this, the login control continues to reject logins. I added this to the web.config: <membership defaultProvider="AspNetSqlProvider"> <providers> <clear/> <add name="AspNetSqlProvider" connectionStringName="LocalSqlServer" applicationName="/" type="System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider, System.Web, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a"/> </providers> And I added the following to my connection strings: <remove name="LocalSqlServer" /> <add name="LocalSqlServer" connectionString="Data Source=IDC-4\EXCALIBUR;Initial Catalog=allied_nr;Integrated Security=True;Asynchronous Processing=True"/> (Note the "remove name" is to get rid of the default connection string in the App_Data directory.) Why won't the login control authenticate users?

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  • Uncrackable anti-piracy protection/DRM even possible? [closed]

    - by some guy
    I hope that this is programming-related enough. You have probably heard about Ubisofts recent steps against piracy. (New DRM requires a constant connection to the Ubisoft server) Many people including me see this as intolerable because the only ones suffering from it at the end are the paying customers. Now to the actual question(s): Ubisoft justified this by calling this mechanism "Uncrackable, only playable by the paying customers". Is a so called uncrackable DRM even possible? You can reverse-engineer and modify everything, even if it takes long. Isn't Ubisoft already lying by calling something not crackable? I mean, hey - With the game you get all its content (textures, models, you know) and some anti-piracy mechanism hardcoded into it. How could that be "uncrackable"? You can just patch the unwanted mechanisms out ---- "Pirates" play the cracked game without problems and the paying customers are the idiots by having constant problems with the game and being unable to play it without a (working) internet connection. What are the points Ubisoft sees in this? If they are at least a bit intelligent and informed they know their anti-piracy protection won't last long. All they get is lower sales, angry customers and happy pirates and crackers.

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  • Compare system date with a date field in SQL

    - by JeT_BluE
    I am trying to compare a date record in SQL Server with the system date. In my example the user first register with his name and date of birth which are then stored in the database. The user than logs into the web application using his name only. After logging in, his name is shown on the side where it says "Welcome "player name" using Sessions. What I am trying to show in addition to his name is a message saying "happy birthday" if his date of birth matches the system date. I have tried working with System.DateTime.Now, but what I think is that it is also comparing the year, and what I really want is the day and the month only. I would really appreciate any suggestion or help. CODE In Login page: protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { String name = TextBox1.Text; String date = System.DateTime.Today.ToShortDateString(); SqlConnection myconn2 = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["User"].ToString()); SqlCommand cmd2 = new SqlCommand(); SqlDataReader reader; myconn2.Open(); cmd2 = new SqlCommand("Select D_O_B from User WHERE Username = @username", myconn2); cmd2.Parameters.Add("@username", SqlDbType.NVarChar).Value = name; cmd2.Connection = myconn2 cmd2.ExecuteNonQuery(); reader = cmd2.ExecuteReader(); while (reader.Read().ToString() == date) { Session["Birthday"] = "Happy Birthday"; } } Note: I using the same reader in the code above this one, but the reader here is with a different connection. Also, reader.Read() is different than reader.HasRows? Code in Web app Page: string date = (string)(Session["Birthday"]); // Retrieving the session Label6.Text = date;

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  • Are there more secure alternatives to the .Net SQLConnection class?

    - by KeyboardMonkey
    Hi SO people, I'm very surprised this issue hasn't been discussed in-depth: This article tells us how to use windbg to dump a running .Net process strings in memory. I spent much time researching the SecureString class, which uses unmanaged pinned memory blocks, and keeps the data encrypted too. Great stuff. The problem comes in when you use it's value, and assign it to the SQLConnection.ConnectionString property, which is of the System.String type. What does this mean? Well... It's stored in plain text Garbage Collection moves it around, leaving copies in memory It can be read with windbg memory dumps That totally negates the SecureString functionality! On top of that, the SQLConnection class is non-inheritable, I can't even roll my own with a SecureString property instead; Yay for closed-source. Yay. A new DAL layer is in progress, but for a new major version and for so many users it will be at least 2 years before every user is upgraded, others might stay on the old version indefinitely, for whatever reason. Because of the frequency the connection is used, marshalling from a SecureString won't help, since the immutable old copies stick in memory until GC comes around. Integrated Windows security isn't an option, since some clients don't work on domains, and other roam and connect over the net. How can I secure the connection string, in memory, so it can't be viewed with windbg?

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  • Apache rewrite module, 404 not found

    - by Eneroth3
    I've been having some problems with rewriting directory styled addresses into query strings for my php scripts. Here's the code RewriteRule ^(\w+)/?(\w+)?/?(\w+)?/?$ /index.php?section=$1&category=$2&subcategory=$3 [QSA] This line works perfectly fine on both my local wamp and lamp server, and my friend's lamp server. However on the web hotel I've been using (freehostia) I only get a 404 error when trying to browse a "directory" that isn't really there (supposed to be generated by php). I've tried connecting their support but they only say 3rd party applications aren't their job. I know rewriteEngine is turned on because some basic redirect attempts have worked. Perhaps this line of code could be better written? It's quite important that extra queries are appended and would be nice (but not necessary) if the last slash could be left out. Any help is appreciated :)

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  • Insert data in an object to a database.

    - by paul
    I am facing the following design/implementation dilemma. I have a class Customer which is below with getters and setters. I would like to insert the value of the Customer into a "Customer" table of a database. But Customer has an address which is of type "Address". How do I go about inserting this field into the database?(I am using sqlite3). I thought of writing a separate table "Address(customerId,doorNo,city,state,country,pinCode)". But I am having second thoughts about generating the primary key(customerId) which should be same for both the "customer" and "Address" table. Sqlite3 faq states that I can do "Integer Primary Key" to use the field to generate an auto number. But if I do that in customer table, I would have to retrieve the same Id to be used in Address table. This kinda looks wrong to me :-?. There should be an elegant method to solve this. Any ideas would be much appreciated. Thanks in advance. import java.io.*; import java.sql.*; class Customer { private String id; private String name; private Address address; private Connection connection; private ResultSet resultSet; private PreparedStatement preparedStatement; public void insertToDatabase(){ } } class Address{ private String doorNumber; private String streetName; private String cityName; private String districtName; private String stateName; private String countryName; private long pinCode; }

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  • Auditing front end performance on web application

    - by user1018494
    I am currently trying to performance tune the UI of a company web application. The application is only ever going to be accessed by staff, so the speed of the connection between the server and client will always be considerably more than if it was on the internet. I have been using performance auditing tools such as Y Slow! and Google Chrome's profiling tool to try and highlight areas that are worth targeting for investigation. However, these tools are written with the internet in mind. For example, the current suggestions from a Google Chrome audit of the application suggests is as follows: Network Utilization Combine external CSS (Red warning) Combine external JavaScript (Red warning) Enable gzip compression (Red warning) Leverage browser caching (Red warning) Leverage proxy caching (Amber warning) Minimise cookie size (Amber warning) Parallelize downloads across hostnames (Amber warning) Serve static content from a cookieless domain (Amber warning) Web Page Performance Remove unused CSS rules (Amber warning) Use normal CSS property names instead of vendor-prefixed ones (Amber warning) Are any of these bits of advice totally redundant given the connection speed and usage pattern? The users will be using the application frequently throughout the day, so it doesn't matter if the initial hit is large (when they first visit the page and build their cache) so long as a minimal amount of work is done on future page views. For example, is it worth the effort of combining all of our CSS and JavaScript files? It may speed up the initial page view, but how much of a difference will it really make on subsequent page views throughout the working day? I've tried searching for this but all I keep coming up with is the standard internet facing performance advice. Any advice on what to focus my performance tweaking efforts on in this scenario, or other auditing tool recommendations, would be much appreciated.

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