Search Results

Search found 11381 results on 456 pages for 'intellectual property'.

Page 391/456 | < Previous Page | 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394 395 396 397 398  | Next Page >

  • Unable to get values in ftl from value stack in custom Result Type

    - by Nagadev
    Hello, I am unable retrieve value from value stack in FTL file. Here is the code. Action class holds a property called 'name' private String name; public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } public String execute(){ setName("From value stack .. "); return SUCCESS; } FTL code: ${name} Custom result Type deExecute Method Configuration configuration = new Configuration(); String templatePath = "/ftl"; ServletContext context = ServletActionContext.getServletContext(); configuration.setServletContextForTemplateLoading(context, templatePath); configuration.setObjectWrapper(new DefaultObjectWrapper()); Template template = configuration.getTemplate("sample.ftl"); OutputStreamWriter out = new OutputStreamWriter(System.out); template.process(ActionContext.getContext().getValueStack(), out); I am passing the value Stack which contains recently executed Action as well. But FTL is throwing an exception Expression name is undefined on line 1, column 3 in sample.ftl I tried with passing session instead of value stack and I could get the value in FTL. Please suggest me a way to get values from Action class to FTL from value stack. Thanks inadvance.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate: Querying objects by attributes of inherited classes

    - by MichaelD
    Hi all, I ran into a problem with Hibernate concerning queries on classes which use inheritance. Basically I've the following class hierarchy: @Entity @Table( name = "recording" ) class Recording { ClassA attributeSet; ... } @Entity @Inheritance( strategy = InheritanceType.JOINED ) @Table( name = "classA" ) public class ClassA { String Id; ... } @Entity @Table( name = "ClassB1" ) @PrimaryKeyJoinColumn( name = "Id" ) public class ClassB1 extends ClassA { private Double P1300; private Double P2000; } @Entity @Table( name = "ClassB2" ) @PrimaryKeyJoinColumn( name = "Id" ) public class ClassB2 extends ClassA { private Double P1300; private Double P3000; } The hierarchy is already given like this and I cannot change it easily. As you can see ClassB1 and ClassB2 inherit from ClassA. Both classes contain a set of attributes which sometimes even have the same names (but I can't move them to ClassA since there are possible more sub-classes which do not use them). The Recording class references one instance of one of this classes. Now my question: What I want to do is selecting all Recording objects in my database which refer to an instance of either ClassB1 or ClassB2 with e.g. the field P1300 == 15.5 (so this could be ClassB1 or ClassB2 instances since the P1300 attribute is declared in both classes). What I tried is something like this: Criteria criteria = session.createCriteria(Recording.class); criteria.add( Restrictions.eq( "attributeSet.P1300", new Double(15.5) ) ); criteria.list(); But since P1300 is not an attribute of ClassA hibernate throws an exception telling me: could not resolve property: P1300 of: ClassA How can I tell hibernate that it should search in all subclasses to find the attribute I want to filter? Thanks MichaelD

    Read the article

  • In a bidirectional JPA OneToMany/ManyToOne association, what is meant by "the inverse side of the as

    - by Bytecode Ninja
    In these examples on TopLink JPA Annotation Reference: Example 1-59 @OneToMany - Customer Class With Generics @Entity public class Customer implements Serializable { ... @OneToMany(cascade=ALL, mappedBy="customer") public Set<Order> getOrders() { return orders; } ... } Example 1-60 @ManyToOne - Order Class With Generics @Entity public class Order implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="CUST_ID", nullable=false) public Customer getCustomer() { return customer; } ... } It seams to me that the Customer entity is the owner of the association. However, in the explanation for the mappedBy attribute in the same document, it is written that: if the relationship is bidirectional, then set the mappedBy element on the inverse (non-owning) side of the association to the name of the field or property that owns the relationship as Example 1-60 shows. However, if I am not wrong, looks like in the example the mappedBy is actually specified on the owning side of the association, rather than the non-owning side. So my question is basically: In a bidirectional (one-to-many/many-to-one) association, which of the entities is the owner? How can we designate the One side as the owner? How can we designate the Many side as the owner? What is meant by "the inverse side of the association"? How can we designate the One side as the inverse? How can we designate the Many side as the inverse? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Using Hibernate with MS ACCESS 2007 Database (Free JDBC Driver)

    - by Quentin T.
    1. I want to do a reverse engineering action with the Hibernate plugin of Eclipse on a MS Access 2007 Database. I'm forced to use a existing MS Access 2007 db. A easy solution is to buy the HXTT. But I want to use a free driver to do my work. So I tried to apply this post : http://www.programmingforfuture.com/2011/06/how-to-use-ms-access-with-hibernate.html (That uses the SQL Server dialect and the driver sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver) Unfortunately I have an error that nobody seems to have been on the internet: Exception while generating code Reason : org.hibernate.exception.GenericJDBCException: Error while reading primary key meta data for `c:/myaccessdb.mdb`.TableTest1 I have try to change the primary key on my MS Access DB (deleting all primary key) or to try the reverse engineering on a MS ACCESS with only one table without primary key, but I got all times the problems. 2. The purpose of my job is to transfer daily (weekly) an Oracle 11g database with data from an existing database MS ACCESS 2007. And I thought to use a procedure (Hibernate EJB) Java to be launched automatically every week to do the data transfer. Is this is the best solution ? Configuration : sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver v??? Hibernate v3.4 Eclipse ps: If you are a HXTT developer or seller please be indulgent with my post ;). Making money by making people believe that you help, it's bad ! A solution is to use Derby Client driver, as the solution in the post: Does anyone know if Hibernate and java will work effectively with Access? But a clarification of the answer of Rich Seller is required. Could you explain your answer and explain your configuration (hibernate.cfg.xml, persistence.xml and what URL you use in the property name="hibernate.connection.url") without using paying HXTT driver but with the free Derby driver.

    Read the article

  • Spring MessageSource not being used during validation

    - by Jeremy
    I can't get my messages in messages.properties to be used during Spring validation of my form backing objects. app-config.xml: <bean id="messageSource" class="org.springframework.context.support.ResourceBundleMessageSource"> <property name="basename" value="messages" /> </bean> WEB-INF/classes/messages.properties: NotEmpty=This field should not be empty. Form Backing Object: ... @NotEmpty @Size(min=6, max=25) private String password; ... When I loop through all errors in the BindingResult and output the ObjectError's toString I get this: Field error in object 'settingsForm' on field 'password': rejected value []; codes [NotEmpty.settingsForm.password,NotEmpty.password,NotEmpty.java.lang.String,NotEmpty]; arguments [org.springframework.context.support.DefaultMessageSourceResolvable: codes [settingsForm.password,password]; arguments []; default message [password]]; default message [may not be empty] As you can see the default message is "may not be empty" instead of my message "This field should not be empty". I do get my correct message if I inject the messageSource into a controller and output this: messageSource.getMessage("NotEmpty", new Object [] {"password"}, "default empty message", null); So why isn't the validation using my messages.properties? I'm running Spring 3.1.1. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Converting an AnsiString to a Unicode String

    - by jrodenhi
    I'm converting a D2006 program to D2010. I have a value stored in a single byte per character string in my database and I need to load it into a control that has a LoadFromStream, so my plan was to write the string to a stream and use that with LoadFromStream. But it did not work. In studying the problem, I see an issue that tells me that I don't really understand how conversion from AnsiString to Unicode string works. Here is some code I am puzzling over: oStringStream := TStringStream.Create(sBuffer); sUnicodeStream := oPayGrid.sStream; //explicit conversion to unicode string iSize1 := StringElementSize(oPaygrid.sStream); iSize2 := StringElementSize(sUnicodeStream); oStringStream.WriteString(sUnicodeStream); When I get to the last line, iSize1 does equal 1 and iSize2 does equal 2, so that part is what I understood from my reading. But, on the last line, after I write the string to the stream, and look at the Bytes Property of the string, it shows this (the string starts as '16,159'): (49 {$31}, 54 {$36}, 44 {$2C}, 49 {$31}, 53 {$35}, 57 {$39} ... I was expecting that it might look something like (49 {$31}, 00 {$00}, 54 {$36}, 00 {$00}, 44 {$2C}, 00 {$00}, 49 {$31}, 00 {$00}, 53 {$35}, 00 {$00}, 57 {$39}, 00 {$00} ... I'm not getting the right results out of the LoadFromStream because it is reading from the stream two bytes at a time, but the data it is receiving is not arranged that way. What is it that I should do to give the LoadFromStream a well formed stream of data based on a unicode string? Thank you for your help.

    Read the article

  • How to calculate this string-dissimilarity function efficiently?

    - by ybungalobill
    Hello, I was looking for a string metric that have the property that moving around large blocks in a string won't affect the distance so much. So "helloworld" is close to "worldhello". Obviously Levenshtein distance and Longest common subsequence don't fulfill this requirement. Using Jaccard distance on the set of n-grams gives good results but has other drawbacks (it's a pseudometric and higher n results in higher penalty for changing single character). [original research] As I thought about it, what I'm looking for is a function f(A,B) such that f(A,B)+1 equals the minimum number of blocks that one have to divide A into (A1 ... An), apply a permutation on the blocks and get B: f("hello", "hello") = 0 f("helloworld", "worldhello") = 1 // hello world -> world hello f("abba", "baba") = 2 // ab b a -> b ab a f("computer", "copmuter") = 3 // co m p uter -> co p m uter This can be extended for A and B that aren't necessarily permutations of each other: any additional character that can't be matched is considered as one additional block. f("computer", "combuter") = 3 // com uter -> com uter, unmatched: p and b. Observing that instead of counting blocks we can count the number of pairs of indices that are taken apart by a permutation, we can write f(A,B) formally as: f(A,B) = min { C(P) | P:|A|?|B|, P is bijective, ?i?dom(P) A[P(i)]=B[P(i)] } C(P) = |A| + |B| - |dom(P)| - |{ i | i,i+1?dom(P) and P(i)+1=P(i+1) }| - 1 The problem is... guess what... ... that I'm not able to calculate this in polynomial time. Can someone suggest a way to do this efficiently? Or perhaps point me to already known metric that exhibits similar properties?

    Read the article

  • Problems initializing a final variable in Java

    - by froadie
    I keep running into slight variations of a problem in Java and it's starting to get to me, and I can't really think of a proper way to get around it. I have an object property that is final, but dynamic. That is, I want the value to be constant once assigned, but the value can be different each runtime. So I declare the class level variable at the beginning of the class - say private final FILE_NAME;. Then, in the constructor, I assign it a value - say FILE_NAME = buildFileName(); The problem begins when I have code in the buildFileName() method that throws an exception. So I try something like this in the constructor: try{ FILE_NAME = buildFileName(); } catch(Exception e){ ... System.exit(1); } Now I have an error - "The blank final field FILE_NAME may not have been initialized." This is where I start to get slightly annoyed at Java's strict compiler. I know that this won't be a problem because if it gets to the catch the program will exit... But the compiler doesn't know that and so doesn't allow this code. If I try to add a dummy assignment to the catch, I get - "The final field FILE_NAME may already have been assigned." I clearly can't assign a default value before the try-catch because I can only assign to it once. Any ideas...?

    Read the article

  • How can I create a "dynamic" WHERE clause?

    - by TheChange
    Hello there, First: Thanks! I finished my other project and the big surprise: now everything works as it should :-) Thanks to some helpful thinkers of SO! So here I go with the next project. I'd like to get something like this: SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE field1=content AND field2=content2 ... As you noticed this can be a very long where-clause. tablename is a static property which does not change. field1, field2 , ... (!) and the contents can change. So I need an option to build up a SQL statement in PL/SQL within a recursive function. I dont really know what to search for, so I ask here for links or even a word to search for.. Please dont start to argue about wether the recursive function is really needed or what its disadvanteges - this is not in question ;-) If you could help me to create something like an SQL-String which will later be able to do a successful SELECT this would be very nice! Iam able to go through the recursive function and make a longer string each time, but I cannot make an SQL statement from it.. Oh, one additional thing: I get the fields and contents by a xmlType (xmldom.domdocument etc) I can get the field and the content for example in a clob from the xmltype

    Read the article

  • Singleton EXC_BAD_ACCESS

    - by lclaud
    Hi, so I have a class that I decleare as a singleton and in that class I have a NSMutableArray that contains some NSDictionaries with some key/value pairs in them. The trouble is it doesn't work and I dont't know why... I mean it crashes with EXC_BAD_ACCESS but i don't know where. I followed the code and it did create a new array on first add, made it to the end of the funtion ..and crashed ... @interface dataBase : NSObject { NSMutableArray *inregistrari; } @property (nonatomic,retain) NSMutableArray *inregistrari; -(void)adaugaInregistrareCuData:(NSDate *)data siValoare:(NSNumber *)suma caVenit:(BOOL)venit cuDetaliu:(NSString *)detaliu; -(NSDictionary *)raportIntreData:(NSDate *)dataInitiala siData:(NSDate *)dataFinala; -(NSArray *)luniDisponibileIntreData:(NSDate *)dataInitiala siData:(NSDate *)dataFinala; -(NSArray *)aniDisponibiliIntreData:(NSDate *)dataInitiala siData:(NSDate *)dataFinala; -(NSArray *)vectorDateIntreData:(NSDate *)dataI siData:(NSDate *)dataF; -(void)salveazaInFisier; -(void)incarcaDinFisier; + (dataBase *)shareddataBase; @end And here is the .m file #import "dataBase.h" #import "SynthesizeSingleton.h" @implementation dataBase @synthesize inregistrari; SYNTHESIZE_SINGLETON_FOR_CLASS(dataBase); -(void)adaugaInregistrareCuData:(NSDate *)data siValoare:(NSNumber *)suma caVenit:(BOOL)venit cuDetaliu:(NSString *)detaliu{ NSNumber *v=[NSNumber numberWithBool:venit]; NSArray *input=[NSArray arrayWithObjects:data,suma,v,detaliu,nil]; NSArray *keys=[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"data",@"suma",@"venit",@"detaliu",nil]; NSDictionary *inreg=[NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjects:input forKeys:keys]; if(inregistrari == nil) { inregistrari=[[NSMutableArray alloc ] initWithObjects:inreg,nil]; }else { [inregistrari addObject:inreg]; } [inreg release]; [input release]; [keys release]; } It made it to the end of that adaugaInregistrareCuData ... ok . said the array had one object ... and then crashed

    Read the article

  • Flex web application: prevent framerate drop when window is invisible

    - by JayPea
    So there's been a new "feature" in the flash player since version 10.1, which reduces the player's framerate to 2 fps when the application window is out of view. This is good news for performance, but it can break some functionality, such as the Timer class. I have an application which uses a Timer to display a countdown. Given the nature of the application, it is required for the Timer to complete its countdown even if the user is not there to see it. Imagine that you need to give the user only 10 seconds to perform a task. If the user minimizes the window halfway through the counter, they can take as much time as they want and still have 5 seconds left when they return to the window. This apparently can not be avoided with the newer flash players. In Air applications there is the backgroundFrameRate property which can be set to prevent this behavior, but this is part of the WindowedApplication class, so it seems that it is not available in a web application. Does anyone know a way to keep a constant frame rate even when the window is not visible? Thanks

    Read the article

  • release object of a return method object c

    - by Piero
    in run the app with the analyze build, and Xcode found me a lot of memory leak and there is one in particular that i don't know how solve here it is: - (UIView *) tableView:(UITableView *)tableView viewForHeaderInSection:(NSInteger)section { UIImageView *sectionImage = [[UIImageView alloc] init]; if (section == 0)sectionImage.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"myImage.png"]; return sectionImage; } so my question is, how i can release this sectionImage? if is the return of the method? EDIT: i have another question, analyze give me another memory leak, i have this: .h @property (nonatomic, retain) NSIndexPath *directCellPath; .m @synthesize directCellPath = _directCellPath; - (id)init{ if ((self = [super initWithNibName:@"MyViewController" bundle:nil])) { self.directCellPath = [[NSIndexPath alloc] init]; } return self; } then in the code i use it and finally in the dealloc i do this: - (void)dealloc { [_directCellPath release]; [super dealloc]; } and give me a memory leak on this line: self.directCellPath = [[NSIndexPath alloc] init]; why if i have deallocated it in the dealloc?

    Read the article

  • Why is F# member not found when used in subclass

    - by James Black
    I have a base type that I want to inherit from, for all my DAO objects, but this member gets the error further down about not being defined: type BaseDAO() = member v.ExecNonQuery2(conn)(sqlStr) = let comm = new MySqlCommand(sqlStr, conn, CommandTimeout = 10) comm.ExecuteNonQuery |> ignore comm.Dispose |> ignore I inherit in this type: type CreateDatabase() = inherit BaseDAO() member private self.createDatabase(conn) = self.ExecNonQuery2 conn "DROP DATABASE IF EXISTS restaurant" This is what I see when my script runs in the interactive shell: --> Referenced 'C:\Program Files\MySQL\MySQL Connector Net 6.2.3\Assemblies\MySql.Data.dll' [Loading C:\Users\jblack\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\RestaurantService\RestaurantDAO\BaseDAO.fs] namespace FSI_0106.RestaurantServiceDAO type BaseDAO = class new : unit -> BaseDAO member ExecNonQuery2 : conn:MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlConnection -> sqlStr:string -> unit member execNonQuery : sqlStr:string -> unit member execQuery : sqlStr:string * selectFunc:(MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlDataReader -> 'a list) -> 'a list member f : x:obj -> string member Conn : MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlConnection end [Loading C:\Users\jblack\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\RestaurantService\RestaurantDAO\CreateDatabase.fs] C:\Users\jblack\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\RestaurantService\RestaurantDAO\CreateDatabase.fs(56,14): error FS0039: The field, constructor or member 'ExecNonQuery2' is not defined I am curious what I am doing wrong. I have tried not inheriting, and just instantiating the BaseDAO type in the function, but I get the same error. I started on this path because I had a property that had the same error, so it seems there may be a problem with how I am defining my BaseDAO type, but it compiles with no error, which further confuses me about this problem.

    Read the article

  • Checking if radio buttons are checked in Firefox

    - by Andrew Song
    On my site, I have two checkboxes created in my ASP.NET MVC view like so: Html.RadioButton("check", "true", "true" == (string) ViewData["someKey"], new { id = "check1"}); Html.RadioButton("check", "false", "false" == (string) ViewData["someKey"], new { id = "check2"}); I am positive that ViewData["someKey"] has the value "true" in it. In my JS init function, I perform the following check: alert($('#check1').is(':checked') + " " + $('#check2').is(':checked')); In Firefox (and only Firefox), my alert dialog will show the following (it works as expected in every other browser): Initial page load: true false Normal refresh via Ctrl + R: false false Refresh skipping cache via Ctrl + Shift + R: true false I have tried many different methods of looking at the checkbox value, including $('#check1').attr('checked') without success. If I examine the HTML in Firebug, I can see that the first radio button has the property checked="checked" in it. Why is the checkbox value changing in FF when I refresh, and how can I mitigate this? Since this seems to be a FF-only bug, how can I change my code to make it work? This SO question seemed to ask something similar, but none of the proposed solutions seem to work in this case. Edit: I should also point out that when the radio button is rendered after the refresh in FF, it's not actually being displayed as checked either, despite what the HTML is telling me. Edit2: Adding raw HTML as per request <input id="check1" type="radio" value="True" name="check" checked="checked"/> <input id="check2" type="radio" value="False" name="check"/>

    Read the article

  • JPA 2.0 Provider Hibernate

    - by Rooh
    I have very strange problem we are using jpa 2.0 with hibernate annotations based Database generated through JPA DDL is true and MySQL as Database; i will provide some reference classes and then my porblem. @MappedSuperclass public abstract class Common implements serializable{ @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "id", updatable = false) private Long id; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn private Address address; //with all getter and setters //as well equal and hashCode } @Entity public class Parent extends Common{ private String name; @OneToMany(cascade = {CascadeType.MERGE,CascadeType.PERSIST}, mappedBy = "parent") private List<Child> child; //setters and rest of class } @Entity public class Child extends Common{ //some properties with getter/setters } @Entity public class Address implements Serializable{ @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "id", updatable = false) private Long id; private String street; //rest of class with get/setter } as in code you can see that parents and child classes extends Common class so both have address property and id , the problem occurs when change the address refference in parent class it reflect same change in all child objects in list and if change address refference in child class then on merge it will change address refference of parent as well i am not able to figure out is it is problem of jpa or hibernate

    Read the article

  • how to check null value of Integer type field in ASP.NET MVC view?

    - by Vikas
    Hi, I have integer type field in database which is having property "Not Null". when i create a view & do a validation, if i left that field blank, it will consider it as 0 so i can not compare it with 0 because if someone insert a value 0 then it will be considered as error! one another problem is that i am using Model error as described in the book "ASP.NET MVC 1.0" @ Scott Gu blog. And I am checking the value in partial class of object (created by LINQ-To-SQL). i.e public partial class Person { public bool IsValid { get { return (GetRuleViolations().Count() == 0); } } public IEnumerable<RuleViolation> GetRuleViolations() { if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(Name)) yield return new RuleViolation("Name is Required", "Name"); if (Age == 0) yield return new RuleViolation("Age is Required", "Age"); yield break; } partial void OnValidate(ChangeAction action) { if (!IsValid) throw new ApplicationException("Rule violations prevent saving"); } } There is also problem with range. Like in database if i declared as smallint i.e. short in c#, now if i exceed that range then it gives error as "A Value is reguired". so finally is there any best way for validation in ASP.NET MVC?

    Read the article

  • subquery in join with doctrine dql

    - by Martijn de Munnik
    I want to use DQL to create a query which looks like this in SQL: select e.* from e inner join ( select uuid, max(locale) as locale from e where locale = 'nl_NL' or locale = 'nl' group by uuid ) as e_ on e.uuid = e_.uuid and e.locale = e_.locale I tried to use QueryBuilder to generate the query and subquery. I think they do the right thing by them selves but I can't combine them in the join statement. Does anybody now if this is possible with DQL? I can't use native SQL because I want to return real objects and I don't know for which object this query is run (I only know the base class which have the uuid and locale property). $subQueryBuilder = $this->_em->createQueryBuilder(); $subQueryBuilder ->addSelect('e.uuid, max(e.locale) as locale') ->from($this->_entityName, 'e') ->where($subQueryBuilder->expr()->in('e.locale', $localeCriteria)) ->groupBy('e.uuid'); $queryBuilder = $this->_em->createQueryBuilder(); $queryBuilder ->addSelect('e') ->from($this->_entityName, 'e') ->join('('.$subQueryBuilder.') as', 'e_')->join ->where('e.uuid = e_.uuid') ->andWhere('e.locale = e_.locale');

    Read the article

  • WPF DataGridRow Template - how to achieve Selected event

    - by user1809972
    I would like to override the DataGridRow template depending on the datatype of object bound to the grid. If the type is label, it just shows a Label. Otehrwise, it shows the cells. Follwing is the xaml. <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=IsLabel, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type DataGridRow}"> <Grid> <Label HorizontalAlignment="Center" Padding="3,3,3,3" FontWeight="Bold" Content="{Binding Id}"/> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </DataTrigger> The grid looks ok. But, when the Label is clicked, it doesnt raise the Selection changed event for the DataGridRow. How do I achieve this behaviour? This label should just behave as any other DataGridRow(with the default template). Thanks

    Read the article

  • Reverse mapping from a table to a model in SQLAlchemy

    - by Jace
    To provide an activity log in my SQLAlchemy-based app, I have a model like this: class ActivityLog(Base): __tablename__ = 'activitylog' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) activity_by_id = Column(Integer, ForeignKey('users.id'), nullable=False) activity_by = relation(User, primaryjoin=activity_by_id == User.id) activity_at = Column(DateTime, default=datetime.utcnow, nullable=False) activity_type = Column(SmallInteger, nullable=False) target_table = Column(Unicode(20), nullable=False) target_id = Column(Integer, nullable=False) target_title = Column(Unicode(255), nullable=False) The log contains entries for multiple tables, so I can't use ForeignKey relations. Log entries are made like this: doc = Document(name=u'mydoc', title=u'My Test Document', created_by=user, edited_by=user) session.add(doc) session.flush() # See note below log = ActivityLog(activity_by=user, activity_type=ACTIVITY_ADD, target_table=Document.__table__.name, target_id=doc.id, target_title=doc.title) session.add(log) This leaves me with three problems: I have to flush the session before my doc object gets an id. If I had used a ForeignKey column and a relation mapper, I could have simply called ActivityLog(target=doc) and let SQLAlchemy do the work. Is there any way to work around needing to flush by hand? The target_table parameter is too verbose. I suppose I could solve this with a target property setter in ActivityLog that automatically retrieves the table name and id from a given instance. Biggest of all, I'm not sure how to retrieve a model instance from the database. Given an ActivityLog instance log, calling self.session.query(log.target_table).get(log.target_id) does not work, as query() expects a model as parameter. One workaround appears to be to use polymorphism and derive all my models from a base model which ActivityLog recognises. Something like this: class Entity(Base): __tablename__ = 'entities' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) title = Column(Unicode(255), nullable=False) edited_at = Column(DateTime, onupdate=datetime.utcnow, nullable=False) entity_type = Column(Unicode(20), nullable=False) __mapper_args__ = {'polymorphic_on': entity_type} class Document(Entity): __tablename__ = 'documents' __mapper_args__ = {'polymorphic_identity': 'document'} body = Column(UnicodeText, nullable=False) class ActivityLog(Base): __tablename__ = 'activitylog' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) ... target_id = Column(Integer, ForeignKey('entities.id'), nullable=False) target = relation(Entity) If I do this, ActivityLog(...).target will give me a Document instance when it refers to a Document, but I'm not sure it's worth the overhead of having two tables for everything. Should I go ahead and do it this way?

    Read the article

  • Accessing Web.config directly in ASP.NET MVC 1

    - by Neil T.
    I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve?

    Read the article

  • Ajax UpdatePanels SetFocus issue

    - by George
    I set the AutoPostback property of a textbox to True so I can process the TextChanged event on the server and, based on what they typed in the textbox, appropriately display a message in an update panel. The problem is, when the partial screen refresh is performed, no control on the screen has focus. 99% of the time, when the text in the textbox is changed, it is because the user has tabbed forward, and so, to limit the disruption in the lost of focus, I perform a "Focus" call on teh next control in the tab sequence. For the most part, this works OK, but of course, is disputive if the user is tabbing in the reverse order or has used the mouse to set the focus to another control. In these situations, the focus would be set to the next control even though the user was trying to set focus elsewhere. OK, that sucks. Now what I consider the bigger problem with calling the focus method on the server: In IE, it works OK, but in Mozilla Firefox and Chrome, setting the focus causes a repositioning of the scroll bar, even though none is necessary because the control is already in view. I realize that I could switch to doing AJAX web service calls, but these darn Updae Panels are so convenient if used in moderation. is there anyway to use updatepanels and not have these focus/scroll issues?

    Read the article

  • Using generics in F# to create an EnumArray type

    - by Matthew
    I've created an F# class to represent an array that allocates one element for each value of a specific enum. I'm using an explicit constructor that creates a dictionary from enum values to array indices, and an Item property so that you can write expressions like: let my_array = new EnumArray<EnumType, int> my_array.[EnumType.enum_value] <- 5 However, I'm getting the following obscure compilation error at the line marked with '// FS0670' below. error FS0670: This code is not sufficiently generic. The type variable ^e when ^e : enum<int> and ^e : equality and ^e : (static member op_Explicit : ^e -> int) could not be generalized because it would escape its scope. I'm at a loss - can anyone explain this error? type EnumArray< 'e, 'v when 'e : enum<int> and 'e : equality and ^e : (static member op_Explicit : ^e -> int) > = val enum_to_int : Dictionary<'e, int> val a : 'v array new() as this = { enum_to_int = new Dictionary<'e, int>() a = Array.zeroCreate (Enum.GetValues(typeof<'e>).Length) } then for (e : obj) in Enum.GetValues(typeof<'e>) do this.enum_to_int.Add(e :?> 'e, int(e :?> 'e)) member this.Item with get (idx : 'e) : 'v = this.a.[this.enum_to_int.[idx]] // FS0670 and set (idx : 'e) (c : 'v) = this.a.[this.enum_to_int.[idx]] <- c

    Read the article

  • UIViewController memory management

    - by jAmi
    Hi I have a very basic issue of memory management with my UIViewController (or any other object that I create); The problem is that in Instruments my Object allocation graph is always rising even though I am calling release on then assigning them nil. I have 2 UIViewController sub-classes each initializing with a NIB; I add the first ViewController to the main window like [window addSubView:first.view]; Then in my first ViewController nib file I have a Button which loads the second ViewController like : -(IBAction)loadSecondView{ if(second!=nil){ //second is set as an iVar and @property (nonatomic, retain)ViewController2* sceond; [second release]; second=nil; } second=[[ViewController2* second]initWithNibName:@"ViewController2" bundle:nil]; [self.view addSubView:second.view]; } In my (second) ViewController2 i have a button with an action method -(IBAction) removeSecond{ [self.view removeFromSuperView]; } Please let me know if the above scheme works in a managed way for memory...? In Instruments It does not show release of any allocation and keeps the bar status graph keeps on rising.

    Read the article

  • how to get jquery.couch.app.js to work with IE8

    - by fuzzy lollipop
    I have tested this on Windows XP SP3 and Windows 7 Ultimate in IE7 and IE8 (in all compatiblity modes) and it fails the same way on both. I am running the latest HEAD from the the couchapp repository. This works fine on my OSX 10.6.3 development machine. I have tested with Chrome 4.1.249.1064 (45376) and Firefox 3.6 and they both work fine. As do the Safari 4 and Firefox 3.6 on OSX 10.6.3 Here is the error message Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0) Timestamp: Wed, 28 Apr 2010 03:32:55 UTC Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 159 Char: 7 Code: 0 URI: http://192.168.0.105:5984/test/_design/test/vendor/couchapp/jquery.couch.app.js and here is the "offending" bit of code, which works on Chrome, Firefox and Safari just fine. If says the failure is on the like that qs.forEach() from the file jquery.couch.app.js 157 var qs = document.location.search.replace(/^\?/,'').split('&'); 158 var q = {}; 159 qs.forEach(function(param) { 160 var ps = param.split('='); 161 var k = decodeURIComponent(ps[0]); 162 var v = decodeURIComponent(ps[1]); 163 if (["startkey", "endkey", "key"].indexOf(k) != -1) { 164 q[k] = JSON.parse(v); 165 } else { 166 q[k] = v; 167 } 168 });

    Read the article

  • How do I run a universal app on the iPhone 3.1.3 simulator?

    - by bpapa
    I'm working on a new app that I want to be universal for the iPhone and iPad. I started out with the "Create a Window-based app" wizard, and it created separate app delegates in "iPhone" and "iPad" groups. Since I already was quite familiar with iPhone dev, I did that part of my project, and now I'm ready to do some iPad stuff. So... I started out by adding a UISplitViewController to my iPad delegate, switch the Active SDK to 3.2, and it works! But when I switch back to 3.1.3, and try to run it in the simulator, Build and Go fails. For starters, I see: ...path.../iPad/AppDelegate_Pad.h:13: error: expected specifier-qualifier-list before 'UISplitViewController' I've got my Base SDK set to 3.2 and my Deployment Target set to 3.1.3. I thought that was enough. But I also have found in the documentation this method to conditionally compile: #if __IPHONE_OS_VERSION_MAX_ALLOWED >= 30200 MyIPadViewController* vc; // Create the iPad view controller #else MyIPhoneViewController* vc; // Create the iPhone view controller #endif So do I need to do this everywhere? It seems like an awful lot of code to add (that I'll be getting rid of in a short time for 4.0 anyway) so I feel like I must be doing something wrong. And, I don't even have any idea how this works for things like @property or @synthesize declarations. tl;dr version of the question - did I miss a setting somewhere?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394 395 396 397 398  | Next Page >