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  • Setting CommandTarget to selected control in a TabControl

    - by Bart
    I have a WPF window with a few buttons and a tabcontrol having a tab for each 'document' the user is working on. The tabcontrol uses a DataTemplate to render the data in ItemSource of the tabcontrol. The question: If one of the buttons is clicked, the command should be executed on the control rendering the document in the active tab, but I've no idea what I should set CommandTarget to. I tried {Binding ElementName=nameOfControlInDataTemplate} but that obviously doesn't work. I tried to make my problem a bit more abstract with the following code (no ItemSource and Document objects, but the idea is still the same). <Button Command="ApplicationCommands.Save" CommandTarget="{Binding ElementName=nestedControl}">Save</Button> <TabControl x:Name="tabControl"> <TabControl.Items> <TabItem Header="Header1">Item 1</TabItem> <TabItem Header="Header2">Item 2</TabItem> <TabItem Header="Header3">Item 3</TabItem> </TabControl.Items> <TabControl.ContentTemplate> <DataTemplate> <CommandTest:NestedControl Name="nestedControl"/> </DataTemplate> </TabControl.ContentTemplate> </TabControl> I tested the code by replacing the complete tabcontrol with only one single NestedControl, and then the command button just works. To be complete, here is the code of NestedControl: <UserControl x:Class="CommandTest.NestedControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Grid> <Label x:Name="label" Content="Not saved"/> </Grid> </UserControl> And code behind: public partial class NestedControl : UserControl { public NestedControl() { CommandBindings.Add(new CommandBinding(ApplicationCommands.Save, CommandBinding_Executed)); InitializeComponent(); } private void CommandBinding_Executed(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { label.Content = "Saved"; } }

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  • Excel VBA SQL Import

    - by user307655
    Hi All, I have the following code which imports data from a spreadsheet to SQL directly from Excel VBA. The code works great. However I am wondering if somebody can help me modify the code to: 1) Check if data from column A already exists in the SQL Table 2) If exists, then only update rather than import as a new role 3) if does not exist then import as a new role. Thanks again for your help Sub SQLIM() ' Send data to SQL Server ' This code loads data from an Excel Worksheet to an SQL Server Table ' Data should start in column A and should be in the same order as the server table ' Autonumber fields should NOT be included' ' FOR THIS CODE TO WORK ' In VBE you need to go Tools References and check Microsoft Active X Data Objects 2.x library Dim Cn As ADODB.Connection Dim ServerName As String Dim DatabaseName As String Dim TableName As String Dim UserID As String Dim Password As String Dim rs As ADODB.Recordset Dim RowCounter As Long Dim ColCounter As Integer Dim NoOfFields As Integer Dim StartRow As Long Dim EndRow As Long Dim shtSheetToWork As Worksheet Set shtSheetToWork = ActiveWorkbook.Worksheets("Sheet1") Set rs = New ADODB.Recordset ServerName = "WIN764X\sqlexpress" ' Enter your server name here DatabaseName = "two28it" ' Enter your database name here TableName = "COS" ' Enter your Table name here UserID = "" ' Enter your user ID here ' (Leave ID and Password blank if using windows Authentification") Password = "" ' Enter your password here NoOfFields = 7 ' Enter number of fields to update (eg. columns in your worksheet) StartRow = 2 ' Enter row in sheet to start reading records EndRow = shtSheetToWork.Cells(Rows.Count, 1).End(xlUp).Row ' Enter row of last record in sheet ' CHANGES ' Dim shtSheetToWork As Worksheet ' Set shtSheetToWork = ActiveWorkbook.Worksheets("Sheet1") '** Set Cn = New ADODB.Connection Cn.Open "Driver={SQL Server};Server=" & ServerName & ";Database=" & DatabaseName & _ ";Uid=" & UserID & ";Pwd=" & Password & ";" rs.Open TableName, Cn, adOpenKeyset, adLockOptimistic For RowCounter = StartRow To EndRow rs.AddNew For ColCounter = 1 To NoOfFields rs(ColCounter - 1) = shtSheetToWork.Cells(RowCounter, ColCounter) Next ColCounter Next RowCounter rs.UpdateBatch ' Tidy up rs.Close Set rs = Nothing Cn.Close Set Cn = Nothing End Sub

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  • Code Own Socket Server or Use Red5/ElectroServer on Amazon EC2?

    - by Travis
    I've been thinking for a long time about working on a multiplayer game in Flash. I need updates frequently enough that ajax requests won't work so I need to use a socket server. The system will eventually have enough objects/players that I would consider it an MMO. I would like to set up a scalable system on Amazon's EC2. (Which probably effects my choice of server) This architecture would hopefully allow the game to grow without many changes over time. (Using a domain decomposition technique or something similar) Heres my internal debate: Should I a. Code my own socket server in C++ or Java? b. Use the free and open source Red5 socket server for Flash? or c. Pay the licensing fees and go for Electroserver? I consider myself a decent developer, but am at an impasse as to what road to go down. I'm not sure if I, could develop/would need, the features of one of the prepackaged socket servers. I'm also not sure if the prepackaged servers would work well in an Amazon EC2 environment and take full advantage of its features. Any help or guidance would be greatly appreciated.

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  • What's better practice: objc_msgSendv or NSInvocation?

    - by Jared P
    So I'm working on something in obj-c (I'd rather not say what) where I need to be able to call arbitrary methods on arbitrary objects with arbitrary variables. The first two are easy enough to do, but I am unsure how to do the variable arguments. To be clear, this is not about a function/method receiving variable arguments, but about sending them. I have found two ways to do this: objc_msgSendv (and its variants) in the objective-c runtime, and NSInvocation. NSInvocation seems easier and more like it's the 'best practice', but objc_msgSendv sounds like it should be faster, and I need to do this many, many times over, with completely different messages each time. Which one should I choose? Is objc_msgSendv taboo for a good reason? (the docs say not to call the objc_msgsend functions.) P.S. I know the types of all the arguments, and not all of them are id-s Also, (not part of the main question,) there doesn't appear to be a way to message super from objc_msgSendv, but there doesn't seem to be a way to do that in NSInvocation either, so any help on that would be great too.

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  • Is this a good KVO-compliant way to model a mutable to-many relationship?

    - by andyvn22
    Say I'd like a mutable, unordered to-many relationship. For internal optimization reasons, it'd be best to store this in an NSMutableDictionary rather than an NSMutableSet. But I'd like to keep that implementation detail private. I'd also like to provide some KVO-compliant accessors, so: - (NSSet*)things; - (NSUInteger)countOfThings; - (void)addThings:(NSSet*)someThings; - (void)removeThings:(NSSet*)someThings; Now, it'd be convenient and less evil to provide accessors (private ones, of course, in my implementation file) for the dictionary as well, so: @interface MYClassWithThings () @property (retain) NSMutableDictionary* keyedThings; @end This seems good to me! I can use accessors to mess with my keyedThings within the class, but other objects think they're dealing with a mutable, unordered (, unkeyed!) to-many relationship. I'm concerned that several things I'm doing may be "evil" though, according to good style and Apple approval and whatnot. Have I done anything evil here? (For example, is it wrong not to provide setThings, since the things property is supposedly mutable?)

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  • Replacement for deprecated SQL Server User Defined Type with a bound Rule and Default

    - by Adam Jones
    We have a User Defined Data Type of YesNo which has an which is an alias for char(1). The type has a bound Rule (must be Y or N) and a Default (N). The aim of this is that when any of the development team create a new field of type YesNo the rule and default are automatically bound to the new column. Rules and Defaults have been deprecated and won't be available in the next a future version of SQL Server, is there another way to achieve the same functionality? I should add that I'm aware that I could use CHECK and DEFAULT constraints to replicate the functionality of the bound Rule and Defalut objects, however these would have to be applied at each usage of the type, rather than getting the functionality 'for free' by using a UDT which has a bound Rule and Default. The post relates to a database that backs an existing application, rather than a new development, so I'm aware that our use of UDT's is less than optimal. I suspect the answer to the question is 'No', however normally when features are deprecated there's usually an alternative syntax that can be used as a drop in replacement so I wanted to pose the question in-case someone knew of an alternative.

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  • AS3 - Can't access properties or methods of a MC child that has been added in script

    - by Chris
    Hi All - I am still a bit of a beginner at AS3, so bear with me, please. I have created a loop to instantiate tiles on a board. In the following example, "Gametiles" is an array containing objects of class "Tile" which is a class that extends MovieClip. "Game" is a MC that I added to the stage in the flash developing environment. for(var i:uint=0;i < Gametiles.length;i++){ var pulledTile = Gametiles[i]; var tilename:String = "I_Tile_" + pulledTile.grid_y + "_" + pulledTile.grid_x; var createdTile = new InteractiveTile(); pulledTile.addAnims(createdTile); Game.addChildAt(pulledTile, 0); Game.getChildAt(0).name = tilename; } The above code works - but with a tricky problem. If I did something like the following: trace(Game.I_Tile_1_3.x); I get "TypeError: Error #1010: A term is undefined and has no properties." However, I am able to access theses children in the following manner: var testing = Game.getChildByName("I_Tile_1_3") trace(testing.x); This method is a bit cumbersome though. I really don't want to have to create a var and call getChildByName every time I want to interact with these properties or methods. How can I set up these children so that I can access them directly without the extra steps?

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  • syntax help required on templated static member function

    - by omatai
    I have a bunch of containers of object pointers that I want to iterate through in different contexts to produce diagnostics for them. I'm struggling with the syntax required to define the functions... which, on account of these objects filtering through diverse parts of my application, seem best encapsulated in a dedicated diagnostics class thus: // Code sketch only - detail fleshed out below... class ObjectListDiagnoser { public: static void GenerateDiagnostics( /* help required here! */ ); }; ... // Elsewhere in the system... ObjectListDiagnoser::GenerateDiagnostics( /* help required here! */ ); What I'd like to be able to do (in places across my application) is at least this: std::vector<MyObject *> objGroup1; std::list<MyObject *> objGroup2; ObjectListDiagnoser::GenerateDiagnostics( objGroup1.begin(), objGroup1.end() ); ObjectListDiagnoser::GenerateDiagnostics( objGroup2.begin(), objGroup2.end() ); ObjectListDiagnoser::GenerateDiagnostics( objGroup1.rbegin(), objGroup1.rend() ); I have tried to template my function in two ways, with no success: class ObjectListDiagnoser { public: // 1 - nope. template <class ObjIter> static void GenerateDiagnostics( ObjIter first, ObjIter last ); // 2. - nope. template <class Container, class ObjIter> static void GenerateDiagnostics( Container<MyObject *>::ObjIter first, Container<MyObject *>::ObjIter last ); }; Can someone provide the correct syntax for this? The container type will vary, and the direction of iteration will vary, but always for the same type of object.

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  • Creating and using a static lib in xcode

    - by Alasdair Morrison
    I am trying to create a static library in xcode and link to that static library from another program. So as a test i have created a BSD static C library project and just added the following code: //Test.h int testFunction(); //Test.cpp #include "Test.h" int testFunction() { return 12; } This compiles fine and create a .a file (libTest.a). Now i want to use it in another program so I create a new xcode project (cocoa application) Have the following code: //main.cpp #include <iostream> #include "Testlib.h" int main (int argc, char * const argv[]) { // insert code here... std::cout << "Result:\n" <<testFunction(); return 0; } //Testlib.h extern int testFunction(); I right clicked on the project - add - existing framework - add other Selected the .a file and it added it into the project view. I always get this linker error: Build TestUselibrary of project TestUselibrary with configuration Debug Ld build/Debug/TestUselibrary normal x86_64 cd /Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary setenv MACOSX_DEPLOYMENT_TARGET 10.6 /Developer/usr/bin/g++-4.2 -arch x86_64 -isysroot /Developer/SDKs/MacOSX10.6.sdk -L/Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/build/Debug -L/Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/../Test/build/Debug -F/Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/build/Debug -filelist /Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/build/TestUselibrary.build/Debug/TestUselibrary.build/Objects-normal/x86_64/TestUselibrary.LinkFileList -mmacosx-version-min=10.6 -lTest -o /Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/build/Debug/TestUselibrary Undefined symbols: "testFunction()", referenced from: _main in main.o ld: symbol(s) not found collect2: ld returned 1 exit status I am new to macosx development and fairly new to c++. I am probably missing something fairly obvious, all my experience comes from creating dlls on the windows platform. I really appreciate any help.

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  • Should i use a trigger or Behaviors for this?

    - by Michael
    I have an abstract object called Applicant and two different types of objects that inherit from Applicant called Business and Individual. So I have three classes that look like this: public abstract class Applicant { ... } public class Individual : Applicant { ... } public class Business : Applicant { ... } Now in the DataGrid I want to show all the details of Applicant object. When you choose a row I want to show details of either the business or individual as a internal grid. Something like this <DataGrid> <DataGrid.Columns> <!--Show different columns --> </DataGrid.Columns> <DataGrid.RowDetailsTemplate> <!--Show if Individual --> <DataGrid> <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTextColumn Header="First Name" ... /> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Last Name" ... /> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> <!--Show if business --> <DataGrid> <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Business Name" ... /> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Tax id" ... /> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> </DataGrid.RowDetailsTemplate> </DataGrid> Now I'm not sure if I need to use a Triggers or Behaviors to accomplish this? Thanks for everyones help! FYI I'm using Silverlight 4.0 with Prism.

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  • Is there an event that raises after a View/PartialView executes in ASP.NET MVC 2 RC2?

    - by sabanito
    I have the following problem: We have an ASP.NET MVC 2 RC 2 application that programmatically impersonates an AD Account that the user specifies at logon. This account is used to access the DB. At first we had the impersonating code in the begin_request and we were undoing the impersonation at the end_request, but when we tried to use IIS 7.5 in integrated mode, we learned that it's not possible to impersonate in the Global.asax so we tried different things. We have succesfully moved our code from the BeginRequest to the ActionExecuting event and the EndRequest to the ResultExecuted, and now, about 80% of our code works. We've just discovered that since we're passing the Entity Framework objects as models for our views, there's this remaining 20% that won't work because some Navigation Properties are not loaded when the view begins it's execution, so we're getting connection exceptions from Sql Server. Is there any event or method that executes AFTER the view, so we can undo the impersonation in it? We thought ResultExecuted will do just that, but it doesn't. We've been told that passing the plain Entities into the view as models is not a good idea, but we have A LOT of views that may have this problem and there's not automated way to know it. If some of you could explain why it's not a good idea, maybe we can convince the team to fix it!

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  • c# regex split and extract multiple parts from a string

    - by nLL
    Hi, I am trying to extract some parts of the "Video:" line from below text. Seems stream 0 codec frame rate differs from container frame rate: 30000.00 (300 00/1) - 14.93 (1000/67) Input #0, mov,mp4,m4a,3gp,3g2,mj2, from 'C:\a.3gp': Metadata: major_brand : 3gp5 minor_version : 0 compatible_brands: 3gp5isom Duration: 00:00:45.82, start: 0.000000, bitrate: 357 kb/s Stream #0.0(und): Video: mpeg4, yuv420p, 352x276 [PAR 1:1 DAR 88:69], 344 kb /s, 14.93 fps, 14.93 tbr, 90k tbn, 30k tbc Stream #0.1(und): Audio: aac, 16000 Hz, mono, s16, 11 kb/s Stream #0.2(und): Data: mp4s / 0x7334706D, 0 kb/s Stream #0.3(und): Data: mp4s / 0x7334706D, 0 kb/s* This is an output from ffmpeg command line where i can get Video: part with private string ExtractVideoFormat(string rawInfo) { string v = string.Empty; Regex re = new Regex("[V|v]ideo:.*", RegexOptions.Compiled); Match m = re.Match(rawInfo); if (m.Success) { v = m.Value; } return v; } and result is mpeg4, yuv420p, 352x276 [PAR 1:1 DAR 88:69], 344 kb What i am trying to do is to somehow split that line and get mpeg4 yuv420p 352x276 [PAR 1:1 DAR 88:69] 344 kb assigned to diffrent string objects instead of single

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  • Approach for replacing forms authentication in .NET application

    - by Ash Machine
    My question is about an approach, and I am looking for tips or links to help me develop a solution. I have an .NET 4.0 web forms application that works with Forms authentication using the aspnetdb SQL database of users and passwords. A new feature for the application is a new authentication mechanism using single sign on to allow access for thousands of new users. Essentially, when the user logs in through the new single-sign-on method, I will be able to identify them as legitimate users with a role. So I will have something like HttpContext.Current.Session["email_of_authenticated_user"] (their identity) and HttpContext.Current.Session["role_of_authenticated_user"] (their role). Importantly, I don't necessarily want to maintain these users and roles redundantly in the aspnetdb database which will be retired, but I do want to use the session objects above to allow the user to pass through the application as if they were in passing through with forms authentication. I don't think CustomRoleProviders or CustomMemberProviders are helpful since they do not allow for creating session-level users. So my question is how to use the session level user and role that I do have to "mimic" all the forms authentication goodness like enforcing: [System.Security.Permissions.PrincipalPermission(System.Security.Permissions.SecurityAction.Demand, Role = "Student")] or <authorization> <allow users="wilma, barney" /> </authorization> Thanks for any pointers.

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  • Syncing data between devel/live databases in Django

    - by T. Stone
    With Django's new multi-db functionality in the development version, I've been trying to work on creating a management command that let's me synchronize the data from the live site down to a developer machine for extended testing. (Having actual data, particularly user-entered data, allows me to test a broader range of inputs.) Right now I've got a "mostly" working command. It can sync "simple" model data but the problem I'm having is that it ignores ManyToMany fields which I don't see any reason for it do so. Anyone have any ideas of either how to fix that or a better want to handle this? Should I be exporting that first query to a fixture first and then re-importing it? from django.core.management.base import LabelCommand from django.db.utils import IntegrityError from django.db import models from django.conf import settings LIVE_DATABASE_KEY = 'live' class Command(LabelCommand): help = ("Synchronizes the data between the local machine and the live server") args = "APP_NAME" label = 'application name' requires_model_validation = False can_import_settings = True def handle_label(self, label, **options): # Make sure we're running the command on a developer machine and that we've got the right settings db_settings = getattr(settings, 'DATABASES', {}) if not LIVE_DATABASE_KEY in db_settings: print 'Could not find "%s" in database settings.' % LIVE_DATABASE_KEY return if db_settings.get('default') == db_settings.get(LIVE_DATABASE_KEY): print 'Data cannot synchronize with self. This command must be run on a non-production server.' return # Fetch all models for the given app try: app = models.get_app(label) app_models = models.get_models(app) except: print "The app '%s' could not be found or models could not be loaded for it." % label for model in app_models: print 'Syncing %s.%s ...' % (model._meta.app_label, model._meta.object_name) # Query each model from the live site qs = model.objects.all().using(LIVE_DATABASE_KEY) # ...and save it to the local database for record in qs: try: record.save(using='default') except IntegrityError: # Skip as the record probably already exists pass

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  • Rails preventing duplicates in polymorphic has_many :through associations

    - by seaneshbaugh
    Is there an easy or at least elegant way to prevent duplicate entries in polymorphic has_many through associations? I've got two models, stories and links that can be tagged. I'm making a conscious decision to not use a plugin here. I want to actually understand everything that's going on and not be dependent on someone else's code that I don't fully grasp. To see what my question is getting at, if I run the following in the console (assuming the story and tag objects exist in the database already) s = Story.find_by_id(1) t = Tag.find_by_id(1) s.tags << t s.tags << t My taggings join table will have two entries added to it, each with the same exact data (tag_id = 1, taggable_id = 1, taggable_type = "Story"). That just doesn't seem very proper to me. So in an attempt to prevent this from happening I added the following to my Tagging model: before_validation :validate_uniqueness def validate_uniqueness taggings = Tagging.find(:all, :conditions => { :tag_id => self.tag_id, :taggable_id => self.taggable_id, :taggable_type => self.taggable_type }) if !taggings.empty? return false end return true end And it works almost as intended, but if I attempt to add a duplicate tag to a story or link I get an ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid: Validation failed exception. It seems that when you add an association to a list it calls the save! (rather than save sans !) method which raises exceptions if something goes wrong rather than just returning false. That isn't quite what I want to happen. I suppose I can surround any attempts to add new tags with a try/catch but that goes against the idea that you shouldn't expect your exceptions and this is something I fully expect to happen. Is there a better way of doing this that won't raise exceptions when all I want to do is just silently not save the object to the database because a duplicate exists?

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  • Embedding Lua functions as member variables in Java

    - by Zarion
    Although the program I'm working on is in Java, answering this from a C perspective is also fine, considering that most of this is either language-agnostic, or happens on the Lua side of things. In the outline I have for the architecture of a game I'm programming, individual types of game objects within a particular class (eg: creatures, items, spells, etc.) are loaded from a data file. Most of their properties are simple data types, but I'd like a few of these members to actually contain simple scripts that define, for example, what an item does when it's used. The scripts will be extremely simple, since all fundamental game actions will be exposed through an API from Java. The Lua is simply responsible for stringing a couple of these basic functions together, and setting arguments. The question is largely about the best way to store a reference to a specific Lua function as a member of a Java class. I understand that if I store the Lua code as a string and call lua_dostring, Lua will compile the code fresh every time it's called. So the function needs to be defined somehow, and a reference to this specific function wrapped in a Java function object. One possibility that I've considered is, during the data loading process, when the loader encounters a script definition in a data file, it extracts this string, decorates the function name using the associated object's unique ID, calls lua_dostring on the string containing a full function definition, and then wraps the generated function name in a Java function object. A function declared in script run with lua_dostring should still be added to the global function table, correct? I'm just wondering if there's a better way of going about this. I admit that my knowledge of Lua at this point is rather superficial and theoretical, so it's possible that I'm overlooking something obvious.

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  • rails HABTM versus view (formtastic)

    - by VP
    I have two models: The model NetworkObject try to describe "hosts". I want to have a rule with source and destination, so i'm trying to use both objects from the same class since it dont makes sense to create two different classes. class NetworkObject < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :ip, :netmask, :name has_many :statements has_many :rules, :through =>:statements end class Rule < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :active, :destination_ids, :source_ids has_many :statements has_many :sources, :through=> :statements, :source=> :network_object has_many :destinations, :through => :statements, :source=> :network_object end To build the HABTM i did choose the Model JOIN. so in this case i created a model named Statement with: class Statement < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :source_id, :rule_id, :destination_id belongs_to :network_object, :foreign_key => :source_id belongs_to :network_object, :foreign_key => :destination_id belongs_to :rule end The problem is: is right to add two belongs_to to the same class using different foreign_keys? I tried all combinations like: belongs_to :sources, :class_name => :network_object, :foreign_key => :source_id but no success.. anything that i am doing wrong?

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  • PHP - "Fat Free Framework" Find Methods and Showing Results in Template

    - by user1672808
    Just started trying the "Fat Free Framework" I'm building a site using a MySQL DB with 265 fields, and 5000+ rows in the DB; I can load() a specific record easily, no problems. When using find(), afind(), and even "select()", template will show blank lines or lines with "filler" text, with the correct number of rows for the query results, but no text/data from the DB itself; Same problem whether using objects or simply arrays from result (afind() and find()). I've copied/pasted the code verbatim from examples and from documentation, with only the DB specific items changed. Still, no luck. CODE IN PHP FILE (function from CLASS): static function home() { $featured=new Axon('boats'); $F3::set('boatlist',$featured->afind('D_CustomerID=173')); F3::set('content',TEMPLATE_DIR .'/home.html'); echo Template::serve(TEMPLATE_DIR .'/layout.html'); } TEMPLATE home.html: <div class="span8"> <h3> Featured Boats </h3> <F3:repeat group="{{@boatlist}}" value="{{@boat}}"> <div style="margin-left: 2em" class="thumbnails"> <p> <a href="boat/{{@boat['D_BoatNum']}}">{{trim(@boat['D_Description'])}}</a> by {{@boat['D_CustomerID']}} </p> <p> {{@boat['D_Price']}} </p> </div> </F3:repeat> </div> The number of rows this produces coincides with the correct number of rows in the DB. However, the actual data from each field does not show. Any ideas?

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  • Use of var keyword in C#

    - by kronoz
    After discussion with colleagues regarding the use of the 'var' keyword in C# 3 I wondered what people's opinions were on the appropriate uses of type inference via var? For example I rather lazily used var in questionable circumstances, e.g.:- foreach(var item in someList) { // ... } // Type of 'item' not clear. var something = someObject.SomeProperty; // Type of 'something' not clear. var something = someMethod(); // Type of 'something' not clear. More legitimate uses of var are as follows:- var l = new List<string>(); // Obvious what l will be. var s = new SomeClass(); // Obvious what s will be. Interestingly LINQ seems to be a bit of a grey area, e.g.:- var results = from r in dataContext.SomeTable select r; // Not *entirely clear* what results will be here. It's clear what results will be in that it will be a type which implements IEnumerable, however it isn't entirely obvious in the same way a var declaring a new object is. It's even worse when it comes to LINQ to objects, e.g.:- var results = from item in someList where item != 3 select item; This is no better than the equivilent foreach(var item in someList) { // ... } equivilent. There is a real concern about type safety here - for example if we were to place the results of that query into an overloaded method that accepted IEnumerable<int> and IEnumerable<double> the caller might inadvertently pass in the wrong type. Edit - var does maintain strong typing but the question is really whether it's dangerous for the type to not be immediately apparent on definition, something which is magnified when overloads mean compiler errors might not be issued when you unintentionally pass the wrong type to a method. Related Question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/633474/c-do-you-use-var

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  • Unit tests - The benefit from unit tests with contract changes?

    - by Stefan Hendriks
    Recently I had an interesting discussion with a colleague about unit tests. We where discussing when maintaining unit tests became less productive, when your contracts change. Perhaps anyone can enlight me how to approach this problem. Let me elaborate: So lets say there is a class which does some nifty calculations. The contract says that it should calculate a number, or it returns -1 when it fails for some reason. I have contract tests who test that. And in all my other tests I stub this nifty calculator thingy. So now I change the contract, whenever it cannot calculate it will throw a CannotCalculateException. My contract tests will fail, and I will fix them accordingly. But, all my mocked/stubbed objects will still use the old contract rules. These tests will succeed, while they should not! The question that rises, is that with this faith in unit testing, how much faith can be placed in such changes... The unit tests succeed, but bugs will occur when testing the application. The tests using this calculator will need to be fixed, which costs time and may even be stubbed/mocked a lot of times... How do you think about this case? I never thought about it thourougly. In my opinion, these changes to unit tests would be acceptable. If I do not use unit tests, I would also see such bugs arise within test phase (by testers). Yet I am not confident enough to point out what will cost more time (or less). Any thoughts?

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  • How do I simulate "Is In" using Linq2Sql

    - by flipdoubt
    I often find myself with a list of disconnected Linq2Sql objects or keys that I need to re-select from a Linq2Sql data-context to update or delete in the database. If this were SQL, I would use IS IN in the SQL WHERE clause, but I am stuck with what to do in Linq2Sql. Here is a sample of what I would like to write: public void MarkValidated(IList<int> idsToValidate) { using(_Db.NewSession()) // Instatiates new DataContext { // ThatAreIn <- this is where I am stuck var items = _Db.Items.ThatAreIn(idsToValidate).ToList(); foreach(var item in items) item.Validated = DateTime.Now; _Db.SubmitChanges(); } // Disposes of DataContext } Or: public void DeleteItems(IList<int> idsToDelete) { using(_Db.NewSession()) // Instatiates new DataContext { // ThatAreIn <- this is where I am stuck var items = _Db.Items.ThatAreIn(idsToValidate); _Db.Items.DeleteAllOnSubmit(items); _Db.SubmitChanges(); } // Disposes of DataContext } Can I get this done in one trip to the database? If so, how? Is it possible to send all those ints to the database as a list of parameters and is that more efficient than doing a foreach over the list to select each item one at a time?

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  • Django: Overriding the save() method: how do I call the delete() method of a child class

    - by Patti
    The setup = I have this class, Transcript: class Transcript(models.Model): body = models.TextField('Body') doPagination = models.BooleanField('Paginate') numPages = models.PositiveIntegerField('Number of Pages') and this class, TranscriptPages(models.Model): class TranscriptPages(models.Model): transcript = models.ForeignKey(Transcript) order = models.PositiveIntegerField('Order') content = models.TextField('Page Content', null=True, blank=True) The Admin behavior I’m trying to create is to let a user populate Transcript.body with the entire contents of a long document and, if they set Transcript.doPagination = True and save the Transcript admin, I will automatically split the body into n Transcript pages. In the admin, TranscriptPages is a StackedInline of the Transcript Admin. To do this I’m overridding Transcript’s save method: def save(self): if self.doPagination: #do stuff super(Transcript, self).save() else: super(Transcript, self).save() The problem = When Transcript.doPagination is True, I want to manually delete all of the TranscriptPages that reference this Transcript so I can then create them again from scratch. So, I thought this would work: #do stuff TranscriptPages.objects.filter(transcript__id=self.id).delete() super(Transcript, self).save() but when I try I get this error: Exception Type: ValidationError Exception Value: [u'Select a valid choice. That choice is not one of the available choices.'] ... and this is the last thing in the stack trace before the exception is raised: .../django/forms/models.py in save_existing_objects pk_value = form.fields[pk_name].clean(raw_pk_value) Other attempts to fix: t = self.transcriptpages_set.all().delete() (where self = Transcript from the save() method) looping over t (above) and deleting each item individually making a post_save signal on TranscriptPages that calls the delete method Any ideas? How does the Admin do it? UPDATE: Every once in a while as I'm playing around with the code I can get a different error (below), but then it just goes away and I can't replicate it again... until the next random time. Exception Type: MultiValueDictKeyError Exception Value: "Key 'transcriptpages_set-0-id' not found in " Exception Location: .../django/utils/datastructures.py in getitem, line 203 and the last lines from the trace: .../django/forms/models.py in _construct_form form = super(BaseInlineFormSet, self)._construct_form(i, **kwargs) .../django/utils/datastructures.py in getitem pk = self.data[pk_key]

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  • Django: Serving Media Behind Custom URL

    - by TheLizardKing
    So I of course know that serving static files through Django will send you straight to hell but I am confused on how to use a custom url to mask the true location of the file using Django. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2681338/django-serving-a-download-in-a-generic-view but the answer I accepted seems to be the "wrong" way of doing things. urls.py: url(r'^song/(?P<song_id>\d+)/download/$', song_download, name='song_download'), views.py: def song_download(request, song_id): song = Song.objects.get(id=song_id) fsock = open(os.path.join(song.path, song.filename)) response = HttpResponse(fsock, mimetype='audio/mpeg') response['Content-Disposition'] = "attachment; filename=%s - %s.mp3" % (song.artist, song.title) return response This solution works perfectly but not perfectly enough it turns out. How can I avoid having a direct link to the mp3 while still serving through nginx/apache? EDIT 1 - ADDITIONAL INFO Currently I can get my files by using an address such as: http://www.example.com/music/song/1692/download/ But the above mentioned method is the devil's work. How can I accomplished what I get above while still making nginx/apache serve the media? Is this something that should be done at the webserver level? Some crazy mod_rewrite? http://static.example.com/music/Aphex%20Twin%20-%20Richard%20D.%20James%20(V0)/10%20Logon-Rock%20Witch.mp3

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  • How do I change the CellErrorStyle for an Xceed Datagrid?

    - by Bob
    So in the Xceed documentation there is a code example that does not work for me. It may be because my grid is bound to a DataGridCollectionView. The objects in the collection used by the datagridcollection are what implement IDataErrorInfo. The errors are showing up just fine. The problem is that they are using the default orange background for errors...I need a red border. Below is the XAML instantiation of my grid. I set the DataCell background property to red just so I could be sure I had access to the grid's properties... I do. I just can't find the way to identify the cell's w/ errors so I can style them. Thanks! <XceedDG:DataGridControl Grid.Row="1" Grid.ColumnSpan="5" ItemsSource="{Binding Path = ABGDataGridCollectionView, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" Background="{x:Static Views:DataGridControlBackgroundBrushes.ElementalBlue}" IsDeleteCommandEnabled="True" FontSize="16" AutoCreateColumns="False" x:Name="EncounterDataGrid" AllowDrop="True"> <XceedDG:DataGridControl.View> <Views:TableView ColumnStretchMode="All" ShowRowSelectorPane="True" ColumnStretchMinWidth="100"> <Views:TableView.FixedHeaders> <DataTemplate> <XceedDG:InsertionRow Height="40"/> </DataTemplate> </Views:TableView.FixedHeaders> </Views:TableView> </XceedDG:DataGridControl.View> <!--Group Header formatting--> <XceedDG:DataGridControl.Resources> <Style TargetType="{x:Type XceedDG:GroupByControl}"> <Setter Property="Visibility" Value="Collapsed"/> </Style> <Style TargetType="{x:Type XceedDG:DataCell}"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Red"/> </Style> </XceedDG:DataGridControl.Resources> ...

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  • Cannot edit values of DataGridView bound to a BindingList

    - by m_oLogin
    Hello community, I have trouble editing a databound bindinglist. Let me illustrate it with the following: Say I have the Person class: public Class Person{ private string m_firstname; private string m_lastname; public string FirstName{get;set;} public string LastName{get;set;} public Person{ ... } } I then have a containing class called Population: public class Population{ private BindingList<Person> m_lstPerson = new BindingList<Person>(); private string m_countryName; public BindingList<Person> ListPerson{get; set;} public string CountryName { get; set; } } I then have on one form a first datagridview with DataSource = m_lstPopulation (BindingList). The binding works like a charm when working with the Population objects. When I double click, it opens up a dialog form showing the object details. One tab in the details holds a datagridview bound to that population's ListPerson. The second datagridview displays fine. However, I cannot edit or add cells in this datagridview. None of the columns is set to read-only. In fact, both datagridview have just about the same parameters. What am I missing? It seems that a lock has been placed on the Population object so that its inner fields cannot be edited... Please advise. Thanks.

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