Search Results

Search found 11138 results on 446 pages for 'dynamic linq'.

Page 394/446 | < Previous Page | 390 391 392 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400 401  | Next Page >

• Jquery .wrap and first-child

  - by Johann

  Hi, I'm in a situation in which I need to use .wrap and :first-child. This is what I am doing: <script>$("a").wrap("<div class='category-wrapper'></div>");</script> <script>$("div.category-wrapper:first-child").addClass("first");</script> This should render a div.category-wrapper outside a link and then add a "first" class to every first div.category-wrapper. The output is: <div class="category-wrapper"><a href="#">Test</a></div> Which is good! However, I am not able to get the "first-child" to work (it doesn't adds the "first" class). If I use it somewhere else it works so I am sure it's something related to the dynamic rendering of the previous element. Any help is appreciated! Thanks! Sample output would be: <div class="category-wrapper"><a href="#">Test #1</a></div> <div class="category-wrapper"><a href="#">Test #2</a></div> <div class="category-wrapper"><a href="#">Test #3</a></div> <div class="category-wrapper"><a href="#">Test #4</a></div> Desired output: <div class="category-wrapper first"><a href="#">Test #1</a></div> <div class="category-wrapper"><a href="#">Test #2</a></div> <div class="category-wrapper"><a href="#">Test #3</a></div> <div class="category-wrapper"><a href="#">Test #4</a></div> However, I am not able to make it work.

  Read the article

• JSP: Refresh ComboBox options

  - by framara

  Hi, There's a class 'Car' with brand and model as properties. I have a list of items of this class List<Car> myCars. I need to represent in a JSP website 2 ComboBox, one for brand and another for model, that when you select the brand, in the model list only appear the ones from that brand. I don't know how to do this in a dynamic way. Any suggestion where to start? Thanks Update Ok, what I do now is send in the request a list with all the brand names, and a list of the items. The JSP code is like: <select name="manufacturer" id="id_manufacturer" onchange="return getManufacturer();"> <option value=""></option> <c:forEach items="${manufacturers}" var="man"> <option value="${man}" >${man}</option> </c:forEach> </select> <select name="model" id="id_model"> <c:forEach items="${mycars}" var="car"> <c:if test="${car.manufacturer eq man_selected}"> <option value="${car.id}">${car.model}</option> </c:if> </c:forEach> </select> <script> function getManufacturer() { man_selected = document.getElementById('id_manufacturer').value; } </script> How do I do to refresh the 'model' select options according to the selected 'man_selected' ?

  Read the article

• Applying fine-grained security to an existing application

  - by Mark

  I've inherited a reasonably large and complex ASP.NET MVC3 web application using EF Code First on SQL Server. It uses ASP.NET Membership roles with database authentication. The controller actions are secured with attributes derived from AuthorizeAttribute that map roles to actions. There are extension methods for the finer points, such as showing a particular widget to particular roles. This is works great and I have a good understanding of the current security model. I've been asked to provide finer grained security at the data level. For example a 'Customer' user can only see data (throughout the database) associated with themselves and not other Customers. The problem is that 'Customer' is only 1 of 5 different types with their own specific restrictions (each of the 9 roles is one of these 5 types). The best thing I can think of is to go through all the data repositories and extend each and every LINQ statements/query with a filter for every user type. Even if I had time for that it doesn't seem like the most elegant way. Any suggestions? I really don't know where to start with this so anything could be helpful. Many thanks.

  Read the article

• Web development scheme for staging and production servers using Git Push

  - by ServAce85

  I am using git to manage a dynamic website (PHP + MySQL) and I want to send my files from my localhost to my staging and development servers in the most efficient and hassle-free way. I am currently convinced that the best way for me to approach this problem is to use this git branching model to organize my local git repo. From there, I will use the release branches to push to my staging server for testing. Once I am happy that the release code works on the staging server, I can then merge with my master branch and push that to my production server. Pushing to Staging Server: As noted in many introductory git posts, I could run into problems pushing into a non-bare repo, so, as suggested in this response, I plan to push the release branch to a bare repo on the server and have a post-receive hook that clones the bare repo to a non-bare repo that also acts as the web-hosted directory. Pushing to Production Server: Here's my newest source of confusion... In the response that I cited above, it made me curious as to why @Paul states that it's a completely different story when pushing to a live, development server. I guess I don't see the problem. Would it be safe and hassle-free to follow the same steps as above, but for the master branch? Where are the potential pit-falls? Config Files: With respect to configuration files that are unique to each environment (.htaccess, config.php, etc), it seems simplest to .gitignore each of those files in their respective repos on their respective servers. Can you see anything immediately wrong with this? Better solutions? Accessing Data: Finally, as I initially stated, the site uses MySQL databases to store data. How would you suggest I access that data (for testing purposes) from the staging server and localhost? I realize that I may have asked way too many questions for a single post, but since they're all related to the best way to set up this development scheme, I thought it was necessary.

  Read the article

• JSF: Avoid nested update calls

  - by dhroove

  I don't know if I am on right track or not still asking this question. I my JSF project I have this tree structure: <p:tree id="resourcesTree" value="#{someBean.root}" var="node" selectionMode="single" styleClass="no-border" selection="#{someBean.selectedNode}" dynamic="true"> <p:ajax listener="#{someBean.onNodeSelect}" update=":centerPanel :tableForm :tabForm" event="select" onstart="statusDialog.show();" oncomplete="statusDialog.hide();" /> <p:treeNode id="resourcesTreeNode" > <h:outputText value="#{node}" id="lblNode" /> </p:treeNode> </p:tree> I have to update this tree after I added something or delete something.. But whenever I update this still its nested update also call I mean to say it also call to update these components ":centerPanel :tableForm :tabForm"... This give me error that :tableForm not found in view because this forms load in my central panel and this tree is in my right panel.. So when I am doing some operation on tree is it not always that :tableForm is in my central panel.. (I mean design is something like this only) So now my question is that can I put some condition or there is any way so that I can specify when to update nested components also and when not.... In nut shell is there any way to update only :resoucesTree is such a way that nested updates are not called so that I can avoid error... Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• dynamically created controls and postback

  - by Mark

  Hi all, I have created dynamic controls (Radiobuttonlists) in an asp.net page (c#). I create them after a button click like this. RadioButtonList rbl = new RadioButtonList(); c2.Controls.Add(rbl); //Set properties of rbl rbl.RepeatLayout = RepeatLayout.Flow; rbl.ID = string.Format("rbl{0}", item.QuestionID); rbl.RepeatDirection = RepeatDirection.Horizontal; rbl.Items.Add(new ListItem("True", "1")); rbl.Items.Add(new ListItem("False", "0")); rbl.Items.Add(new ListItem("?", "-1")); Now the problem arises when I click the submit button, the controls are lost. I know it's better to actually put the controls in page_init event. but is there no workaround so I can still initiate my controls after button click? And is it good to first create button, then add it to control collection and then set its properties? Thankd in advance Kind regards, Mark

  Read the article

• convert htmlelement to string for comparison javascript

  - by Jamex

  Hi, I am using a function that obtains a target element id at onclick. Example, if I click on the text element that has the id of 'help'. var click = (e && e.target) || (event && event.srcElement); The var click would contain the ref to the id of "help". I want to compare the var click to the string 'help' using the if statement below. if (click == 'about') {do something} The comparison does not work because the var click is not a string. When I use the alert(click) to debug, it shows click as "object HTMLElement". How would you compare whether the id 'help' is obtained from var click? I could write out something like if (click == document.getElementById('help')) {do something} but that would make a long statement. also if the var click is document.getElementById('help'), how would you make a new var "show" as document.getElementById('showhelp') basically, I want to use the same function to generate dynamic responses to each element that was clicked on, and not having to create a separate function for each element.

  Read the article

• Property on business objects - getting and setting

  - by Mike

  Hi, I am using LINQ to SQL for the DataAccess layer. I have similar business objects to what is in the data access layer. I have got the dataprovider getting the message #23. On instantiation of the message, in the message constructor, it gets the MessageType and makes a new instance of MessageType class and fills in the MessageType information from the database. Therefore; I want this to get the Name of the MessageType of the Message. user.Messages[23].MessageType.Name I also want an administrator to set the MessageType user.Messages[23].MessageType = MessageTypes.LoadType(3); but I don't want the user to publicly set the MessageType.Name. But when I make a new MessageType instance, the access modifier for the Name property is public because I want to set that from an external class (my data access layer). I could change this to property to internal, so that my class can access it like a public variable, and not allow my other application access to modify it. This still doesn't feel right as it seems like a public property. Are public access modifiers in this situation bad? Any tips or suggestions would be appreciated. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Architecting ASP.net MVC App to use repositories and services

  - by zaladane

  Hello, I recently started reading about ASP.net MVC and after getting excited about the concept, i started to migrate all my webform project to MVC but i am having a hard time keeping my controller skinny even after following all the good advices out there (or maybe i just don't get it ... ). The website i deal with has Articles, Videos, Quotes ... and each of these entities have categories, comments, images that can be associated with it. I am using Linq to sql for database operations and for each of these Entities, i have a Repository, and for each repository, i create a service to be used in the controller. so i have - ArticleRepository ArticleCategoryRepository ArticleCommentRepository and the corresponding service ArticleService ArticleCategoryService ... you see the picture. The problem i have is that i have one controller for article,category and comment because i thought that having ArticleController handle all of that might make sense, but now i have to pass all of the services needed to the Controller constructor. So i would like to know what it is that i am doing wrong. Are my services not designed properly? should i create Bigger service to encapsulate smaller services and use them in my controller? or should i have an articleCategory Controller and an articleComment Controller? A page viewed by the user is made of all of that, thee article to be viewed,the comments associated with it, a listing of the categories to witch it applies ... how can i efficiently break down the controller to keep it "skinny" and solve my headache? Thank you! I hope my question is not too long to be read ...

  Read the article

• Loading Flash / Flex Applications in another AIR Application

  - by t.stamm

  Hi there, i'm loading a Flex Application in my AIR App and i'm using the childSandboxBridge and parentSandboxBridge to communicate between those two. Works like a charm. But i've tried to load a Flash Application (the main Class extends Sprite, not Application) and therefore i get a SecurityError when trying to set the childSandboxBridge on the loaderInfo object. In the Flex app it's like this: I'm casting the loaderInfo since the childSandboxBridge Property is only available in AIR. loaderInfo = FlexGlobals.topLevelApplication.systemManager.loaderInfo; try { Object(loaderInfo).childSandboxBridge = this; } catch(e:Error) { ... } In my Flash app it's like this: loaderInfo = myMainObject.loaderInfo; // myMainObject is the same class as 'root' try { Object(loaderInfo).childSandboxBridge = this; } catch(e:Error) { ... } In the below example i get the following SecurityError: Error #3206: Caller app:/airapp.swf/[[DYNAMIC]]/1 cannot set LoaderInfo property childSandboxBridge. The SecuritySandbox for both examples is 'application'. Any ideas why it doesn't work with the Flash app? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Keeping updated with the latest technologies.

  - by Prashanth

  I am a software developer and I have been programming since the past six years. I simply love the mental challenge involved in trying to come up with solutions to hard problems, reading up programming literature, blogs by prominent developers and so on. I work on Microsoft platform and I have trouble keeping up with the pace at which various frameworks are rolled out. Remoting,WCF,ASP.NET,ASP.NET MVC, LINQ, WPF, WWF, OSLO, ADO.NET data services, DSL tools etc etc. Even understanding all these frameworks at an abstract level and see how they are all tied up with MS vision itself is a major hurdle. Now when you add other non microsoft technologies, programming languages etc to the equation, I wonder how do people manage? Given that there are only 24 hours in a day, how does one keep himself updated about so many technology changes that happen everyday? My question is , is it even worth doing that? The thing is, I am also interested in other fields such as literature, science. I try my best to at least gain a superficial understanding of what is happening in other fields of my interest and don't want to give up on that :)

  Read the article

• Flash SWF not initializing until visible - can I force them to initialize?

  - by Jason

  I have an application that needs to render about 100 flash graphs (as well as other DOM stuff) in a series of rows that vertically extend many times beyond the current visible window - in other words, the users have to scroll down see see all the different graphs. This application is also dynamic and when a user changes a value in the DOM (anywhere on the page) it will need to propagate that change to all the Flash graphs at the same time. So I setup all the externalInterface callbacks and was careful to not let any JS start going until the ever-so-important "flashIsReady" call and...it worked great until I tried to update() the existing swf's with new data. Here was the behavior: - All the swfs load (initially) in both IE/Fox = good. - Updating swfs with new content works in IE but not in Fox = not good - Updating swfs with new content works in Fox --ONLY IF-- I scrolled down to the bottom of the page, then back to the top -- BEFORE -- I triggered an update(). So then I started tracing out each time a swf called the JS to say "flash is ready" and I realized, Firfox only renders swfs as they become visible. And To be honest - that's fine and actually, I am pretty sure that IE does this too. But the problem is that not only does Firefox not initialize the swf, Firefox doesn't even acknowledge the swf exists (expect for after onload) if it has not yet been visible. And the proof is that you get JS errors saying: "[FlashDOMID].FlashMethod is not a function". However, scroll down a little, wait until its visible and suddenly the trace starts lighting up "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready" and once they are all ready, everything works fine. Someone told me that FF does not init swf's until visible - can I force it? I can post code if you need...but its pretty heavy (hard to strip out the relevant from the rest) and I would like to avoid it (for your sakes) if possible. The question is simple - have you had this happen and if so, did you find a solution? Does anyone now how to force a not-yet-visible swf to initialize? Thanks guys.

  Read the article

• Dynamically invoke web service at runtime

  - by Ulrik Rasmussen

  So, our application needs support for dynamically calling web services which are unknown at compile time. The user should therefore be able to specify a URL to a WSDL, and specify some data bindings for the request and reply parameters. When Googling for answers, it seems like the way to do this is by actually compiling a web service proxy class at runtime, loading it, and invoking the methods using reflection. I think this seems like a rather clunky approach, given that I don't really need a strongly typed set of classes when I'm going to cast my data dynamically anyway. Dynamically compiling code for doing something that simple also just seems like The Wrong Way To Do It. Restricting ourself to the SOAP protocol, is there any library for C# that implements this protocol for dynamic use? I can imagine that it would be possible to generate runtime key/value data structures from the WSDL, which could be used to specify the request messages, as well as reading the replies. The library should then be able to send well-formed SOAP messages to the server, and parse the replies, without the programmer having to generate the XML manually (at least not the headers and other plumbing). I can't seem to find any library that actually does this. Is what I want to do really that esoteric, or have I just searched the wrong places? Thanks, Ulrik

  Read the article

• Android NDK import-module / code reuse

  - by Graeme

  Morning! I've created a small NDK project which allows dynamic serialisation of objects between Java and C++ through JNI. The logic works like this: Bean - JavaCInterface.Java - JavaCInterface.cpp - JavaCInterface.java - Bean The problem is I want to use this functionality in other projects. I separated out the test code from the project and created a "Tester" project. The tester project sends a Java object through to C++ which then echo's it back to the Java layer. I thought linking would be pretty simple - ("Simple" in terms of NDK/JNI is usually a day of frustration) I added the JNIBridge project as a source project and including the following lines to Android.mk: NDK_MODULE_PATH=.../JNIBridge/jni/" JNIBridge/jni/JavaCInterface/Android.mk: ... include $(BUILD_STATIC_LIBRARY) JNITester/jni/Android.mk: ... include $(BUILD_SHARED_LIBRARY) $(call import-module, JavaCInterface) This all works fine. The C++ files which rely on headers from JavaCInterface module work fine. Also the Java classes can happily use interfaces from JNIBridge project. All the linking is happy. Unfortunately JavaCInterface.java which contains the native method calls cannot see the JNI method located in the static library. (Logically they are in the same project but both are imported into the project where you wish to use them through the above mechanism). My current solutions are are follows. I'm hoping someone can suggest something that will preserve the modular nature of what I'm trying to achieve: My current solution would be to include the JavaCInterface cpp files in the calling project like so: LOCAL_SRC_FILES := FunctionTable.cpp $(PATH_TO_SHARED_PROJECT)/JavaCInterface.cpp But I'd rather not do this as it would lead to me needing to update each depending project if I changed the JavaCInterface architecture. I could create a new set of JNI method signatures in each local project which then link to the imported modules. Again, this binds the implementations too tightly.

  Read the article

• How to output multicolumn html without "widows"?

  - by user314850

  I need to output to HTML a list of categorized links in exactly three columns of text. They must be displayed similar to columns in a newspaper or magazine. So, for example, if there are 20 lines total the first and second columns would contain 7 lines and the last column would contain 6. The list must be dynamic; it will be regularly changed. The tricky part is that the links are categorized with a title and this title cannot be a "widow". If you have a page layout background you'll know that this means the titles cannot be displayed at the bottom of the column -- they must have at least one link underneath them, otherwise they should bump to the next column (I know, technically it should be two lines if I were actually doing page layout, but in this case one is acceptable). I'm having a difficult time figuring out how to get this done. Here's an example of what I mean: Shopping Link 3 Link1 Link 1 Link 4 Link2 Link 2 Link 3 Link 3 Cars Link 1 Music Games Link 2 Link 1 Link 1 Link 2 News As you can see, the "News" title is at the bottom of the middle column, and so is a "widow". This is unacceptable. I could bump it to the next column, but that would create an unnecessarily large amount of white space at the bottom of the second column. What needs to happen instead is that the entire list needs to be re-balanced. I'm wondering if anyone has any tips for how to accomplish this, or perhaps source code or a plug in. Python is preferable, but any language is fine. I'm just trying to get the general concept down.

  Read the article

• Is there any way to provide custom factory for .Net Framework creation Entities from EF4 ?

  - by ILICH

  There are a lot of posts about how cool POCO objects are and how Entity Framework 4 supports them. I decided to try it out with domain driven development oriented architecture and finished with domain entities that has dependencies from services. So far so good. Imagine my Products are POCO objects. When i query for objects like this: NorthwindContext db = new NorthwindContext(); var products = db.Products.ToList(); EF creates instances of products for me. Now I want to inject dependencies in my POCO objects (products) The only way I see is make some method within NorthwindContext that makes something like pseudo-code below: public List<Product> GetProducts(){ var products = database.Products.ToList(); container.BuildUp(products); //inject dependencies return products; } But what if i want to make my repository to be more flexible like this: public ObjectSet<Product> GetProducts() { ... } So, I really need a factory to make it more lazy and linq friendly. Please help !

  Read the article

• Question about the evolution of interaction paradigm between web server program and content provider program?

  - by smwikipedia

  Hi experts, In my opinion, web server is responsible to deliver content to client. If it is static content like pictures and static html document, web server just deliver them as bitstream directly. If it is some dynamic content that is generated during processing client's request, the web server will not generate the conetnt itself but call some external proram to genearte the content. AFAIK, this kind of dynamice content generation technologies include the following: CGI ISAPI ... And from here, I noticed that: ...In IIS 7, modules replace ISAPI filters... Is there any others? Could anyone help me complete the above list and elabrate on or show some links to their evolution? I think it would be very helpful to understand application such as IIS, TomCat, and Apache. I once wrote a small CGI program, and though it serves as a content generator, it is still nothing but a normal standalone program. I call it normal because the CGI program has a main() entry point. But with the recenetly technology like ASP.NET, I am not writing complete program, but only some class library. Why does such radical change happens? Many thanks.

  Read the article

• Validate a XDocument against schema without the ValidationEventHandler (for use in a HTTP handler)

  - by Vaibhav Garg

  Hi everyone, (I am new to Schema validation) Regarding the following method, System.Xml.Schema.Extensions.Validate( ByVal source As System.Xml.Linq.XDocument, ByVal schemas As System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaSet, ByVal validationEventHandler As System.Xml.Schema.ValidationEventHandler, ByVal addSchemaInfo As Boolean) I am using it as follows inside a IHttpHandler - Try Dim xsd As XmlReader = XmlReader.Create(context.Server.MapPath("~/App_Data/MySchema.xsd")) Dim schemas As New XmlSchemaSet() : schemas.Add("myNameSpace", xsd) : xsd.Close() myXDoxumentOdj.Validate(schemas, Function(s As Object, e As ValidationEventArgs) SchemaError(s, e, context), True) Catch ex1 As Threading.ThreadAbortException 'manage schema error' Return Catch ex As Exception 'manage other errors' End Try The handler- Function SchemaError(ByVal s As Object, ByVal e As ValidationEventArgs, ByVal c As HttpContext) As Object If c Is Nothing Then c = HttpContext.Current If c IsNot Nothing Then HttpContext.Current.Response.Write(e.Message) HttpContext.Current.Response.End() End If Return New Object() End Function This is working fine for me at present but looks very weak. I do get errors when I feed it bad XML. But i want to implement it in a more elegant way. This looks like it would break for large XML etc. Is there some way to validate without the handler so that I get the document validated in one go and then deal with errors? To me it looks Async such that the call to Validate() would pass and some non deterministic time later the handler would get called with the result/errors. Is that right? Thanks and sorry for any goofy mistakes :).

  Read the article

• Accessing C# Variables in JavaScript

  - by mshahbazm

  I am Developing Windows 8 application in which i have to access variables of C# class in java script function, But Unfortunately i don not know how to do this: My C# class code is: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Threading.Tasks; namespace Pakistan_Tour { public class UniversalValues { public static double xC; public static double yC; public static int selectedcity; public int retcity() { return selectedcity; } public void setcity(int val) { selectedcity=val; } public void setxy(double x, double y) { xC = x; yC = y; } public double getx() { return xC; } public double gety() { return yC; } } } I have to access the value of variables: xC and yc in java script I am doing like: function initialize() { var x = "<%=xC%>"; var y = "<%=yC%>"; } but is not working, Kindly help me with this, Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• how to check null value of Integer type field in ASP.NET MVC view?

  - by Vikas

  Hi, I have integer type field in database which is having property "Not Null". when i create a view & do a validation, if i left that field blank, it will consider it as 0 so i can not compare it with 0 because if someone insert a value 0 then it will be considered as error! one another problem is that i am using Model error as described in the book "ASP.NET MVC 1.0" @ Scott Gu blog. And I am checking the value in partial class of object (created by LINQ-To-SQL). i.e public partial class Person { public bool IsValid { get { return (GetRuleViolations().Count() == 0); } } public IEnumerable<RuleViolation> GetRuleViolations() { if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(Name)) yield return new RuleViolation("Name is Required", "Name"); if (Age == 0) yield return new RuleViolation("Age is Required", "Age"); yield break; } partial void OnValidate(ChangeAction action) { if (!IsValid) throw new ApplicationException("Rule violations prevent saving"); } } There is also problem with range. Like in database if i declared as smallint i.e. short in c#, now if i exceed that range then it gives error as "A Value is reguired". so finally is there any best way for validation in ASP.NET MVC?

  Read the article

• Ember nested route. Load more models

  - by user3568719

  JsBin http://jsbin.com/EveQOke/153/ I know how to load more then one model to a route, using Ember.RSVP.hash. (see Jsbin Children menu). I use dynamic part to access one elem from a collection children/1. But i cant load more models to a nested resource. In my example i want to populate all the toys for a select, not just list the toys of the child. I have tried to access the model of the route children App.ChildRoute = Ember.Route.extend({ model: function(param){ return Ember.RSVP.hash({ allToys: this.modelFor("children"), child:this.store.find('child', param.child_id) }); } }); and use its model's toy property (since there have already loaded all of the toys) child.hbs <h4>All avaiable toys</h4> <table> {{#each toy in model.allToys.toys}} <tr> <td>{{toy.name}}</td> </tr> {{/each}} </table>

  Read the article

• Javascript tr click event with newly created rows

  - by yalechen

  I am very new to web development. I am currently using tablesorter jquery plugin to create a dynamic table, where the user can add and delete rows. I am having trouble with changing the background color of newly created rows upon clicking. It works fine with rows that are hard coded in html. Here is the relevant code: $(document).ready( function() { $('table.tablesorter td').click( function (event) { $(this).parent('tr').toggleClass('rowclick'); $(this).parent('tr').siblings().removeClass('rowclick'); }); } ) rowclick is a css class here: table.tablesorter tbody tr.rowclick td { background-color: #8dbdd8; } I have tried adding the following to my javascript function that adds a new row: var createClickHandler = function(newrow) { return function(event) { //alert(newrow.cells[0].childNodes[0].data); newrow.toggleClass('rowclick'); newrow.siblings().removeClass('rowclick'); }; } row.onclick = createClickHandler(row); The alert correctly displays the text in the first column of the row when I click the new row. However, my new rows do not respond to the css class. Anyone have any ideas? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Cross-domain data access in JavaScript

  - by vit

  We have an ASP.Net application hosted on our network and exposed to a specific client. This client wants to be able to import data from their own server into our application. The data is retrieved with an HTTP request and is CSV formatted. The problem is that they do not want to expose their server to our network and are requesting the import to be done on the client side (all clients are from the same network as their server). So, what needs to be done is: They request an import page from our server The client script on the page issues a request to their server to get CSV formatted data The data is sent back to our application This is not a challenge when both servers are on the same domain: a simple hidden iframe or something similar will do the trick, but here what I'm getting is a cross-domain "access denied" error. They also refuse to change the data format to return JSON or XML formatted data. What I tried and learned so far is: Hidden iframe -- "access denied" XMLHttpRequest -- behaviour depends on the browser security settings: may work, may work while nagging a user with security warnings, or may not work at all Dynamic script tags -- would have worked if they could have returned data in JSON format IE client data binding -- the same "access denied" error Is there anything else I can try before giving up and saying that it will not be possible without exposing their server to our application, changing their data format or changing their browser security settings? (DNS trick is not an option, by the way).

  Read the article

• How to perform Rails model validation checks within model but outside of filters using ledermann-rails-settings and extensions

  - by user1277160

  Background I'm using ledermann-rails-settings (https://github.com/ledermann/rails-settings) on a Rails 2/3 project to extend virtually the model with certain attributes that don't necessarily need to be placed into the DB in a wide table and it's working out swimmingly for our needs. An additional reason I chose this Gem is because of the post How to create a form for the rails-settings plugin which ties ledermann-rails-settings more closely to the model for the purpose of clean form_for usage for administrator GUI support. It's a perfect solution for addressing form_for support although... Something that I'm running into now though is properly validating the dynamic getters/setters before being passed to the ledermann-rails-settings module. At the moment they are saved immediately, regardless if the model validation has actually fired - I can see through script/console that validation errors are being raised. Example For instance I would like to validate that the attribute :foo is within the range of 0..100 for decimal usage (or even a regex). I've found that with the previous post that I can use standard Rails validators (surprise, surprise) but I want to halt on actually saving any values until those are addressed - ensure that the user of the GUI has given 61.43 as a numerical value. The following code has been borrowed from the quoted post. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_settings validates_inclusion_of :foo, :in => 0..100 def self.settings_attr_accessor(*args) >>SOME SORT OF UNLESS MODEL.VALID? CHECK HERE args.each do |method_name| eval " def #{method_name} self.settings.send(:#{method_name}) end def #{method_name}=(value) self.settings.send(:#{method_name}=, value) end " end >>END UNLESS end settings_attr_accessor :foo end Anyone have any thoughts here on pulling the state of the model at this point outside of having to put this into a before filter? The goal here is to be able to use the standard validations and avoid rolling custom validation checks for each new settings_attr_accessor that is added. Thanks!

  Read the article

• How can I shared controller logic in ASP.NET MVC for 2 controllers, where they are overriden

  - by AbeP

  Hello, I am trying to implement user-friendly URLS, while keeping the existing routes, and was able to do so using the ActionName tag on top of my controller (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/436866/can-you-overload-controller-methods-in-asp-net-mvc) I have 2 controllers: ActionName("UserFriendlyProjectIndex")] public ActionResult Index(string projectName) { ... } public ActionResult Index(long id) { ... } Basically, what I am trying to do is I store the user-friendly URL in the database for each project. If the user enters the URL /Project/TopSecretProject/, the action UserFriendlyProjectIndex gets called. I do a database lookup and if everything checks out, I want to apply the exact same logic that is used in the Index action. I am basically trying to avoid writing duplicate code. I know I can separate the common logic into another method, but I wanted to see if there is a built-in way of doing this in ASP.NET MVC. Any suggestions? I tried the following and I go the View could not be found error message: [ActionName("UserFriendlyProjectIndex")] public ActionResult Index(string projectName) { var filteredProjectName = projectName.EscapeString().Trim(); if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filteredProjectName)) return RedirectToAction("PageNotFound", "Error"); using (var db = new PIMPEntities()) { var project = db.Project.Where(p => p.UserFriendlyUrl == filteredProjectName).FirstOrDefault(); if (project == null) return RedirectToAction("PageNotFound", "Error"); return View(Index(project.ProjectId)); } } Here's the error message: The view 'UserFriendlyProjectIndex' or its master could not be found. The following locations were searched: ~/Views/Project/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.aspx ~/Views/Project/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.ascx ~/Views/Shared/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.aspx ~/Views/Shared/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.ascx Project\UserFriendlyProjectIndex.spark Shared\UserFriendlyProjectIndex.spark I am using the SparkViewEngine as the view engine and LINQ-to-Entities, if that helps. thank you!

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 390 391 392 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400 401  | Next Page >