Search Results

Search found 34016 results on 1361 pages for 'static content'.

Page 397/1361 | < Previous Page | 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400 401 402 403 404  | Next Page >

  • Is it possible to specify Jquery File Upload to post back only once (for multiple files)?

    - by JaJ
    When I upload multiple files (per bluimp jquery file upload) the [httppost] action is entered once per file. Is it possible to specify one and only one postback with an enumerated file container to iterate? View: <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.7.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.ui.widget.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.iframe-transport.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.fileupload.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <input id="fileupload" type="file" name="files" multiple="multiple"/> Controller: public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(IEnumerable<HttpPostedFileBase> files) { // This is posted back for every file that gets uploaded...I would prefer it only post back once // with a actual collection of files to iterate. foreach (var file in files) // There is only ever one file in files { var filename = Path.Combine(Server.MapPath("~/App_Data"), file.FileName); file.SaveAs(filename); } return View(); }

    Read the article

  • Summarising grouped records in a dataframe in R (...again)

    - by monch1962
    Hello all, (I tried to ask this question earlier today, but later realised I over-simplified the question; the answers I received were correct, but I couldn't use them because of my over-simplification of the problem in the original question. Here's my 2nd attempt...) I have a data frame in R that looks like: "Timestamp", "Source", "Target", "Length", "Content" 0.1 , P1 , P2 , 5 , "ABCDE" 0.2 , P1 , P2 , 3 , "HIJ" 0.4 , P1 , P2 , 4 , "PQRS" 0.5 , P2 , P1 , 2 , "ZY" 0.9 , P2 , P1 , 4 , "SRQP" 1.1 , P1 , P2 , 1 , "B" 1.6 , P1 , P2 , 3 , "DEF" 2.0 , P2 , P1 , 3 , "IJK" ... and I want to convert this to: "StartTime", "EndTime", "Duration", "Source", "Target", "Length", "Content" 0.1 , 0.4 , 0.3 , P1 , P2 , 12 , "ABCDEHIJPQRS" 0.5 , 0.9 , 0.4 , P2 , P1 , 6 , "ZYSRQP" 1.1 , 1.6 , 0.5 , P1 , P2 , 4 , "BDEF" ... Trying to put this into English, I want to group consecutive records with the same 'Source' and 'Target' together, then print out a single record per group showing the StartTime, EndTime & Duration (=EndTime-StartTime) for that group, along with the sum of the Lengths for that group, and a concatenation of the Content (which will all be strings) in that group. The TimeOffset values will always increase throughout the data frame. I had a look at melt/recast and have a feeling that it could be used to solve the problem, but couldn't get my head around the documentation. I suspect it's possible to do this within R, but I really don't know where to start. In a pinch I could export the data frame out and do it in e.g. Python, but I'd prefer to stay within R if possible. Thanks in advance for any assistance you can provide

    Read the article

  • How to design data storage for partitioned tagging system?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    How to design data storage for huge tagging system (like digg or delicious)? There is already discussion about it, but it is about centralized database. Since the data is supposed to grow, we'll need to partition the data into multiple shards soon or later. So, the question turns to be: How to design data storage for partitioned tagging system? The tagging system basically has 3 tables: Item (item_id, item_content) Tag (tag_id, tag_title) TagMapping(map_id, tag_id, item_id) That works fine for finding all items for given tag and finding all tags for given item, if the table is stored in one database instance. If we need to partition the data into multiple database instances, it is not that easy. For table Item, we can partition its content with its key item_id. For table Tag, we can partition its content with its key tag_id. For example, we want to partition table Tag into K databases. We can simply choose number (tag_id % K) database to store given tag. But, how to partition table TagMapping? The TagMapping table represents the many-to-many relationship. I can only image to have duplication. That is, same content of TagMappping has two copies. One is partitioned with tag_id and the other is partitioned with item_id. In scenario to find tags for given item, we use partition with tag_id. If scenario to find items for given tag, we use partition with item_id. As a result, there is data redundancy. And, the application level should keep the consistency of all tables. It looks hard. Is there any better solution to solve this many-to-many partition problem?

    Read the article

  • How do you populate a NSArrayController with CoreData rows programmatically?

    - by Andrew McCloud
    After several hours/days of searching and diving into example projects i've concluded that I need to just ask. If I bind the assetsView (IKImageBrowserView) directly to an IB instance of NSArrayController everything works just fine. - (void) awakeFromNib { library = [[NSArrayController alloc] init]; [library setManagedObjectContext:[[NSApp delegate] managedObjectContext]]; [library setEntityName:@"Asset"]; NSLog(@"%@", [library arrangedObjects]); NSLog(@"%@", [library content]); [assetsView setDataSource:library]; [assetsView reloadData]; } Both NSLogs are empty. I know i'm missing something... I just don't know what. The goal is to eventually allow multiple instances of this view's "library" filtered programmatically with a predicate. For now i'm just trying to have it display all of the rows for the "Asset" entity. Addition: If I create the NSArrayController in IB and then try to log [library arrangedObjects] or manually set the data source for assetsView I get the same empty results. Like I said earlier, if I bind library.arrangedObjects to assetsView.content (IKImageBrowserView) in IB - with same managed object context and same entity name set by IB - everything works as expected. - (void) awakeFromNib { // library = [[NSArrayController alloc] init]; // [library setManagedObjectContext:[[NSApp delegate] managedObjectContext]]; // [library setEntityName:@"Asset"]; NSLog(@"%@", [library arrangedObjects]); NSLog(@"%@", [library content]); [assetsView setDataSource:library]; [assetsView reloadData]; }

    Read the article

  • ASP Force Download

    - by Thomas Clayson
    In PHP I can do: header("Content-type: application/octet-stream") and then anything that I output is downloaded instead of showing in the browser. Is there a similar way to do this in ASP? I have seen about all the file streaming and such using ADODB.Stream, but that doesn't seem to work for me and always requires another file to load the content from. Bit of an ASP noob, so go easy on me. :p All I want to do is have a script that outputs a CSV and that will force download instead of showing in the browser. Thanks EDIT here is my script currently: reportingForce.aspx.vb Public Class reportingForce Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Dim FStream Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Response.Buffer = True Response.ContentType = "application/octet-stream" Response.AddHeader("Content-disposition", "attachment; filename=" & Chr(34) & "my output file.csv" & Chr(34)) Response.Write("1,2,3,4,5" & vbCrLf) Response.Write("5,6,7,8,9" & vbCrLf) End Sub End Class reportingForce.aspx Hello,World

    Read the article

  • Sharing a COM port over TCP

    - by guinness
    What would be a simple design pattern for sharing a COM port over TCP to multiple clients? For example, a local GPS device that could transmit co-ordinates to remote hosts in realtime. So I need a program that would open the serial port and accept multiple TCP connections like: class Program { public static void Main(string[] args) { SerialPort sp = new SerialPort("COM4", 19200, Parity.None, 8, StopBits.One); Socket srv = new Socket(AddressFamily.InterNetwork, SocketType.Stream, ProtocolType.Tcp); srv.Bind(new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Any, 8000)); srv.Listen(20); while (true) { Socket soc = srv.Accept(); new Connection(soc); } } } I would then need a class to handle the communication between connected clients, allowing them all to see the data and keeping it synchronized so client commands are received in sequence: class Connection { static object lck = new object(); static List<Connection> cons = new List<Connection>(); public Socket socket; public StreamReader reader; public StreamWriter writer; public Connection(Socket soc) { this.socket = soc; this.reader = new StreamReader(new NetworkStream(soc, false)); this.writer = new StreamWriter(new NetworkStream(soc, true)); new Thread(ClientLoop).Start(); } void ClientLoop() { lock (lck) { connections.Add(this); } while (true) { lock (lck) { string line = reader.ReadLine(); if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(line)) break; foreach (Connection con in cons) con.writer.WriteLine(line); } } lock (lck) { cons.Remove(this); socket.Close(); } } } The problem I'm struggling to resolve is how to facilitate communication between the SerialPort instance and the threads. I'm not certain that the above code is the best way forward, so does anybody have another solution (the simpler the better)?

    Read the article

  • Populating an array into a TableView - Thanks in advance.

    - by tssav
    Hello Developers, View not being populated with the array. I would really appreciate if I could get some help. Thanks!! In a tableView I have the following: NSDictionary *cat = [category objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.text = [cat valueForKey:@"reference"]; This populates the tableView with the content of the array from an XML file. There is another array “data” that prints out the content to the debug console and I want to populate another view with this content. But I am having lot of trouble populating the next view with the data array. NSLog(@"cellForRowAtIndexPath-- Reference:%@: Verse:%@", [cat valueForKey:@"reference"], [cat valueForKey:@"data"]); The didSelectRowAtIndexPath method looks like this: Verse *vvc = [[Verse alloc] initWithNibName:@"VerseView" bundle:nil]; vvc.verses = [[category objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] valueForKey:@"verse"]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:vvc animated:YES]; [vvc release]; [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:YES]; In the cellForRowAtIndexPath of the next view I have the following: NSDictionary *cat = [verses objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.text = [cat valueForKey:@"data"]; What I would like is to have the “data” in a textView. I don’t know what’s wrong. Any help would be appreciated!

    Read the article

  • What is the difference between these two linq implementations?

    - by Mahesh Velaga
    I was going through Jon Skeet's Reimplemnting Linq to Objects series. In the implementation of where article, I found the following snippets, but I don't get what is the advantage that we are gettting by splitting the original method into two. Original Method: // Naive validation - broken! public static IEnumerable<TSource> Where<TSource>( this IEnumerable<TSource> source, Func<TSource, bool> predicate) { if (source == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("source"); } if (predicate == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("predicate"); } foreach (TSource item in source) { if (predicate(item)) { yield return item; } } } Refactored Method: public static IEnumerable<TSource> Where<TSource>( this IEnumerable<TSource> source, Func<TSource, bool> predicate) { if (source == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("source"); } if (predicate == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("predicate"); } return WhereImpl(source, predicate); } private static IEnumerable<TSource> WhereImpl<TSource>( this IEnumerable<TSource> source, Func<TSource, bool> predicate) { foreach (TSource item in source) { if (predicate(item)) { yield return item; } } } Jon says - Its for eager validation and then defferring for the rest of the part. But, I don't get it. Could some one please explain it in a little more detail, whats the difference between these 2 functions and why will the validations be performed in one and not in the other eagerly? Conclusion/Solution: I got confused due to my lack of understanding on which functions are determined to be iterator-generators. I assumed that, it is based on signature of a method like IEnumerable<T>. But, based on the answers, now I get it, a method is an iterator-generator if it uses yield statements.

    Read the article

  • Java Concurrency in practice sample question

    - by andy boot
    I am reading "Java Concurrency in practice" and looking at the example code on page 51. This states that if a thread has references to a shared object then other threads may be able to access that object before the constructor has finished executing. I have tried to put this into practice and so I wrote this code thinking that if I ran it enough times a RuntimeException("World is f*cked") would occur. But it isn't doing. Is this a case of the Java spec not guaranting something but my particular implementation of java guaranteeing it for me? (java version: 1.5.0 on Ubuntu) Or have I misread something in the book? Code: (I expect an exception but it is never thrown) public class Threads { private Widgit w; public static void main(String[] s) throws Exception { while(true){ Threads t = new Threads(); t.runThreads(); } } private void runThreads() throws Exception{ new Checker().start(); w = new Widgit((int)(Math.random() * 100) + 1); } private class Checker extends Thread{ private static final int LOOP_TIMES = 1000; public void run() { int count = 0; for(int i = 0; i < LOOP_TIMES; i++){ try { w.checkMe(); count++; } catch(NullPointerException npe){ //ignore } } System.out.println("checked: "+count+" times out of "+LOOP_TIMES); } } private static class Widgit{ private int n; private int n2; Widgit(int n) throws InterruptedException{ this.n = n; Thread.sleep(2); this.n2 = n; } void checkMe(){ if (n != n2) { throw new RuntimeException("World is f*cked"); } } } }

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC (VB) error when publishing to test server

    - by Colin
    I have an ASP.NET MVC project that works fine on my local machine (no build errors, server errors or anything). However, when I publish the project to a test server, I get an "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error on a For Each I have in my view. I have a function within a model that returns a DataRowCollection. I'm calling that function in my controller and passing the DataRowCollection to my View, which then iterates over the rows and displays the necessary information: In the Controller I have: Function Index() As ActionResult Dim MyModel As New Model ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") = MyModel.GetDataRowCollection() Return View() End Function And then in the View, which is throwing the error: <%@ Page Language="VB" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <asp:Content ID="indexTitle" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> My Page Title </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="indexContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% For Each MyDataRow In ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") ' do stuff with each MyDataRow Next %> I'm pretty new to ASP.NET MVC so I'm sure there might be a better way to do what I'm doing (I'd be happy to hear if there is), but my main concern is why this works fine on my local machine but throws an error on the For Each on the test server? Please let me know if I can clarify any of the above, and thanks in advance for any information.

    Read the article

  • In Visual Studio (2008) is there a way to have a custom dependent file on another custom file?

    - by rball
    Instead of a *.cs code behind or beside I'd like to have a *.js file. I'm developing a MVC application an have no need for a code beside because I have controllers, but in certain cases it'd be nice to have a JavaScript code beside or some way to associate the file to the page it's being used on. I suppose I could just name them similarly, but I'm wanting to show the association if possible so there's no question about what the file is for. Typically what I'm talking about is within Visual Studio now under your Global.asax file you will have a plus sign to the left: + Global.asax Once you expand it you'll get - Global.asax Global.asax.cs I'd like the same thing to happen: + Home.spark - Home.spark Home.spark.js Updated: My existing csproj file has a path to the actual file, not sure if that's screwing it up. I've currently got: <ItemGroup> <Content Include="Views\User\Profile.spark.js"> <DependentUpon>Views\User\Profile.spark</DependentUpon> </Content> </ItemGroup> <ItemGroup> <Content Include="Views\User\Profile.spark" /> </ItemGroup> and it's simply just showing the files besides each other.

    Read the article

  • How to create a generic list in this wierd case in c#

    - by Marc Bettex
    Hello, In my program, I have a class A which is extended by B, C and many more classes. I have a method GetInstance() which returns a instance of B or C (or of one of the other child), but I don't know which one, so the return type of the method is A. In the method CreateGenericList(), I have a variable v of type A, which is in fact either a B, a C or another child type and I want to create a generic list of the proper type, i.e. List<B> if v is a B or List<C> if v is a C, ... Currently I do it by using reflection, which works, but this is extremely slow. I wanted to know if there is another way to to it, which doesn't use reflection. Here is an example of the code of my problem: class A { } class B : A { } class C : A { } // More childs of A. class Program { static A GetInstance() { // returns an instance of B or C } static void CreateGenericList() { A v = Program.GetInstance(); IList genericList = // Here I want an instance of List<B> or List<C> or ... depending of the real type of v, not a List<A>. } } I tried the following hack. I call the following method, hoping the type inferencer will guess the type of model, but it doesn't work and return a List<A>. I believe that because c# is statically typed, T is resolved as A and not as the real type of model at runtime. static List<T> CreateGenericListFromModel<T>(T model) where T : A { return new List<T> (); } Does anybody have a solution to that problem that doesn't use reflection or that it is impossible to solve that problem without reflection? Thank you very much, Marc

    Read the article

  • probelem with NSTimer

    - by zp26
    Hi I have a problem with a NSTimer I recived a "SIGABRT" error and "[NSCFTimer intValue]: unrecognized selector sent to instance " These is my code: -(void)detectionMove:(NSNumber*)arrayIndex{ static BOOL notFind = FALSE; static int countVariable = 0; static int countRilevamenti = 0; notFind = FALSE; for(int i = countVariable+1; i<[[[[sharedController arrayMovement]objectAtIndex:[arrayIndex intValue]] arrayPositionMove]count]; i++){ if(!notFind){ if((actualAccelerometerX+sensibilityMovement) >= [[[[[sharedController arrayMovement]objectAtIndex:[arrayIndex intValue]] arrayPositionMove]objectAtIndex:i]valueX] && (actualAccelerometerX-sensibilityMovement) <= [[[[[sharedController arrayMovement]objectAtIndex:[arrayIndex intValue]] arrayPositionMove]objectAtIndex:i]valueX] && (actualAccelerometerY+sensibilityMovement) >= [[[[[sharedController arrayMovement]objectAtIndex:[arrayIndex intValue]] arrayPositionMove]objectAtIndex:i]valueY] && (actualAccelerometerY-sensibilityMovement) <= [[[[[sharedController arrayMovement]objectAtIndex:[arrayIndex intValue]] arrayPositionMove]objectAtIndex:i]valueY] && (actualAccelerometerZ+sensibilityMovement) >= [[[[[sharedController arrayMovement]objectAtIndex:[arrayIndex intValue]] arrayPositionMove]objectAtIndex:i]valueZ] && (actualAccelerometerZ-sensibilityMovement) <= [[[[[sharedController arrayMovement]objectAtIndex:[arrayIndex intValue]] arrayPositionMove]objectAtIndex:i]valueZ]) { countVariable = i; notFind = TRUE; countRilevamenti++; } } } if(!notFind) return; else if(countVariable+1 == [[[[sharedController arrayMovement]objectAtIndex:[arrayIndex intValue]] arrayPositionMove]count]){ if(countRilevamenti + tollerance >= [[[[sharedController arrayMovement]objectAtIndex:[arrayIndex intValue]] arrayPositionMove]count]) movementDetected = [arrayIndex intValue]; else NSLog(@"troppo veloce"); countVariable = 0; notFind = FALSE; countRilevamenti = 0; return; } [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:timeToCatch target:self selector:@selector(detectionMove:) userInfo:(NSNumber*)arrayIndex repeats:NO]; }

    Read the article

  • How do I loop through elements inside a div?

    - by crosenblum
    I have to make a custom function for search/replace text, because firefox counts text nodes differently than IE, Google Chrome, etc.. I am trying to use this code, that I saw at Firefox WhiteSpace Issue since in my other function, I am looping numerically through nodes, which serves my functional needs perfectly, in other browsers. But refuses to work, as part of a search/replace function that takes place after some ajax content is loaded. Here is the code, that I have tried to get to work, but I must be missing the correct understanding of the context of how to loop thru elements inside a div. // get all childnodes inside div function div_translate(divid) { // list child nodes of parent if (divid != null) { // var children = parent.childNodes, child; var parentNode = divid; // start loop thru child nodes for(var node=parentNode.firstChild;node!=null;node=node.nextSibling){ // begin check nodeType if(node.nodeType == 1){ // get value of this node var value = content(node); // get class of this node var myclass = node.attr('class'); console.log(myclass); // begin check if value undefined if (typeof(value) != 'undefined' && value != null) { console.log(value); // it is a text node. do magic. for (var x = en_count; x > 0; x--) { // get current english phrase var from = en_lang[x]; // get current other language phrase var to = other_lang[x]; if (value.match(from)) { content(node, value.replace(from, to)); } } } // end check if value undefined } // end check nodeType } // end loop thru child nodes } }

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to Kick off a java process under Windows Service with C#?

    - by Wing C. Chen
    I would like to wrap a java program into a windows service with C# using System.ServiceProcess.ServiceBase. So I came up with the following code: /// <summary> /// The main entry point for the application. /// </summary> static void Main() { System.ServiceProcess.ServiceBase.Run(new JavaLauncher()); } protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { Thread _thread; _thread = new Thread(StartService); _thread.Start(); base.OnStart(args); } protected override void OnStop() { Thread _thread; _thread = new Thread(StopService); _thread.Start(); base.OnStop(); } static public void StartService() { System.Diagnostics.Process proc = new System.Diagnostics.Process(); proc.EnableRaisingEvents = false; proc.StartInfo.FileName = "javaw"; proc.StartInfo.Arguments = config.generateLaunchCommand(); proc.Start(); } static public void StopService() { System.Diagnostics.Process proc = new System.Diagnostics.Process(); proc.EnableRaisingEvents = false; proc.StartInfo.FileName = "javaw"; proc.StartInfo.Arguments = "-jar stop.jar"; proc.Start(); } Firstly I had to use Threads in OnStart and OnStop. If not, an exception occurs complaining that the service is terminated because of doing nothing. Secondly, the service can be hooked up to windows smoothly. However, the service terminates a short while after it is started. I looked into the process monitor, only the service process stays alive for that short while, the javaw process never showed up, however. Is there anyone who knows how this can be fixed? It works fine in an ordinary console environment. I think it has something to do with Windows service.

    Read the article

  • PHP what is faster to use

    - by user1631500
    What is faster / better to use? To put html into variables and print them later, or to just html print / echo print the content based on condition? EXAMPLE 1:(html into variables) if(!isset($_SESSION['daddy'])) { $var = "<span class='something'>Go here:<a href='#'>Click</a></span> <span class='something'>Go here:<a href='#'>Click</a></span>" } else { $one=$_SESSION["one"]; $two=$_SESSION["two"]; $three=$_SESSION["three"]; $var = You are cool enough to view the content; } echo $var; EXAMPLE 2:(print based on condition) if(!isset($_SESSION['daddy'])) { $var = 1; } else { $one=$_SESSION["one"]; $two=$_SESSION["two"]; $three=$_SESSION["three"]; $var = 0; } if ($var==1) { ?> <span class='something'>Go here:<a href='#'>Click</a></span> <span class='something'>Go here:<a href='#'>Click</a></span <?php } else { ?> You are cool enough to view the content. <?php } ?>

    Read the article

  • How to make custom tab using jquery?

    - by ALAN
    i have following html, i want to make simple tab using jquery <td style="border-color: black; border-style: solid; border-width: 1px 0 1px 1px;"> <div id="cont-1-1"> My first tab content </div> <div id="cont-2-1"> My second tab content </div> </td> <td style="width: 30px"> <div id="tab-box"> <div style="height: 121px;"><img src="/Images/Tab1.png" /></div> <div style="border-left: 1px solid Black;"><img src="/Images/Tab2.png" /></div> <div style="border-left: 1px solid Black; height: 40px;"></div> </div> </td> </td> Where Tab1.Png and Tab2.Png are my tab headers and div id :cont-1-1 and 2-1 are tab content, i don't want to use any jquery plug-in for this, just need something simple when i click on tab,,hide and show contents thanks

    Read the article

  • What can I do to get Mozilla Firefox to preload the eventual image result?

    - by Dalal
    I am attempting to preload images using JavaScript. I have declared an array as follows with image links from different places: var imageArray = new Array(); imageArray[0] = new Image(); imageArray[1] = new Image(); imageArray[2] = new Image(); imageArray[3] = new Image(); imageArray[0].src = "http://www.bollywoodhott.com/wp-content/uploads/2008/12/arjun-rampal.jpg"; imageArray[1].src = "http://labelleetleblog.files.wordpress.com/2009/06/josie-maran.jpg"; imageArray[2].src = "http://1.bp.blogspot.com/_22EXDJCJp3s/SxbIcZHTHTI/AAAAAAAAIXc/fkaDiOKjd-I/s400/black-male-model.jpg"; imageArray[3].src = "http://www.iill.net/wp-content/uploads/images/hot-chick.jpg"; The image fade and transformation effects that I am doing using this array work properly for the first 3 images, but for the last one, imageArray[3], the actual image data of the image does not get preloaded and it completely ruins the effect, since the actual image data loads AFTERWARDS, only at the time it needs to be displayed, it seems. This happens because the last link http://www.iill.net/wp-content/uploads/images/hot-chick.jpg is not a direct link to the image. If you go to that link, your browser will redirect you to the ACTUAL location. Now, my image preloading code in Chrome works perfectly well, and the effects look great. Because it seems that Chrome preloads the actual data - the EVENTUAL image that is to be shown. This means that in Chrome if I preloaded an image that will redirect to 'stop stealing my bandwidth', then the image that gets preloaded is 'stop stealing my bandwidth'. How can I modify my code to get Firefox to behave the same way?

    Read the article

  • Custom button with property as StaticResource

    - by alin
    I am trying to achieve the following thing: use an svg image into a custom button. In order to do this I created a Custom button: public class MainButton : Button { static MainButton() { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(MainButton), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(typeof(MainButton))); } public string Text { get { return (string)GetValue(TextProperty); } set { SetValue(TextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty TextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Text", typeof(string), typeof(MainButton), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); public object Image { get { return (object)GetValue(ImageProperty); } set { SetValue(ImageProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty ImageProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Image", typeof(object), typeof(MainButton), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); } I took a svg file, opened it in inkscape and saved it as xaml file. I opened Themes.xaml and added the created xaml image as a ControlTemplate And the button style is: Style TargetType="{x:Type local:MainButton}" <StackPanel Canvas.Top="12" Canvas.Left="0" Canvas.ZIndex="2" Width="80"> <ContentControl x:Name="Img" Template="{StaticResource Home}" /> </StackPanel> <StackPanel x:Name="spText" Canvas.Top="45" Canvas.Left="1" Canvas.ZIndex="1" Width="80"> <TextBlock x:Name="Txt" Text="{Binding Path=(local:MainButton.Text), RelativeSource ={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType ={x:Type Button}}}" VerticalAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Center" Foreground="White" FontSize="14"/> </StackPanel> ... As you can see I have hardcoded the StaticResource name I want to be able to have a binding with property Image on this Template, something like So that I can set the Image property of the button with the name of the StaticResource I want. For example, having beside "Home" image, another one "Back" I would have two buttons in MainWindow declared like this: Any advice is kindly taken. Thank you for your time.

    Read the article

  • Drupal 6: getting particular fields from Node Reference types...

    - by artmania
    Hi friends, I'm a drupal newbie... <?php print $node->field_date[0]['view']; ?> I can get the custom created CCK fields' value and display in tpl.php files as above... that's fine. my question is how can I get the Node reference fields' in-fields? for example, I have an event content type, and I have defined Node Reference for Location (title, address, img, etc.). When I write the code below, it displays all location content; <?php print $node->field_location[0]['view']; ?> but I need to get only address field from this location content type. sth like below would be great :D but not working; <?php print $node->field_location[0]['field_address']['view']; ?> so how can get that? appreciate helps so much! thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • Same IL code, different output - how is it possible?

    - by Hali
    When I compile this code with mono (gmcs) and run it, it outputs -1 (both with mono and .Net framework). When I compile it with VS (csc), it outputs -1 when I run it with mono, and 0 when I run it with the .Net framework. The code in question is: using System; public class Program { public static void Main() { Console.WriteLine(string.Compare("alo\0alo\0", "alo\0alo\0\0", false, System.Globalization.CultureInfo.InvariantCulture)); } } Compiled with VS: .method public hidebysig static void Main() cil managed { .entrypoint // Code size 29 (0x1d) .maxstack 8 IL_0000: nop IL_0001: ldstr bytearray (61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 ) // a.l.o...a.l.o... IL_0006: ldstr bytearray (61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 // a.l.o...a.l.o... 00 00 ) IL_000b: ldc.i4.0 IL_000c: call class [mscorlib]System.Globalization.CultureInfo [mscorlib]System.Globalization.CultureInfo::get_InvariantCulture() IL_0011: call int32 [mscorlib]System.String::Compare(string, string, bool, class [mscorlib]System.Globalization.CultureInfo) IL_0016: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(int32) IL_001b: nop IL_001c: ret } // end of method Program::Main Compiled with mono: .method public hidebysig static void Main() cil managed { .entrypoint // Code size 27 (0x1b) .maxstack 8 IL_0000: ldstr bytearray (61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 ) // a.l.o...a.l.o... IL_0005: ldstr bytearray (61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 // a.l.o...a.l.o... 00 00 ) IL_000a: ldc.i4.0 IL_000b: call class [mscorlib]System.Globalization.CultureInfo [mscorlib]System.Globalization.CultureInfo::get_InvariantCulture() IL_0010: call int32 [mscorlib]System.String::Compare(string, string, bool, class [mscorlib]System.Globalization.CultureInfo) IL_0015: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(int32) IL_001a: ret } // end of method Program::Main The only difference is the two extra NOP instructions in the VS version. How is it possible?

    Read the article

  • The Current State Of Serving a PHP 5.x App on the Apache, LightTPD & Nginx Web Servers?

    - by Gregory Kornblum
    Being stuck in a MS stack architecture/development position for the last year and a half has prevented me from staying on top of the world of open source stack based web servers recent evolution more than I would have liked to. However I am now building an open source stack based application/system architecture and sadly I do not have the time to give each of the above mentioned web servers a thorough test of my own to decide. So I figured I'd get input from the best development community site and more specifically the people who make it so. This is a site that is a resource for information regarding a specific domain and target audience with features to help users not only find the information but to also interact with one another in various ways for various reasons. I chose the open source stack for the wealth of resources it has along with much better offers than the MS stack (i.e. WordPress vs BlogEngine.NET). I feel Java is more in the middle of these stacks in this regard although I am not ruling out the possibility of using it in certain areas unrelated to the actual web app itself such as background processes. I have already come to the conclusion of using PHP (using CodeIgniter framework & APC), MySQL (InnoDB) and Memcached on CentOS. I am definitely serving static content on Nginx. However the 3 servers mentioned have no consensus on which is best for dynamic content in regards to performance. It seems LightTPD still has the leak issue which rules it out if it does, Nginx seems it is still not mature enough for this aspect and of course Apache tries to be everything for everybody. I am still going to compile the one chosen with as many performance tweaks as possible such as static linking and the likes. I believe I can get Apache to match the other 2 in regards to serving dynamic content through this process and not having it serve anything static. However during my research it seems the others are still worth considering. So with all things considered I would love to hear what everyone here has to say on the matter. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Looking for a RESTful or SOAP pipeline between WordPress and InterWoven TeamSite

    - by deanpeters
    I've been Googling my brains out trying see if there's a simple way to bridge content to and from WordPress to and from TeamSite. I'm coming at this from the perspective of a WordPress developer. I see in the book "The Definitive Guide to Interwoven TeamSite" (http://bit.ly/d3z4wI) mention of objects for the Interwoven LiveSite product: com.interwoven.livesite.external.impl.RSS com.interwoven.livesite.external.impl.SOAP If I understand the above objects correctly, these allow me to instantiate objects of these data types, which after populating them via various method calls, allow me to render content using com.interwoven.livesite.external.ExternalCall ... but I'm not sure. Nor do I think this approach provides me the 2-way street I seek. As it stands now, from my limited understanding, it appears that the least path of resistance is deploying Interwoven's LiveSite with the existing TeamSite implementation so content can be both consumed and rendered via RSS ... an channel which WordPress can produce and consume; the latter with plugins such as wp-o-matic and/or feedpress. So the question is, does anyone out there have experience with a SOAP or RESTful API approach to InterWoven's TeamSite? If so, can I get some direction on documentation? Or is the addition of LiveSite + RSS the most feasible 2-way channel?

    Read the article

  • Avoiding mass propagation of properties and events for exposure to ViewModels.

    - by firoso
    I have an MVVM application I am developing that is to the point where I'm ready to start putting together a user interface (my client code is largely functional) I'm now running into the issue that I'm trying to get my application data to where I need it so that it can be consumed by the view model and then bound to the view. Unfortunately, it seems that I've either got a few structural oversights, or I'm just going to have to face the reality that I need to be propogating events and raising excessive amounts of errors to notify view models that thier properties have changed. Let me go into some examples of my issue: I have a class "Unit" contained in a class "Test", contained in a class "Session" contained in a class "TestManager" which is contained in "TestDataModel" which is utilized by "TestViewModel" which is databound to by my "TestView" .... WHOA. Now, consider that Unit (the bottom of the heiarchy) has a property called "Results" that is updated periodically, I want to expose that to my viewmodel and then databind it to my view, trouble is, the only way I can really think to do this is to perpetuate events WAY up a chain that say "I've been updated!" and then request the new value... This seems like an aweful way to do this. Alternatively, I could register a static event and raise it, and have the appropriate "Unit view model" grab the event and request the update. This SEEMS better... but... static events? Is that a taboo idea? Also, having an expression like: TestDataModel.TestManager.Session.Test.Unit.Results[i] Seems REALLY gross to have on a View Model. I know this all reeks of a bad design issue, but I can't figure out what I did wrong? Should I be using more singleton/container controlled lifetimes type objects? Register object instances with static helper containers? Obviously these are hard questions to answer without being intimate with the existing structure, but if you've run into situations like this, what did you do to refactor? Should I just live with this, add mass events, and propogate them?

    Read the article

  • PHP Outputting File Attachments with Headers

    - by OneNerd
    After reading a few posts here I formulated this function which is sort of a mishmash of a bunch of others: function outputFile( $filePath, $fileName, $mimeType = '' ) { // Setup $mimeTypes = array( 'pdf' => 'application/pdf', 'txt' => 'text/plain', 'html' => 'text/html', 'exe' => 'application/octet-stream', 'zip' => 'application/zip', 'doc' => 'application/msword', 'xls' => 'application/vnd.ms-excel', 'ppt' => 'application/vnd.ms-powerpoint', 'gif' => 'image/gif', 'png' => 'image/png', 'jpeg' => 'image/jpg', 'jpg' => 'image/jpg', 'php' => 'text/plain' ); // Send Headers //-- next line fixed as per suggestion -- header('Content-Type: ' . $mimeTypes[$mimeType]); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename="' . $fileName . '"'); header('Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary'); header('Accept-Ranges: bytes'); header('Cache-Control: private'); header('Pragma: private'); header('Expires: Mon, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT'); readfile($filePath); } I have a php page (file.php) which does something like this (lots of other code stripped out): // I run this thru a safe function not shown here $safe_filename = $_GET['filename']; outputFile ( "/the/file/path/{$safe_filename}", $safe_filename, substr($safe_filename, -3) ); Seems like it should work, and it almost does, but I am having the following issues: When its a text file, I am getting a strange symbol as the first letter in the text document When its a word doc, it is corrupt (presumably that same first bit or byte throwing things off). I presume all other file types will be corrupt - have not even tried them Any ideas on what I am doing wrong? Thanks - UPDATE: changed line of code as suggested - still same issue.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400 401 402 403 404  | Next Page >