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  • Would OpenID or OAuth work for authorization/authentication on a distributed web service?

    - by David Eyk
    We're in the early stages of designing a RESTful/resource-oriented web service API for a computational lingustics application. Because many of the resources we plan to serve are rights-encumbered, a key design decision has been to specify the platform so that each resource provider can expose their own web service that complies with the API spec. This way, the rights owner maintains control over their content (and thus the ability to throttle or deny access at will) and a direct relationship with the consumer, while still being able to participate in in the collaborative network. At the same time, to simplify the job of writing a client for this service, we want to allow a client access to the distributed service through one end-point, with the server handling content negotiation and retrieval from the appropriate providers. Right now, we're at an impasse on authentication/authorization schemes. One of our number has argued for the (technical) simplicity of a central authentication registry, but others are concerned about the organizational complexity of such a scheme. It seems to me, based on an albeit limited understanding of the technologies, that a combination of OpenID and OAuth would do the trick, with a client authenticating with the end-point via OpenID, and the server taking action on the user's behalf with the various content providers using OAuth. I've only ever seen implementations (e.g. stackoverflow, twitter, etc.) where a human was present to intervene, and I still need to do more research on these technologies. Would a scheme like this work for an automated web service, or would it make the client too difficult to implement and operate?

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  • Loading Liferay Properties from Spring IoC container (to get jdbc connection parameters)

    - by mox601
    I'm developing some portlets for Liferay Portal 5.2.3 with bundled tomcat 6.0.18 using Spring IoC container. I need to map the User_ table used in Liferay database to an entity with Hibernate, so I need to use two different dataSources to separate the liferay db from the db used by portlets. My jdbc.properties has to hold all connection parameters for both databases: no problem for the one used by portlets, but I am having issues determining which database uses liferay to hold its data. My conclusion is that i should have something like this: liferayConnection.url=jdbc:hsqldb:${liferay.home}/data/hsql/lportal in order to get the database url dynamically loaded, according to Liferay properties found in portal-ext.properties. (Or, better, load the whole portal-ext.properties and read database properties from there). The problem is that the placeholder is not resolved: Caused by: org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: Invalid bean definition with name 'liferayDataSource' defined in class path resource [WEB-INF/applicationContext.xml]: Could not resolve placeholder 'liferay.home' To dodge this problem I tried to load explicitly portal-ext.properties with a Spring bean: <bean id="liferayPropertiesConfigurer" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer" p:location="../../portal-ext.properties"/> but no luck: liferay.home is not resolved but there aren't other errors. How can I resolve the placeholder defined by Liferay? Thanks

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  • Getting a job in the games industry as a developer, just knowing a game engine

    - by numerical25
    I recently enrolled in a community college for games developement. But I am skeptical about the curriculum. I have no experience in the gaming industry so I wouldn't be able to tell whether it's a good investment or not. So I am asking you. I don't want to get too much into the details of all the classes I am taking so I will try to be brief. By the time I graduate, I should have a understanding of how a game engine works. I will be working with the Unreal Engine to develop a Multiplayer game from scratch. So in the process of my final project, I will learn how to work within the Unreal Engine, learn Python and learn how to use its API to connect to a remote server and build game mechanics. Overall I will also recieve an associates degree in game development. I learn C++ but not C. The director said he was trying to implement C in the program as well. What I notice is I will not learn how to build a 3D game engine from scratch. They do not teach any artificial intelligence (AI). I will not learn how to work with the graphics card using a graphics API such as DirectX or OpenGL. I know building a game engine from scratch is a little complex, but at the same time the track is requiring me to take some advanced mathematics courses such as calculus and geometry 1 and 2. I also got to take a physics class. I just think that's a little much for just learning how to use the Unreal Engine but not actually build one or try to learn the anatomy of a games engine. Is this good enough to possibly land my a job in the industry? If I left anything out or was not detail, please feel free to ask more questions. Edit: I do learn data structures and algorithms.

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  • How can I use Qt to get html code of the redirected page??

    - by Claire Huang
    I'm trying to use Qt to download the html code from the following url: http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/entrez/query.fcgi?db=nucleotide&cmd=search&term=AB100362 this url will re-direct to www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/nuccore/27884304 I try to do it by following way, but I cannot get anything. it works for some webpage such as www.google.com, but not for this NCBI page. is there any way to get this page?? QNetworkReply::NetworkError downloadURL(const QUrl &url, QByteArray &data) { QNetworkAccessManager manager; QNetworkRequest request(url); QNetworkReply *reply = manager.get(request); QEventLoop loop; QObject::connect(reply, SIGNAL(finished()), &loop, SLOT(quit())); loop.exec(); if (reply->error() != QNetworkReply::NoError) { return reply->error(); } data = reply->readAll(); delete reply; return QNetworkReply::NoError; } void GetGi() { int pos; QString sGetFromURL = "http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/entrez/query.fcgi"; QUrl url(sGetFromURL); url.addQueryItem("db", "nucleotide"); url.addQueryItem("cmd", "search"); url.addQueryItem("term", "AB100362"); QByteArray InfoNCBI; int errorCode = downloadURL(url, InfoNCBI); if (errorCode != 0 ) { QMessageBox::about(0,tr("Internet Error "), tr("Internet Error %1: Failed to connect to NCBI.\t\nPlease check your internect connection.").arg(errorCode)); return "ERROR"; } }

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  • How to upgrade all dependencies to a specific version

    - by Calm Storm
    Hi, I tried doing a mvn dependency:tree and I get a tree of dependencies. My question is, My project depends on many modules which internally depends on many spring artifacts. There are a few version clashes. I want to upgrade all spring related libraries to say the latest one (2.6.x or above). What is the preferred way to do this? Should I declare all the deps spring-context, spring-support (and 10 other artifacts) in my pom.xml and point them to 2.6.x ? Is there any other better method ? [INFO] +- com.xxxx:yyy-jar:jar:1.0-SNAPSHOT:compile [INFO] | +- com.xxxx:zzz-commons:jar:1.0-SNAPSHOT:compile [INFO] | | +- org.springframework:spring-dao:jar:2.0.7:compile [INFO] | | +- org.springframework:spring-jdbc:jar:2.0.7:compile [INFO] | | +- org.springframework:spring-web:jar:2.0.7:compile [INFO] | | +- org.springframework:spring-support:jar:2.0.7:compile [INFO] | | +- net.sf.ehcache:ehcache:jar:1.2:compile [INFO] | | +- commons-collections:commons-collections:jar:3.2:compile [INFO] | | +- aspectj:aspectjweaver:jar:1.5.3:compile [INFO] | | +- betex-commons:betex-commons:jar:5.5.1-2:compile [INFO] | | \- javax.servlet:servlet-api:jar:2.4:compile [INFO] | +- org.springframework:spring-beans:jar:2.0.7:compile [INFO] | +- org.springframework:spring-jmx:jar:2.0.7:compile [INFO] | +- org.springframework:spring-remoting:jar:2.0.7:compile [INFO] | +- org.apache.cxf:cxf-rt-core:jar:2.0.2-incubator:compile [INFO] | | +- org.apache.cxf:cxf-api:jar:2.0.2-incubator:compile [INFO] | | | +- org.apache.geronimo.specs:geronimo-activation_1.1_spec:jar:1.0-M1:compile [INFO] | | | +- org.codehaus.woodstox:wstx-asl:jar:3.2.1:compile [INFO] | | | +- org.apache.neethi:neethi:jar:2.0.2:compile [INFO] | | | \- org.apache.cxf:cxf-common-schemas:jar:2.0.2-incubator:compile UPDATE : I have removed the extra question about "\-" so my question is now what the subject asks for :)

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  • PHP MYSQLI query error?

    - by Chris Leah
    Hey This is my login script, using PHP5 and MYSQLi, I just had help spotting errors in my query, but still it will not let me login, even though the username and password are correct and in the database, it just keeps returning the error: your username and password do not match any in our db. But I know they do lol...could any body spot the problem? //Check if the form has been submitted if (isset($_POST['login'])) { //Check if username and password are empty if ($_POST['username']!='' && $_POST['password']!='') { //Create query to check username and password to database $validate_user = $mysqli->query('SELECT id, username, password, active FROM users WHERE = username = "'.$mysqli->real_escape_string($_POST['username']).'" AND password = "'.$mysqli->real_escape_string(md5($_POST['password'])).'"'); //We check if the query returns true if ($validate_user->num_rows == 1) { $row = $validate_user->fetch_assoc(); //Check if the user has activated there account if ($row['activated'] == 1) { $_SESSION['id'] = $row['id']; $_SESSION['logged_in'] = true; Header('Location: ../main/index.php'); } //Show this error if activation returns as 0 else { $error = '<p class="error">Please activate your account.</p>'; } } //Show this error if the details matched any in the db else { $error = '<p class="error">Your username and password are not in our database!</p>'; } } //Show this error if the username and password field have not been entered else { $error = '<p class="error">Please enter your username and password.</p>'; } }

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  • A question about paypal IPN

    - by user304828
    i download sample code from https://cms.paypal.com/cms_content/US/en_US/files/developer/nvp_DoDirectPayment_php.txt run and get TIMESTAMP=2010%2d05%2d11T04%3a42%3a06Z&CORRELATIONID=ac15852d1e958&ACK=Failure&VERSION=51%2e0&BUILD=1268624&L_ERRORCODE0=10002&L_SHORTMESSAGE0=Security%20error&L_LONGMESSAGE0=Security%20header%20is%20not%20valid&L_SEVERITYCODE0=Error' (length=233) what is problem ? api username ? api pass ? signature or anything else ? this infor i fill in source code: // Set request-specific fields. $paymentType = urlencode('Authorization'); // or 'Sale' $firstName = urlencode('Nguyen'); $lastName = urlencode('Quang Trung'); $creditCardType = urlencode('Visa'); $creditCardNumber = urlencode(' 4111111111111111'); $expDateMonth = '04'; // Month must be padded with leading zero $padDateMonth = urlencode(str_pad($expDateMonth, 2, '0', STR_PAD_LEFT)); $expDateYear = urlencode('2015'); $cvv2Number = urlencode('5360 '); $address1 = urlencode('ha noi'); $address2 = urlencode('hcm'); $city = urlencode('ha noi'); $state = urlencode('ha noi state'); $zip = urlencode('84'); $country = urlencode('viet nam'); // US or other valid country code $amount = urlencode('900'); $currencyID = urlencode('USD'); // or other currency ('GBP', 'EUR', 'JPY', 'CAD', 'AUD')

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  • YUI 3 programmatically fire change event

    - by Jasie
    Hi all, I was wondering how to programmatically fire a change event with YUI3 -- I added a change listener to one select box node: Y.get('#mynode').on('change', function(e) { Alert(“changed me”); }); and somewhere else in the script want to fire that event. It works, of course, when a user changes the select box value in the browser. But I've tried many ways to fire it programmatically, none of which have worked. Including: // All below give this error: T[X] is not a function (referring to what's called in .invoke(), // in the minified javascript Y.get('#mynode').invoke('onchange'); Y.get('#mynode').invoke('change'); Y.get('#mynode').invoke('on','change'); Y.get('#mynode').invoke("on('change')"); /* Tried using .fire() which I found here: * http://developer.yahoo.com/yui/3/api/EventTarget.html#method_fire * Nothing happens */ Y.get('#mynode').fire('change'); /* Looking around the APIs some more, I found node-event-simulate.js: * http://developer.yahoo.com/yui/3/api/node-event-simulate.js.html, * which by its name would seem to have what I want. I tried: * Error: simulate(): Event 'change' can't be simulated. * ( (function(){var I={},B=new Date().getTim...if(B.isObject(G)){if(B.isArray(G)){E=1;\n) */ Y.get('#mynode').simulate('change'); Any help would be appreciated!

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  • NHibernate HiLo generation and SQL 2005/8 Schemas

    - by Kirk Clawson
    I have an issue on my hands that I've spent several days searching for an answer to no avail... We're using HiLo Id generation, and everything seems to be working fine, as long as the entity table is in the same schema as the hibernate_unique_key table. The table structure is pretty simple. I have my hi value table in the db as dbo.hibernate_unique_key. Several entity table are also in the dbo schema, and they work without issue. Then we have tables under the "Contact" schema (such as Contact.Person and Contact.Address). In the Person Mapping file: <class name="Person" table="Person" schema="Contact"> <id name="Id" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="hilo"> <param name="max_lo">100</param> </generator> </id> ... When I try to insert a Person entity, I get an error of "Invalid object name 'Contact.hibernate_unique_key'. That error is certainly clear enough. So I add: <param name="schema">dbo</param> to my mapping file/generator element. Now, when the SessionFactory is built, I get a "An item with the same key has already been added." error. So now I'm a bit stuck. I can't leave the HiLo generator without a schema, because it picks up the schema from the Class, and I can't specify the schema because it's already been added (presumably because it's my "default_schema" as identified in my XML cfg file). Am I completely hosed here? Must I either A) Keep all my tables in the dbo schema or B) Create a separate HiLo Key table for each unique schema in the DB? Neither of those scenarios is particularly palatable for my application, so I'm hoping that I can "fix" my mapping files to address this issue.

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  • C# unit test code questions continue

    - by 5YrsLaterDBA
    more questions after questions in here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2714073/c-unit-test-code-questions I found the VS unit test testframe treat private and protected method in the same way but deferent with public method. The following is the generated code for a private method: /// <summary> ///A test for recordLogin ///</summary> [TestMethod()] [DeploymentItem("SystemSoftware.exe")] public void recordLoginTest() { User_Accessor target = new User_Accessor(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value Guid userId = new Guid(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value string action = string.Empty; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value Users user = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value AndeDBEntities db = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value bool expected = false; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value bool actual; actual = target.recordLogin(userId, action, user, db); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); Assert.Inconclusive("Verify the correctness of this test method."); } questions: [DeploymentItem("SystemSoftware.exe")] is for private and protected methods, why needs it and what is it for? In my original class/file, if I point to the original method and try to "Find All References". The reference in the unit test class/file will not show up for private and protected methods but it will show up for all public methods. Why is that? Is it right? 3.

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  • jQuery: loading reCaptcha into a div via ajax

    - by abdullah kahraman
    Hello, I want to create a form that has a div with id "captcha". When the user enters a wrong password, following code is generated in "login.php" $myCaptcha=recaptcha_get_html($publickey, $error); $xml="<captcha><![CDATA[".$myCaptcha ."]]></captcha>"; echo $xml; recaptcha_get_html($publickey, $error); generates this: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.google.com/recaptcha/api/challenge?k=xxxx"></script> <noscript> <iframe src="http://www.google.com/recaptcha/api/noscript?k=xxxx" height="300" width="500" frameborder="0"></iframe><br/> <textarea name="recaptcha_challenge_field" rows="3" cols="40"></textarea> <input type="hidden" name="recaptcha_response_field" value="manual_challenge"/> </noscript> I want to get this code with $.post() and insert it into div "captcha". Doing something like this: $.post("login.php", {requestCaptcha:"yes"}, function(returned){ $("#captcha").html($(returned).text(),"xml"); }); In IE, it does nothing. In Chrome, it clears up whole page and there is only the called reCaptcha script working like a charm. Any ideas?

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  • Can't submit new object to WCF DataService because of Primary Key constraint

    - by Rob
    I've got a SQL database that uses Guid's for PK's and upon insert, it generates a NewId(). I have an EF data context setup pointing to that database with the primary keys setup with the Entity key:true, Setter:private and StoreGeneratedPattern:Identity because I want the DB to manage the keys and not have code set the PK property. I have an OData (System.Web.Data.Services.DataService) endpoint to access this data (just like: Hanselman did. I have another app that has a service reference to this service. Upon trying to create a new object from this reference (i.e. Product), the ProductId Primary Key is being defaulted to Guid.Empty when doing var serviceEntities = new ServiceEntities(serviceUri); //OData endpoint var product = new Product(); product.Name = "New Product"; serviceEntities.AddToProducts(product); serviceEntities.SaveChanges(); // error happens here When debugging, I look at the Product.ProductId property and it's set to Guid.Empty. When called SaveChanges, I do not want the ProductId field to be sent to the service. The response I get is: Error processing request stream. Property 'ProductId' is a read-only property and cannot be updated. Please make sure that this property is not present in the request payload. Is there a way to do this or what can I do to get this setup correctly and still have the DB generated the keys. Here is the same setup as the Product example above.

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  • SmtpClient.SendAsync - How to ensure my application doesn't finish before callback?

    - by James
    Hi, I need to send emails asychronously through a console application. I need to do some DB updates on the callback but my application is exiting before the callback code gets run! How can I stop this from happening in a nice manner rather than simply guessing how long to wait before exiting. I would imagine the Async calls get placed in some form of thread? Is it possible to check if any are waiting to be called? Sample Code private static void SendCompletedCallback(object sender, AsyncCompletedEventArgs e) { // Get the unique identifier for this asynchronous operation. String token = (string) e.UserState; if (e.Cancelled) { Console.WriteLine("[{0}] Send canceled.", token); } if (e.Error != null) { Console.WriteLine("[{0}] {1}", token, e.Error.ToString()); } else { // update DB Console.WriteLine("Message sent."); } } public static void Main(string[] args) { var users = Repository.GetUsers(); SmtpClient client = new SmtpClient("Host"); client.SendCompleted += new SendCompletedEventHandler(SendCompletedCallback); MailAddress from = new MailAddress("[email protected]", "System", Encoding.UTF8); foreach (var user in users) { MailAddress to = new MailAddress(user.Email); MailMessage message = new MailMessage(from, to); message.Body = "This is a test"; message.BodyEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; message.Subject = "test message 1" + someArrows; message.SubjectEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; string userState = String.Format("Message for user id {0}", user.ID); client.SendAsync(message, userState); message.Dispose(); } // need to wait here until I have received a callback for each message // otherwise the application will exit }

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  • Eclipse PDE - Plug-in, Feature, and Product Versioning

    - by Michael
    I am having much confusion over the process of upgrading version numbers in dependent plug-ins, features, and products in a fairly large eclipse workspace. I have made API changes to java code residing in an existing plug-in and thus requires an increase of the Major part of the version identifier. This plug-in serves as a dependency to a given feature, where the feature is later included in a product. From the documentation at http://wiki.eclipse.org/Version_Numbering, I understand (for the most part) when the proper number should be increased on the containing plug-in itself. However, how would this Major version number change on the plug-in affect dependent, "down-the-line" items (e.g., features, products)? For example, assume we have the typical "Hello World" setup as follows: Plug-in: com.example.helloworld, version 1.0.0 Feature: com.example.helloworld.feature, version 1.0.0 Product: com.example.helloworld.product, version 1.0.0 If I were to make an API change in the plug-in, this would require a version update to be that of 2.0.0. What would then be the version of the feature, 1.1.0? The same question can be applied for the product level as well (e.g., if the feature is 1.1.0 OR 2.0.0, what is the product version number)? I'm sure this is quite the newbie question so I apologize for wasting anyone's time and effort. I have searched for this type of content but all I am finding is are examples showing how to develop a plug-in, feature, product, and update site for the first time. The only other content related to my search has been developing feature patches and have not touched on the versioning aspect as much as I would prefer. I am having difficulty coming into (for the first time) an Eclipse RCP / PDE environment and need to learn the proper way and / or best practices for making such versioning updates and how to best reflect this throughout other dependent projects in the workspace.

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  • Multimedia files written over WAN are getting truncated

    - by Dean
    I use the windows Multimedia API to create .wav files. 1. Open file with mmsioOpen 2. Creates WAVE,frm and data chunks using mmioCreateChunk 3. Write audio data using mmioWrite 4. Ascend out of the chunks using mmioAscend 5. Close file using mmioClose The file is being written into a temporary location, so after it has been closed it gets copied to another location using the CopyFile. This program is written in C++ and works great until the file it is writing resides over a WAN in a different city or country. The end result is a wav file that should be 20-30 seconds long ends up being 4 secodns long. It is always the last bit that is missing, so when you play it back it just stops before then of the recording. I initially thought that maybe I was copying the file too soon so as a test I put in a pause of 30 seconds after closing the file using Sleep(30000), but this made no difference to either it being truncated or by how much. I have modified the program to write to a file in parrallel using CreateFile and WriteFile, and the result is the same, so it is not an issue specifically with the mmio API's. Does anyone have any ideas why this is happening and if there is a work-around to it? I suspect that I may end up having the temporary location on the local drive, but this is quite a big change to the application as well as existing deployments. thanks for everyones time Dean

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  • Sysdeo Tomcat DevLoader - Hot deploy of java class causes whole application to restart

    - by Gala101
    Hi, I am using sysdeo tomcat plugin 3.2.1 with eclipse 3.5.1 (Galileo) and tomcat 5.5.23 on windows XP. I can get tomcat plugin working in eclipse, and have extracted devloader.zip into [tomcat]\server\classes. I have also updated the context and now it has this entry: <Context path="/myapp1" reloadable="true" docBase="F:\Work\eclipse_workspace\myapp1" workDir="F:\Work\eclipse_workspace\myapp1\work" > <Logger className="org.apache.catalina.logger.SystemOutLogger" verbosity="4" timestamp="true"/> <Loader className="org.apache.catalina.loader.DevLoader" reloadable="true" debug="1" useSystemClassLoaderAsParent="false" /> </Context> I have activated devloader (in Project Properties Tomcat Devloader Classpath) and have 'checked' all my classes and jars, I haven't 'checked' commons-loggin.jar jsp-api.jar, servlet-api.jar. So on launching tomcat via the plugin, I can get it running with devloader as shown in eclipse console view [DevLoader] Starting DevLoader [DevLoader] projectdir=F:\Work\eclipse_workspace\myapp1 [DevLoader] added file:/F:/Work/eclipse_workspace/myapp1/WEB-INF/classes/ [DevLoader] added file:/F:/Work/eclipse_workspace/myapp1/WEB-INF/lib/activation.jar However, if I even add a single System.out.println into any java file and save it, the whole application gets reloaded (takes ~80 sec) which is as good as stopping/starting tomcat itself. I've tried adding -Xdebug in JAVA_OPTS in the catalina.bat but no luck :( Can you please guide where I may be doing it wrong.. Please note that I can 'redeploy' the whole application on tomcat but that's not what I need, I am looking to be able to make small changes in java classes 'on-the-fly' while coding/debugging without having to wait for complete app restart. Another annoyance is that restarting tomcat/application causes the session/debug progress to be lost.. Can you please guide me how to go about it. PS: I am not using any ant/maven scripts explicitly, just relying on eclipse to do the build for me (which it does).

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  • What does the \- mean in the mvn dependency tree output

    - by Calm Storm
    Hi, I tried doing a mvn dependency:tree and I get a tree of dependencies. The output looks like below. I want to know what is the "-" symbol that is shown at times and the "+-" symbol for other dependencies (it doesnt seem to be the scope) My actual question is, My project depends on many modules which internally depends on many spring artifacts. There are a few version clashes. I want to upgrade all spring related libraries to say the latest one (2.6.x or above). What is the preferred way to do this? Should I declare all the deps spring-context, spring-support (and 10 other artifacts) in my pom.xml and point them to 2.6.x ? Is there any other better method ? [INFO] +- com.xxxx:yyy-jar:jar:1.0-SNAPSHOT:compile [INFO] | +- com.xxxx:zzz-commons:jar:1.0-SNAPSHOT:compile [INFO] | | +- org.springframework:spring-dao:jar:2.0.7:compile [INFO] | | +- org.springframework:spring-jdbc:jar:2.0.7:compile [INFO] | | +- org.springframework:spring-web:jar:2.0.7:compile [INFO] | | +- org.springframework:spring-support:jar:2.0.7:compile [INFO] | | +- net.sf.ehcache:ehcache:jar:1.2:compile [INFO] | | +- commons-collections:commons-collections:jar:3.2:compile [INFO] | | +- aspectj:aspectjweaver:jar:1.5.3:compile [INFO] | | +- betex-commons:betex-commons:jar:5.5.1-2:compile [INFO] | | \- javax.servlet:servlet-api:jar:2.4:compile [INFO] | +- org.springframework:spring-beans:jar:2.0.7:compile [INFO] | +- org.springframework:spring-jmx:jar:2.0.7:compile [INFO] | +- org.springframework:spring-remoting:jar:2.0.7:compile [INFO] | +- org.apache.cxf:cxf-rt-core:jar:2.0.2-incubator:compile [INFO] | | +- org.apache.cxf:cxf-api:jar:2.0.2-incubator:compile [INFO] | | | +- org.apache.geronimo.specs:geronimo-activation_1.1_spec:jar:1.0-M1:compile [INFO] | | | +- org.codehaus.woodstox:wstx-asl:jar:3.2.1:compile [INFO] | | | +- org.apache.neethi:neethi:jar:2.0.2:compile [INFO] | | | \- org.apache.cxf:cxf-common-schemas:jar:2.0.2-incubator:compile

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  • Adapting existing HTML/Javascript model to Titanium's latest release (v 0.9)

    - by Alan Neal
    In pre-0.9 versions of Titanium, one could simply specify an .html file (local or remote) in the tiapp.xml file and interact with it in the same manner as one would on a website. As of version 0.9, that is no the longer case. One creates their entire app dynamically. Unfortunately, this broke my previous implementation and, other than an updated Kitchen Sink, much of the new model and API calls are not covered in the documentation (e.g., createLabel). So, my question is this... What are the simplest steps for re-creating the previous effect (knowingly forgoing some of the advantages of the Titanium's latest approach if necessary)? My previous implementation was exactly as it functions on the website. The website has a single index.html file with no content other than links to JavaScript and style files. The document body's onload event called the first JavaScript function (located in the main script) and, from that point forth, the entire content was dynamically created. How can I set up the latest version of Titanium so that I am poised to do the exact same thing? BTW: Whereas I previously had the choice to keep the files local or remote, I don't believe that remote access (e.g., simply using the webView widget to point to the website) is viable. That's because pages displayed via the webView do not have access to most of the API. Since the iPhone and Safari browsers do not support the file input type, the only means for uploading files (something my app requires) is calling Titanium's function. Thanks in advance.

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  • How do I pass a callback function to sqlite3_exec on iOS 5.1?

    - by John Doh
    I am new to both xcode/iOS/Objective-C and sqlite. I am trying to teach myself the basics - and I would like to use the sqlite3 wrapper "sqlite3_exec" for a select query. For some reason, I can't find a simple example anywhere of someone doing this. Basically, the method has a parameter (the third one) for a callback function: int sqlite3_exec( sqlite3*, /* An open database */ const char *sql, /* SQL to be evaluated */ int (*callback)(void*,int,char**,char**), /* Callback function */ void *, /* 1st argument to callback */ char **errmsg /* Error msg written here */ ); That's fine. I'm no stranger to callbacks. However, I just can't seem to get the syntax down right. I took over one of the view controllers in my iPad (iOS 5.1) xcode (4.3) project, and made the changes shown below: #import "SecondViewController.h" #import "sqlite3.h" #import "AppState.h" @interface SecondViewController () @end @implementation SecondViewController - (int)myCallback:(void *)a_parm argc:(int)argc argv:(char **)argv column:(char **)column { return 0; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // Do any additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. //grab questionnaire names char *sql = "select * from QST2Main order by [Name]"; char *err = nil; sqlite3 *db = [[AppState sharedManager] getgCn]; sqlite3_exec(db, sql, myCallback, nil, &err); } Essentially, I want to run a query when this view first loads, to store some data for later use. But, XCode doesn't like the "myCallback" usage at the bottom there. It says: Undeclared Use of Identifier 'myCallback.' That method is declared in the header file, and I've even tried making it static. Nothing seems to make this error go away. I know I must be doing something fundamentally wrong here, but for the life of me I can't figure out what - I can't even find other code samples in this area that could help me figure out what I'm missing. Many thanks!

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  • Distance between Long Lat coord using SQLITE

    - by munchine
    I've got an sqlite db with long and lat of shops and I want to find out the closest 5 shops. So the following code works fine. if(sqlite3_prepare_v2(db, sqlStatement, -1, &compiledStatement, NULL) == SQLITE_OK) { while (sqlite3_step(compiledStatement) == SQLITE_ROW) { NSString *branchStr = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(compiledStatement, 0)]; NSNumber *fLat = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:(float)sqlite3_column_double(compiledStatement, 1)]; NSNumber *fLong = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:(float)sqlite3_column_double(compiledStatement, 2)]; NSLog(@"Address %@, Lat = %@, Long = %@", branchStr, fLat, fLong); CLLocation *location1 = [[CLLocation alloc] initWithLatitude:currentLocation.coordinate.latitude longitude:currentLocation.coordinate.longitude]; CLLocation *location2 = [[CLLocation alloc] initWithLatitude:[fLat floatValue] longitude:[fLong floatValue]]; NSLog(@"Distance i meters: %f", [location1 getDistanceFrom:location2]); [location1 release]; [location2 release]; } } I know the distance from where I am to each shop. My question is. Is it better to put the distance back into the sqlite row, I have the row when I step thru the database. How do I do that? Do I use the UPDATE statement? Does someone have a piece of code to help me. I can read the sqlite into an array and then sort the array. Do you recommend this over the above approach? Is this more efficient? Finally, if someone has a better way to get the closest 5 shops, love to hear it.

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  • pass username and password to get-credential or run sql query without using invoke-sqlcmd in Powersh

    - by Emo
    I am trying to connect to a remote sql database and simply run the "select @@servername" query in Powershell. I'm trying to do this without using integrated security. I've been struggling with "get-credential" and "invoke-sqlcmd", only to find (I think), that you can't pass the password from "get-credential" to another Powershell cmdlets. Here's the code I'm using: add-pssnapin sqlserverprovidersnapin100 add-pssnapin sqlservercmdletsnapin100 load assemblies [Reflection.Assembly]::Load("Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo, Version=9.0.242.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=89845dcd8080cc91") [Reflection.Assembly]::Load("Microsoft.SqlServer.SqlEnum, Version=9.0.242.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=89845dcd8080cc91") [Reflection.Assembly]::Load("Microsoft.SqlServer.SmoEnum, Version=9.0.242.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=89845dcd8080cc91") [Reflection.Assembly]::Load("Microsoft.SqlServer.ConnectionInfo, Version=9.0.242.0, Culture=neutral,PublicKeyToken=89845dcd8080cc91") connect to SQL Server $serverName = "HLSQLSRV03" $server = New-Object -typeName Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.Server -argumentList $serverName login using SQL authentication $server.ConnectionContext.LoginSecure=$false; $credential = Get-Credential $userName = $credential.UserName -replace("\","") $pass = $credential.Password $server.ConnectionContext.set_Login($userName) $server.ConnectionContext.set_SecurePassword($credential.Password) $DB = "Master" invoke-sqlcmd -query "select @@Servername" -database $DB -serverinstance $servername -username $username -password $pass If if just hardcode the password in at the end of the "invoke-sqlcmd" line, it works. Is this because you can't use "get-credential" with "invoke-sqlcmd"? If so...what are my alternatives? Thanks so much for you help Emo

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  • pattern matching in .Net consistent with IsolatedStorageFile.GetFileNames() pattern matching

    - by Mick N
    Is the pattern matching logic used by this API exposed for reuse somewhere in the .Net Framework? Something of the form FilePatternMatch( string searchPattern, stringfileNameToTest ) is what I'm looking for. I'm implementing a temporary workaround for WP7 not filtering the results for this overload and I'd like the solution to both provide a consistent experience and avoid reinventing this functionality if it is exposed. If the behaviour is not exposed for reuse, a regular expression solution (like glob pattern matching in .NET) will suffice and would save me spending the time to test the fine details of what the behaviour should be. Perhaps one of the answers posted in the thread linked above is correct. Since I haven't confirmed the exact behaviour as yet, I wasn't able to determine this at a glance. Feel free to point me to one of those answers if you know it is behaviouraly an exact match to the API referenced in the question title. I could assume the pattern matching is consistent with how DOS handled * and ? in 8.3 file names (I'm familiar with behavioural nuances of that implementation), but it's reasonable to assume Microsoft has evolved pattern matching behaviour for file names in the decade+ since so I thought I would check before proceeding on that assumption.

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  • Execute remote Lua Script

    - by Bruno Lee
    Hi, I want to make an application that executes a remote script. The user can create a script (probabily a LUA script) then stores it in the server. Then he can uses an API for execute the script. I was thinking that API could be a webservice. So my questions are: I need high performance to execute the script. So my first choice was LUA script. Someone has another sugestion? Cause I need high perfomance, I was thinking if the webservice is the best solution. Maybe I could create a TCP/IP Windows Service that hold the users request. It is important to say that I will have many user executing scripts at the same time. So I will have a concurrency problem. My scripts will query in a database. I will use Tokyo Cabinet or Tokio Tyrant. I think Tokio Tyrant is the only solution cause I will have many requests. For perfomance, Do I need to make a connection pooling? Is there anyway to share variables between webservices requests? To make the webservice or the Windows service i was thinking to use C++. Can someone help with these questions? thanks

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  • Databinding problem in dropdownlist box by generics in C#

    - by sakir-ali
    I want to implement stack in my program by Genericx. I have a textbox and button to add elements in stack, a dropdownlist box and a button to bind total stack in dropdownlist box. I have generic class and the code is below: [Serializable] public class myGenClass<T> { private T[] _elements; private int _pointer; public myGenClass(int size) { _elements = new T[size]; _pointer = 0; } public void Push(T item) { if (_pointer > _elements.Length - 1) { throw new Exception("Stack is full"); } _elements[_pointer] = item; _pointer++; } public T Pop() { _pointer--; if (_pointer < 0) { throw new Exception("Stack is empty"); } return _elements[_pointer]; } public T[] myBind() { T[] showall = new T[_pointer]; Array.Copy(_elements,showall, _pointer); T[] newarray = showall; Array.Reverse(showall); return showall; } } and my .cs page is below: public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { myGenClass<int> mystack = new myGenClass<int>(25); protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { mystack.Push(Int32.Parse(TextBox1.Text)); //DropDownList1.Items.Add(mystack.Pop().ToString()); TextBox1.Text = string.Empty; TextBox1.Focus(); } protected void Button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //string[] db; //db = Array.ConvertAll<int, string>(mystack.myBind(), Convert.ToString); DropDownList1.DataSource = mystack.myBind(); DropDownList1.DataBind(); } } but when I bind the datasource property of dropdownlist box to generic type return array (i.e. myBind()), it shows empty... Please help..

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  • How to tell what name RIA Services/EF Model uses for Associations?

    - by Nick Gotch
    Hi, I'm working on a C#.NET 3.5 WCF RIA Services app and having an issue with my Entity Framework model. My entity Foo is mapped to a DB table and has a primary key called FooId. My Bar is mapped to a DB view. I've selectively designed this view to generate a composite key in the EF using two of the columns (by making sure they were non-nullable and the others are all nullable. This was done using NULLIF and ISNULL in the view design.) I'm able to add this view to the model with no problem but I keep running into an issue when I try to map an association between the two. Foo should contain many Bars but I keep getting the following error when I add the association: Unable to retrieve AssociationType for association 'FK_Bar_Foo' According to this page, it looks like this might work if I can properly name the association (since RIA Services looks for specific names.) I've tried several variants of names that match the pattern of other associations with no success. Does anyone know if there's a place I can look to find out what name it's looking for? Thanks,

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