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  • preparing SMS app for Android KitKat

    - by Pmsc
    in agreement with the recent post from Android Developers http://android-developers.blogspot.pt/2013/10/getting-your-sms-apps-ready-for-kitkat.html ,I was trying to prepare my app to the new android version, but encountered a problem with the part they suggest to create a dialog to let the user set the app as the default application to handle SMS's : Android Developers Post public class ComposeSmsActivity extends Activity { @Override protected void onResume() { super.onResume(); final String myPackageName = getPackageName(); if (!Telephony.Sms.getDefaultSmsPackage(this).equals(myPackageName)) { // App is not default. // Show the "not currently set as the default SMS app" interface View viewGroup = findViewById(R.id.not_default_app); viewGroup.setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); // Set up a button that allows the user to change the default SMS app Button button = (Button) findViewById(R.id.change_default_app); button.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { Intent intent = new Intent(Telephony.Sms.Intents.ACTION_CHANGE_DEFAULT); intent.putExtra(Telephony.Sms.Intents.EXTRA_PACKAGE_NAME, myPackageName); startActivity(intent); } }); } else { // App is the default. // Hide the "not currently set as the default SMS app" interface View viewGroup = findViewById(R.id.not_default_app); viewGroup.setVisibility(View.GONE); } } } the code itself in pretty much straightforward, but I'm unable to access to Telephony.Sms.getDefaultSmsPackage because it says that Telephony cannot be resolved, and I can't find any import or declaration that would fix that. Can anyone please help? Thanks in advanced.

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  • FluentNHibernate, getting 1 column from another table

    - by puffpio
    We're using FluentNHibernate and we have run into a problem where our object model requires data from two tables like so: public class MyModel { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual int FooId { get; set; } public virtual string FooName { get; set; } } Where there is a MyModel table that has Id, Name, and FooId as a foreign key into the Foo table. The Foo tables contains Id and FooName. This problem is very similar to another post here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1896645/nhibernate-join-tables-and-get-single-column-from-other-table but I am trying to figure out how to do it with FluentNHibernate. I can make the Id, Name, and FooId very easily..but mapping FooName I am having trouble with. This is my class map: public class MyModelClassMap : ClassMap<MyModel> { public MyModelClassMap() { this.Id(a => a.Id).Column("AccountId").GeneratedBy.Identity(); this.Map(a => a.Name); this.Map(a => a.FooId); // my attempt to map FooName but it doesn't work this.Join("Foo", join => join.KeyColumn("FooId").Map(a => a.FooName)); } } with that mapping I get this error: The element 'class' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2' has invalid child element 'join' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2'. List of possible elements expected: 'joined-subclass, loader, sql-insert, sql-update, sql-delete, filter, resultset, query, sql-query' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2'. any ideas?

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  • Editing list properties using DataGridview

    - by toom
    Ok, I have my custom class: public class FileItem : INotifyPropertyChanged { int id=0; string value=""; public int Id { get { return id; } set { id = value; Changed("Id"); } } public string Value { get { return value; } set { this.value = value; Changed("Value"); } } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; void Changed(string name) { if (PropertyChanged != null) PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(name)); } } public BindingList<FileItem> FilesystemEntries = new BindingList<FileItem>(); And I have DatagridView1 with DataSource set to FilesystemEntries: binding.DataSource = FilesystemEntries; Already I can Add and remove rows - these chnages are reflected on collection. However, Value and Id are not saved into bidning list when i change them in DataGridView, id is always 0 and value is "". How can I make this work? Do I need to implement some interface to FileItem to allow editing properties? ReadOnly of DGV is set to false, same to all columns. Editing, Deleting and Changing are enabled.

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  • How to define a "complicated" ComputedColumn in SQL Server?

    - by Slauma
    SQL Server Beginner question: I'm trying to introduce a computed column in SQL Server (2008). In the table designer of SQL Server Management Studio I can do this, but the designer only offers me one single edit cell to define the expression for this column. Since my computed column will be rather complicated (depending on several database fields and with some case differentiations) I'd like to have a more comfortable and maintainable way to enter the column definition (including line breaks for formatting and so on). I've seen there is an option to define functions in SQL Server (scalar value or table value functions). Is it perhaps better to define such a function and use this function as the column specification? And what kind of function (scalar value, table value)? To make a simplified example: I have two database columns: DateTime1 (smalldatetime, NULL) DateTime2 (smalldatetime, NULL) Now I want to define a computed column "Status" which can have four possible values. In Dummy language: if (DateTime1 IS NULL and DateTime2 IS NULL) set Status = 0 else if (DateTime1 IS NULL and DateTime2 IS NOT NULL) set Status = 1 else if (DateTime1 IS NOT NULL and DateTime2 IS NULL) set Status = 2 else set Status = 3 Ideally I would like to have a function GetStatus() which can access the different column values of the table row which I want to compute the value of "Status" for, and then only define the computed column specification as GetStatus() without parameters. Is that possible at all? Or what is the best way to work with "complicated" computed column definitions? Thank you for tips in advance!

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  • Using CSS max-height on an outer div to force scroll on an inner-div.

    - by Jay Neely
    I have an outer div with a variable height (and max-height) that's set with a specific pixel amount by JavaScript, containing two divs within. The 1st div is intended to hold a variable amount of content, e.g. a list of links. It has no height set. The 2nd div is intended to hold a fixed amount of content, and has a specific height set. Right now, the max-height isn't working. The 1st div keeps growing, even with overflow: auto; set, and pushes the 2nd div below it outside the bounds of the outer div. How can I make it so that when the 1st div gets too large for the outer div to contain both it and the fixed-height 2nd div, the 1st div will start to scroll? Example page: http://thevastdesign.com/scrollTest.html Thanks for any help. I'd appreciate a CSS solution the most, even if it requires some hacks. It only has to work in Firefox 3+, IE8, and IE7. Ideas?

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  • Fluent NHibernate Map to private/protected Field that has no exposing Property

    - by Jon Erickson
    I have the following Person and Gender classes (I don't really, but the example is simplified to get my point across), using NHibernate (Fluent NHibernate) I want to map the Database Column "GenderId" [INT] value to the protected int _genderId field in my Person class. How do I do this? FYI, the mappings and the domain objects are in separate assemblies. public class Person : Entity { protected int _genderId; public virtual int Id { get; private set; } public virtual string Name { get; private set; } public virtual Gender Gender { get { return Gender.FromId(_genderId); } } } public class Gender : EnumerationBase<Gender> { public static Gender Male = new Gender(1, "Male"); public static Gender Female = new Gender(2, "Female"); private static readonly Gender[] _genders = new[] { Male, Female }; private Gender(int id, string name) { Id = id; Name = name; } public int Id { get; private set; } public string Name { get; private set; } public static Gender FromId(int id) { return _genders.Where(x => x.Id == id).SingleOrDefault(); } }

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  • How to use VBA to colour pie chart

    - by Timon Heinomann
    I have the following code in which the code tries to create a bubble chart with pie charts as the bubbles. As in this version colour themes are used to create a different colour in each pie chart (bulbble) in the function part I have the problem that it works depending on the paths to the colour paletts. Is there an easy way to make the function in a way that it works independently of those paths either by coding a colour for each pie chart segment or by using standardize paths (probably not possible, not preferable). Sub PieMarkers() Dim chtMarker As Chart Dim chtMain As Chart Dim intPoint As Integer Dim rngRow As Range Dim lngPointIndex As Long Dim thmColor As Long Dim myTheme As String Application.ScreenUpdating = False Set chtMarker = ActiveSheet.ChartObjects("chtMarker").Chart Set chtMain = ActiveSheet.ChartObjects("chtMain").Chart Set chtMain = ActiveSheet.ChartObjects("chtMain").Chart Set rngRow = Range(ThisWorkbook.Names("PieChartValues").RefersTo) For Each rngRow In Range("PieChartValues").Rows chtMarker.SeriesCollection(1).Values = rngRow ThisWorkbook.Theme.ThemeColorScheme.Load GetColorScheme(thmColor) chtMarker.Parent.CopyPicture xlScreen, xlPicture lngPointIndex = lngPointIndex + 1 chtMain.SeriesCollection(1).Points(lngPointIndex).Paste thmColor = thmColor + 1 Next lngPointIndex = 0 Application.ScreenUpdating = True End Sub Function GetColorScheme(i As Long) As String Const thmColor1 As String = "C:\Program Files\Microsoft Office\Document Themes 15\Theme Colors\Blue Green.xml" Const thmColor2 As String = "C:\Program Files\Microsoft Office\Document Themes 15\Theme Colors\Orange Red.xml" Select Case i Mod 2 Case 0 GetColorScheme = thmColor1 Case 1 GetColorScheme = thmColor2 End Select End Function The code copies a single chart again and again on the bubbles. So I woudl like to alter the Function (now called Get colourscheme) into a fucntion that assigns a a unqiue rgb colour to each segment of each pie chart

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  • Mail "Can't continue" for a AppleScript function

    - by Paul J. Lucas
    I'm trying to write an AppleScript for use with Mail (on Snow Leopard) to save image attachments of messages to a folder. The main part of the AppleScript is: property ImageExtensionList : {"jpg", "jpeg"} property PicturesFolder : path to pictures folder as text property SaveFolderName : "Fetched" property SaveFolder : PicturesFolder & SaveFolderName tell application "Mail" set theMessages to the selection repeat with theMessage in theMessages repeat with theAttachment in every mail attachment of theMessage set attachmentFileName to theAttachment's name if isImageFileName(attachmentFileName) then set attachmentPathName to SaveFolder & attachmmentFileName save theAttachment in getNonexistantFile(attachmentPathName) end if end repeat end repeat end tell on isImageFileName(theFileName) set dot to offset of "." in theFileName if dot > 0 then set theExtension to text (dot + 1) thru -1 of theFileName return theExtension is in ImageExtensionList end if return false end isImageFileName When run, I get the error: error "Mail got an error: Can’t continue isImageFileName." number -1708 where error -1708 is: Event wasnt handled by an Apple event handler. However, if I copy/paste the isImageFileName() into another script like: property imageExtensionList : {"jpg", "jpeg"} on isImageFileName(theFileName) set dot to offset of "." in theFileName if dot > 0 then set theExtension to text (dot + 1) thru -1 of theFileName return theExtension is in ImageExtensionList end if return false end isImageFileName if isImageFileName("foo.jpg") then return true else return false end if it works fine. Why does Mail complain about this?

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  • IEnumerable.Cast not calling cast overload

    - by Martin Neal
    I'm not understanding something about the way .Cast works. I have an explicit (though implicit also fails) cast defined which seems to work when I use it "regularly", but not when I try to use .Cast. Why? Here is some compilable code that demonstrates my problem. public class Class1 { public string prop1 { get; set; } public int prop2 { get; set; } public static explicit operator Class2(Class1 c1) { return new Class2() { prop1 = c1.prop1, prop2 = c1.prop2 }; } } public class Class2 { public string prop1 { get; set; } public int prop2 { get; set; } } void Main() { Class1[] c1 = new Class1[] { new Class1() {prop1 = "asdf",prop2 = 1}}; //works Class2 c2 = (Class2)c1[0]; //doesn't work: Compiles, but throws at run-time //InvalidCastException: Unable to cast object of type 'Class1' to type 'Class2'. Class2 c3 = c1.Cast<Class2>().First(); }

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  • Ajax UpdatePanels SetFocus issue

    - by George
    I set the AutoPostback property of a textbox to True so I can process the TextChanged event on the server and, based on what they typed in the textbox, appropriately display a message in an update panel. The problem is, when the partial screen refresh is performed, no control on the screen has focus. 99% of the time, when the text in the textbox is changed, it is because the user has tabbed forward, and so, to limit the disruption in the lost of focus, I perform a "Focus" call on teh next control in the tab sequence. For the most part, this works OK, but of course, is disputive if the user is tabbing in the reverse order or has used the mouse to set the focus to another control. In these situations, the focus would be set to the next control even though the user was trying to set focus elsewhere. OK, that sucks. Now what I consider the bigger problem with calling the focus method on the server: In IE, it works OK, but in Mozilla Firefox and Chrome, setting the focus causes a repositioning of the scroll bar, even though none is necessary because the control is already in view. I realize that I could switch to doing AJAX web service calls, but these darn Updae Panels are so convenient if used in moderation. is there anyway to use updatepanels and not have these focus/scroll issues?

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  • Auto-implemented getters and setters vs. public fields

    - by tclem
    I see a lot of example code for C# classes that does this: public class Point { public int x { get; set; } public int y { get; set; } } Or, in older code, the same with an explicit private backing value and without the new auto-implemented properties: public class Point { private int _x; private int _y; public int x { get { return _x; } set { _x = value; } } public int y { get { return _y; } set { _y = value; } } } My question is why. Is there any functional difference between doing the above and just making these members public fields, like below? public class Point { public int x; public int y; } To be clear, I understand the value of getters and setters when you need to do some translation of the underlying data. But in cases where you're just passing the values through, it seems needlessly verbose.

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  • Login problem with php

    - by shinod
    I want to prevent multiple log in with same log in credentials simultaneously. So I made a column login_status and set it to 1 when some one logging in and change to 0 when logging out besides I set session after successful logged in. If user won't click on log out(in case of user close tab or because of some network problem) it doesn't update database and then one can't use that log in credentials again. So I use a ajax call to set current time stamp in database with related log in credentials and it is updated in each 2 minutes if user not navigate from that page. Then if some one attempts to log in with same log in credentials, it will check these time stamp if column login_status is 1, then if the time stamp is older than 3 minutes it allows the log in.Then it solving that problem. But the new problem is if user closes the tab or browser window and after 3 minutes one can log in with same log in credentials from somewhere and if the previous user open that page automatically it will log in as session is already set. How can I prevent this.

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  • Algorithm for optimally choosing actions to perform a task

    - by Jules
    There are two data types: tasks and actions. An action costs a certain time to complete, and a set of tasks this actions consists of. A task has a set of actions, and our job is to choose one of them. So: class Task { Set<Action> choices; } class Action { float time; Set<Task> dependencies; } For example the primary task could be "Get a house". The possible actions for this task: "Buy a house" or "Build a house". The action "Build a house" costs 10 hours and has the dependencies "Get bricks" and "Get cement", etcetera. The total time is the sum of all the times of the actions required to perform. We want to choose actions such that the total time is minimal. Note that the dependencies can be diamond shaped. For example "Get bricks" could require "Get a car" (to transport the bricks) and "Get cement" would also require a car. Even if you do "Get bricks" and "Get cement" you only have to count the time it takes to get a car once. Note also that the dependencies can be circular. For example "Money" - "Job" - "Car" - "Money". This is no problem for us, we simply select all of "Money", "Job" and "Car". The total time is simply the sum of the time of these 3 things. Mathematical description: Let actions be the chosen actions. valid(task) = ?action ? task.choices. (action ? actions ? ?tasks ? action.dependencies. valid(task)) time = sum {action.time | action ? actions} minimize time subject to valid(primaryTask)

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  • Extract 2 numbers preceded with two different strings in a paragrapf using TCL Regular Expression

    - by Madhu
    Hi, I need to extract two different numbers preceded by two different strings. Employee Id-- Employee16(I need 16) and Employee links-- Employee links:2 (I need 2). Source String looks like following: Employee16, Employee name is QueenRose Working for 46w0d Billing is Distributed 65537 assigned tasks, 0 reordered, 0 unassigned 0 discarded, 0 lost received, 5/255 load received sequence unavailable, 0xC2E7 sent sequence Employee links: 2 active, 0 inactive (max not set, min not set) Dt3/5/10:0, since 46w0d, no tasks pending Dt3/5/10:10, since 21w0d, no tasks rcvd Employee is currently working in Hardware section. Employee19, Employee name is Edward11 Working for 48w4d Billing is Distributed 206801498 assigned tasks, 0 reordered, 0 unassigned 655372 discarded, 0 lost received, 9/255 load received sequence unavailable, 0x23CA sent sequence Employee links: 7 active, 0 inactive (max not set, min not set) Dt3/5/10:0, since 47w2d, tasks pending Dt3/5/10:10, since 28w6d, no tasks pending Dt3/5/10:11, since 18w4d, no tasks pending Dt3/5/10:12, since 18w4d, no tasks pending Dt3/5/10:13, since 18w4d, no tasks pending Dt3/5/10:14, since 18w4d, no tasks pending Dt3/5/10:15, since 7w2d, no tasks pending Employee is currently working in Hardware sectione. Employee6 (inactive) Employee links: 2 Dt3/5/10:0 (inactive) Dt3/5/10:10 (inactive) Employee7 (inactive) Employee links: 2 Dt3/5/10:0 (inactive) Dt3/5/10:10 (inactive) Tried with the following: Multilink(\d+)[^\n\r]*[^M]*Member links:\s+(\d+) But is not listing all the Ids and links. Can anybody help me getting this? Thanks in advance, Madhu.

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  • ASP.NET MVC Conditional validation

    - by Peter Stegnar
    How to use data annotations to do a conditional validation on model? For example, lets say we have the following model (Person and Senior): public class Person { [Required(ErrorMessage = "*")] public string Name { get; set; } public bool IsSenior { get; set; } public Senior Senior { get; set; } } public class Senior { [Required(ErrorMessage = "*")]//this should be conditional validation, based on the "IsSenior" value public string Description { get; set; } } And the following view: <%= Html.EditorFor(m => m.Name)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.Name)%> <%= Html.CheckBoxFor(m => m.IsSenior)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.IsSenior)%> <%= Html.CheckBoxFor(m => m.Senior.Description)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.Senior.Description)%> I would like to be the "Senior.Description" property conditional required field based on the selection of the "IsSenior" propery (true - required). How to implement conditional validation in ASP.NET MVC 2 with data annotations? UPDATE Found nice solution. Look below.

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  • Alpha animation bug on button

    - by RaiderJ
    I have animations that fade in a Button (alpha from 0 to 1) and fade out a button (alpha from 1 to 0). This part is all working fine. Button A triggers the fade in of Button B. Button B triggers the fade out of itself. Button B totally covers up Button A. The idea is that Button B contains an image that is used like an information popup. Button A is touched and Button B fades in on top. When Button B is touched it fades itself out again. Initially, Button B's visibility is set INVISIBLE and when the fade in animation is complete, it is set to VISIBLE. When Button B is clicked it fades out and then I set the visibility to INVISIBLE. The problem is that after Button B has faded out, and it is set INVISIBLE, it is still clickable and even though it is not visible, and touches are not received by Button A. I have tried removing Button B from the parent and re-adding it after the animation is completed, and this allows for touches to reach Button A, but only once. After that button B is not longer touchable.

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  • How to access a TextView element in a BroadcastReceiver

    - by ric03uec
    Hello, I am testing a simple widget in android and using Alarms to update a TextView at regular intervals. The problem is that in the BroadcastReceiver class I cannot access the TextView element, which I want to get updated when the alarm expires. The class is being called properly because the Toast i have put there is giving the appropriate message. The following code is from the class where I configure the widget and set the timers. public void onCreate(Bundle bundle) { super.onCreate(bundle); Intent intent = getIntent(); Bundle extras = intent.getExtras(); if(extras != null){ mWidgetId = extras.getInt(AppWidgetManager.EXTRA_APPWIDGET_ID, AppWidgetManager.INVALID_APPWIDGET_ID); AppWidgetManager appWidgetManager = AppWidgetManager.getInstance(WidgetConfigure.this); RemoteViews views = new RemoteViews(WidgetConfigure.this.getPackageName(), R.layout.widget_layout); views.setTextViewText(R.id.quote, "Widget Loaded From Activity"); appWidgetManager.updateAppWidget(mWidgetId, views); setTimer(); //set the timers... setResult();// set the result... } } Now i want to update the same TextView when the BroadCastReceiver is called after the timer expires. I have tried the code provided in the ExampleAppWidget example provided in android api demos and that isnt working out. How can i set the required text? Thankx in advance

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  • Execute Stored Procedure from Classic ASP

    - by Jaco Pretorius
    For some fantastic reason I find myself debugging a problem in a Classic ASP page (at least 10 years of my life lost in the last 2 days). I'm trying to execute a stored procedure which contains some OUT parameters. The problem is that one of the OUT parameters is not being populated when the stored procedure returns. I can execute the stored proc from SQL management studio (this is 2008) and all the values are being set and returned exactly as expected. declare @inVar1 varchar(255) declare @inVar2 varchar(255) declare @outVar1 varchar(255) declare @outVar2 varchar(255) SET @inVar2 = 'someValue' exec theStoredProc @inVar1 , @inVar2 , @outVar1 OUT, @outVar2 OUT print '@outVar1=' + @outVar1 print '@outVar2=' + @outVar2 Works great. Fantastic. Perfect. The exact values that I'm expecting are being returned and printed out. Right, since I'm trying to debug a Classic ASP page I copied the code into a VBScript file to try and narrow down the problem. Here is what I came up with: Set Conn = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Conn.Open "xxx" Set objCommandSec = CreateObject("ADODB.Command") objCommandSec.ActiveConnection = Conn objCommandSec.CommandType = 4 objCommandSec.CommandText = "theStoredProc " objCommandSec.Parameters.Refresh objCommandSec.Parameters(2) = "someValue" objCommandSec.Execute MsgBox(objCommandSec.Parameters(3)) Doesn't work. Not even a little bit. (Another ten years of my life down the drain) The third parameter is simply NULL - which is what I'm experiencing in the Classic ASP page as well. Could someone shed some light on this? Am I completely daft for thinking that the classic ASP code would be the same as the VBScript code? I think it's using the same scripting engine and syntax so I should be ok, but I'm not 100% sure. The result I'm seeing from my VBScript is the same as I'm seeing in ASP.

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  • SSIS Transaction with Sql Transaction

    - by Mike
    I started with a package to make sure Transactions are working correctly. The package level transaction is set to Required. I have two Execute Sql Task, one deletes rows from a table and one does 1/0, to throw the error. Both task are set to supported transaction level and Serializable IsolationLevel. That works. Now when I replace my two sql task to two separate procedure calls, the first one, ChargeInterest, runs successful but the second one, PaymentProcess, fails always saying. [Execute SQL Task] Error: Executing the query "Exec [proc_xx_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] ..." failed with the following error: "Uncommittable transaction is detected at the end of the batch. The transaction is rolled back.". Possible failure reasons: Problems with the query, "ResultSet" property not set correctly, parameters not set correctly, or connection not established correctly. PaymentProcess being the second stored procedure. Both procedures have there own BEGIN, COMMIT AND ROLLBACKS inside the SP. I believe that the transactions are being successfully handed in the Charge Interest because I can run the following without issues or the dreaded you started with 0 and now have 1 transaction. EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_ChargeInterest] 'NR', 'M', 186, 300 EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] 'NR', 186, 300 --OR GO BEGIN TRAN EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_ChargeInterest] 'NR', 'M', 186, 300 EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] 'NR', 186, 300 ROLLBACK TRAN Now I have noticed that DTC does get kicked off in both instances? Why I am not sure because it is using the same connection. In the live example I can see the transaction get started but disappears if I put a breakpoint on the PreExecute event of the second stored procedure. What is the correct way to mingle SP transactions with SSIS transactions?

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  • help me to choose between two software architecture

    - by alex
    // stupid title, but I could not think anything smarter I have a code (see below, sorry for long code but it's very-very simple): namespace Option1 { class AuxClass1 { string _field1; public string Field1 { get { return _field1; } set { _field1 = value; } } // another fields. maybe many fields maybe several properties public void Method1() { // some action } public void Method2() { // some action 2 } } class MainClass { AuxClass1 _auxClass; public AuxClass1 AuxClass { get { return _auxClass; } set { _auxClass = value; } } public MainClass() { _auxClass = new AuxClass1(); } } } namespace Option2 { class AuxClass1 { string _field1; public string Field1 { get { return _field1; } set { _field1 = value; } } // another fields. maybe many fields maybe several properties public void Method1() { // some action } public void Method2() { // some action 2 } } class MainClass { AuxClass1 _auxClass; public string Field1 { get { return _auxClass.Field1; } set { _auxClass.Field1 = value; } } public void Method1() { _auxClass.Method1(); } public void Method2() { _auxClass.Method2(); } public MainClass() { _auxClass = new AuxClass1(); } } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { // Option1 Option1.MainClass mainClass1 = new Option1.MainClass(); mainClass1.AuxClass.Field1 = "string1"; mainClass1.AuxClass.Method1(); mainClass1.AuxClass.Method2(); // Option2 Option2.MainClass mainClass2 = new Option2.MainClass(); mainClass2.Field1 = "string2"; mainClass2.Method1(); mainClass2.Method2(); Console.ReadKey(); } } What option (option1 or option2) do you prefer ? In which cases should I use option1 or option2 ? Is there any special name for option1 or option2 (composition, aggregation) ?

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  • IBOutlet instances are (null) after loading from NIB

    - by Zach
    I am working on an iPhone app and am getting (null) references to IBOutlet fields in my controller. I have a UIViewController subclass that is set as the File's Owner in my XIB. I have a set of UI elements that are wired into the controller. After loading from NIB and attempting to set properties on those UI elements, I find that they are (null). To clarify, some code: ExpandSearchPageController.h: @interface ExpandSearchPageController : UIViewController { IBOutlet UITextView * completeMessageView; } -(void)checkTextField; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UITextView * completeMessageView; ExpandSearchPageController.m: @implementation ExpandSearchPageController @synthesize completeMessageView; -(void)checkTextField { NSLog(@"text field: %@",completeMessageView); } ExpandSearchPageController is set as the File's Owner for ExpandSearchPage.xib. ExpandSearchPage.xib's UITextView is wired to the completeMessageView. When I call ExpandSearchPageController * searchExpanderPage = [[ExpandSearchPageController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ExpandSearchPage" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [searchExpanderPage checkTextField]; the result is "text field: (null)" Sorry if this is a total newb question, but I guess I'm still a newb at iPhone programming! Thanks in advance!

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  • SQL query recursion for a web-like structure

    - by MickeyD
    I have a table here, named "Foo". The data is set up something like this. ID TableReference DataId0 DataId1 DataId2 -- -------------- ------- ------- ------- 1 Prize 3 4 5 2 Prize 4 5 NULL 3 Cash 1 NULL NULL 4 Prize 8 NULL 12 5 Foo 2 3 NULL 6 Cash 8 1 10 7 Foo 5 1 2 Etc. The data is horribly set up, I know, but I didn't set it up that way. :) I'm only dealing with the after effect. I'm trying to come up with a way to essentially "flatten" the table; that is, to display all the data to a point where the table "Foo" does not reference itself. I'm trying to figure out a sql query that I can do to get there. Usually when I deal with recursion, I have (or can establish) parent IDs and set it up that way, but for this table there are seemingly multiple child and parent IDs creating a web-like structure instead of a hierarchy. So I'm at a loss where to even begin to write a sql query for something like this. Note: There is no infinite looping (where one Foo points to another Foo, which points back to the original Foo) from what I've found. Using t-sql. Thanks for any assistance, if at all possible.

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  • codegen:nullValue vs msprop:nullValue

    - by Ken
    Ok, I have datasets that I created way back in 1.1 framework to which we used codegen:nullValue within the XSD to handle null values. However if I open one of these datasets with vs 2005 (i.e. 2.0 framework) and add a column, it removes the codegen setting from the entire xsd but adds in msprop:nullValue However, unlike previous years, I noticed this time the proper property code was NOT over riden from returning the null value specified in codegen as it was doing in the past. Meaning the msprop appears to be creating the proper code behind the scenes (See example). Anyone know of any other differnces? Should I be concerned with deploying a new xsd, WITHOUT the codegen code but instead with the msprop xml? Example: Original creates _ Public Property ParentID() As Integer Get If Me.IsParentIDNull Then Return -1 Else Return CType(Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn),Integer) End If End Get Set Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn) = value End Set End Property New creates _ Public Property ParentID() As Integer Get If Me.IsParentIDNull Then Return -1 Else Return CType(Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn),Integer) End If End Get Set Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn) = value End Set End Property BUT is there anything else that might be occuring that I am NOT seeing thus MAKING me re-enter all the codegen settings? THANKS!

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  • Alternatives to the Entity Framework for Serving/Consuming an OData Interface

    - by Egahn
    I'm researching how to set up an OData interface to our database. I would like to be able to pull/query data from our DB into Excel, as a start. Eventually I would like to have Excel run queries and pull data over HTTP from a remote client, including authentication, etc. I've set up a working (rickety) prototype so far, using the ADO.NET Entity Data Model wizard in Visual Studio, and VSTO to create a test Excel worksheet with a button to pull from that ADO.NET interface. This works OK so far, and I can query the DB using Linq through the entities/objects that are created by the ADO.NET EDM wizard. However, I have started to run into some problems with this approach. I've been finding the Entity Framework difficult to work with (and in fact, also difficult to research solutions to, as there's a lot of chaff out there regarding it and older versions of it). An example of this is my being unable to figure out how to set the SQL command timeout (as opposed to the HTTP request timeout) on the DataServiceContext object that the wizard generates for my schema, but that's not the point of my question. The real question I have is, if I want to use OData as my interface standard, am I stuck with the Entity Framework? Are there any other solutions out there (preferably open source) which can set up, serve and consume an OData interface, and are easier to work with and less bloated than the Entity Framework? I have seen mention of NHibernate as an alternative, but most of the comparison threads I've seen are a few years old. Are there any other alternatives out there now? Thanks very much!

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  • Creating a Function in SQL Server with a Phone Number as a parameter and returns a Random Number

    - by Emer
    Hi Guys, I am hoping someone can help me here as google is not being as forthcoming as I would have liked. I am relatively new to SQL Server and so this is the first function I have set myself to do. The outline of the function is that it has a Phone number varchar(15) as a parameter, it checks that this number is a proper number, i.e. it is 8 digits long and contains only numbers. The main character I am trying to avoid is '+'. Good Number = 12345678 Bad Number = +12345678. Once the number is checked I would like to produce a random number for each phone number that is passed in. I have looked at substrings, the like operator, Rand(), left(), Right() in order to search through the number and then produce a random number. I understand that Rand() will produce the same random number unless alterations are done to it but right now it is about actually getting some working code. Any hints on this would be great or even point me towards some more documentation. I have read books online and they haven't helped me, maybe I am not looking in the right places. Here is a snippet of code I was working on the Rand declare @Phone Varchar (15) declare @Counter Varchar (1) declare @NewNumber Varchar(15) set @Phone = '12345678' set @Counter = len(@Phone) while @Counter > 0 begin select case when @Phone like '%[0-9]%' then cast(rand()*100000000 as int) else 'Bad Number' end set @counter = @counter - 1 end return Thanks for the help in advance Emer

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