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• Changing the Hibernate 3 settings

  - by Bogdanel

  I use Hibernate3 and Hibernate Tools 3.2.4 to generate hbm.xml and java files and I want to use List instead of HashSet(...). I've tried to modify the hbm.xml files, putting list instead of set. Is there any way to specify to hibernate tools that I want to generate automatically a list not a HashSet? This is an exemple: Java class public class Test implements java.io.Serializable { private Long testId; private Course course; private String testName; private Set<Question> questions = new HashSet<Question>( 0 ); } Test.hbm.xml: <set name="questions" inverse="true" lazy="true" table="questions" fetch="select"> <key> <column name="test_id" not-null="true" /> </key> <one-to-many class="com.app.objects.Question" /> ... </set> I thought that I could find a clue in the "reveng.xml" file, but I failed.

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• need an empty XML while unmarshalling a JAXB annotated class

  - by sswdeveloper

  I have a JAXB annotated class Customer as follows @XmlRootElement(namespace = "http://www.abc.com/customer") public class Customer{ private String name; private Address address; @XmlTransient private HashSet set = new HashSet<String>(); public String getName(){ return name; } @XmlElement(name = "Name", namespace = "http://www.abc.com/customer" ) public void setName(String name){ this.name = name; set.add("name"); } public String getAddress(){ return address; } @XmlElement(name = "Address", namespace = "http://www.abc.com/customer") public void setAddress(Address address){ this.address = address; set.add("address"); } public HashSet getSet(){ return set; } } I need to return an empty XML representing this to the user, so that he may fill the necesary values in the XML and send a request So what I require is : <Customer> <Name></Name> <Address></Address> </Customer> If i simply create an empty object Customer cust = new Customer() ; marshaller.marshall(cust,sw); all I get is the toplevel element since the other fields of the class are unset. What can I do to get such an empty XML? I tried adding the nillable=true annotation to the elements however, this returns me an XML with the xsi:nil="true" which then causes my unmarshaller to ignore this. How do I achieve this?

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• How to refer to enum values inside nhibernate formula mapping specification?

  - by mark

  Dear ladies and sirs. I have two entities types: RunContainer parent entity type Run child entity type Run has a property Status, which is of type RunStatus, like so: public enum RunStatus { Created, Starting, // ... } public class Run { public int ContainerId { get; private set; } // ... public RunStatus Status { get; private set; } } RunContainer has a calculated property ActiveRunCount, like so: public class RunContainer { public int Id { get; private set; } // ... public int ActiveRunCount { get; private set; } } In the mapping for the RunContainer.ActiveRunCount property, I use the formula specification like so: <property name="ActiveRunCount" formula="(select count(r.Id) from Run r where r.ContainerId = Id and r.Status = 1)"/> My problem is that I refer to the RunStatus enum values in the formula by their respective numeric value, rather than the appropriate symbolic name. Can anyone tell me how can I use the symbolic name instead? Thanks.

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• Setting Session/Cookie via ajax request made on other website

  - by user596805

  Hi, That's my problem: I have an website, example.com, in which index.html file a introduced a <script src="website.net/js.js"></script> You can see, that this is on other web server. In the js.js I have some data that I want to send to php. For that, I am using Ajax. So, I made a request to "website.net/data.php" using method get. In data.php file everything is ok,I received the value, but I want to set a cookie which value is what I received through ajax. Here is the problem. The setcookie function says that the cookie was set, but when I check in the browser, there's no cookie! It works fine if the index.html file where I use <script src="website.net/js.js"></script> is hosted on the same domain where I am making the request. If it is on another domain, it doesn't work anymore. I have read something about Ajax cross site, but I don't want to send something back to example.com. All I want is to send some data from example.com to website.net and then setting a cookie based on that value. Thank you very much, and sorry for my English! Later edit: I am not used with this website. From the example.net I take a single value. On website.net I receive that value, I check if it's not already a cookie set, if it's not, I set it. On the same page, website.net, I use this cookie too.

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• Entity Framework one-to-one relationship mapping flattened in code

  - by Josh Close

  I have a table structure like so. Address: AddressId int not null primary key identity ...more columns AddressContinental: AddressId int not null primary key identity foreign key to pk of Address County State AddressInternational: AddressId int not null primary key identity foreign key to pk of Address ProvinceRegion I don't have control over schema, this is just the way it is. Now, what I want to do is have a single Address object. public class Address { public int AddressId { get; set; } public County County { get; set; } public State State { get; set } public ProvinceRegion { get; set; } } I want to have EF pull it out of the database as a single entity. When saving, I want to save the single entity and have EF know to split it into the three tables. How would I map this in EF 4.1 Code First? I've been searching around and haven't found anything that meets my case yet. UPDATE An address record will have a record in Address and one in either AddressContinental or AddressInternational, but not both.

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• Thread mutex behaviour

  - by Alberteddu

  Hi there, I'm learning C. I'm writing an application with multiple threads; I know that when a variable is shared between two or more threads, it is better to lock/unlock using a mutex to avoid deadlock and inconsistency of variables. This is very clear when I want to change or view one variable. int i = 0; /** Global */ static pthread_mutex_t mutex = PTHREAD_MUTEX_INITIALIZER; /** Thread 1. */ pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); i++; pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); /** Thread 2. */ pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); i++; pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); This is correct, I think. The variable i, at the end of the executions, contains the integer 2. Anyway, there are some situations in which I don't know exactly where to put the two function calls. For example, suppose you have a function obtain(), which returns a global variable. I need to call that function from within the two threads. I have also two other threads that call the function set(), defined with a few arguments; this function will set the same global variable. The two functions are necessary when you need to do something before getting/setting the var. /** (0) */ /** Thread 1, or 2, or 3... */ if(obtain() == something) { if(obtain() == somethingElse) { // Do this, sometimes obtain() and sometimes set(random number) (1) } else { // Do that, just obtain(). (2) } } else { // Do this and do that (3) // If # of thread * 3 > 10, then set(3*10) For example. (4) } /** (5) */ Where I have to lock, and where I have to unlock? The situation can be, I think, even more complex. I will appreciate an exhaustive answer. Thank you in advance. —Alberto

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• Writing a synchronized thread-safety wrapper for NavigableMap

  - by polygenelubricants

  java.util.Collections currently provide the following utility methods for creating synchronized wrapper for various collection interfaces: synchronizedCollection(Collection<T> c) synchronizedList(List<T> list) synchronizedMap(Map<K,V> m) synchronizedSet(Set<T> s) synchronizedSortedMap(SortedMap<K,V> m) synchronizedSortedSet(SortedSet<T> s) Analogously, it also has 6 unmodifiedXXX overloads. The glaring omission here are the utility methods for NavigableMap<K,V>. It's true that it extends SortedMap, but so does SortedSet extends Set, and Set extends Collection, and Collections have dedicated utility methods for SortedSet and Set. Presumably NavigableMap is a useful abstraction, or else it wouldn't have been there in the first place, and yet there are no utility methods for it. So the questions are: Is there a specific reason why Collections doesn't provide utility methods for NavigableMap? How would you write your own synchronized wrapper for NavigableMap? Glancing at the source code for OpenJDK version of Collections.java seems to suggest that this is just a "mechanical" process Is it true that in general you can add synchronized thread-safetiness feature like this? If it's such a mechanical process, can it be automated? (Eclipse plug-in, etc) Is this code repetition necessary, or could it have been avoided by a different OOP design pattern?

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• WPF bound object update notification

  - by Carlo

  I have a TreeView with a few objects bound to it, let's say something like this: public class House { public List<Room> Rooms { get; set; } public List<Person> People { get; set; } public House() { this.Rooms = new List<Room>(); this.People = new List<Person>(); } public void BuildRoom(string name) { this.Rooms.Add(new Room() { Name = name }); } public void DestroyRoom(string name) { this.Rooms.Remove(new Room() { Name = name }); } public void PersonEnter(string name) { this.People.Add(new Person() { Name = name }); } public void PersonLeave(string name) { this.People.Remove(new Person() { Name = name }); } } public class Room { public string Name { get; set; } } public class Person { public string Name { get; set; } } The TreeView is watching over the House object, whenever a room is built / destroyed or a person enters / leaves, my tree view updates itself to show the new state of the house (I omitted some implementation details for simplicity). What I want is to know the exact moment when this update finishes, so I can do something right there, the thing is that I created an indicator of the selected item, and when something moves, I need to update said indicator's position, that's the reason I need it exactly when the tree view updates. Let me know if you know a solution to this. Also, the code is not perfect (DestroyRoom and PersonLeave), but you get the idea. Thanks!

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• Nhibernate, can i improve my MAPPING or Query

  - by dbones

  take this simple example A staff class which references other instances of the staff class public class Staff { public Staff() { Team = new List<Staff>(); } public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual IList<Staff> Team { get; set; } public virtual Staff Manager { get; set; } } The Fluent Mapping public class StaffMap : ClassMap<Staff> { public StaffMap() { Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.Name); References(x => x.Manager).Column("ManagerId"); HasMany(x => x.Team).KeyColumn("ManagerId").Inverse(); } } Now I want to run a query, which will load all the Staff and eager load the manager and Team members. This is what I came up with IList<Staff> resutls = session.CreateCriteria<Staff>() .SetFetchMode("Team", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(Transformers.DistinctRootEntity) .List<Staff>(); however the SQL (does what i want) has duplicate columns, 2 team2_.ManagerId and 2 team2_.Id SELECT this_.Id as Id0_1_, this_.Name as Name0_1_, this_.ManagerId as ManagerId0_1_, team2_.ManagerId as ManagerId3_, team2_.Id as Id3_, team2_.Id as Id0_0_, team2_.Name as Name0_0_, team2_.ManagerId as ManagerId0_0_ FROM [SelfRef].[dbo].[Staff] this_ left outer join [SelfRef].[dbo].[Staff] team2_ on this_.Id=team2_.ManagerId The question is, should this be happening? did i do something wrong in the query or map? or is it a feature of the HHib im using (which is Version 2.1.0.4000)? many thanks in advance

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• How to rewrite data-driven test suites of JUnit 3 in Junit 4?

  - by rics

  I am using data-driven test suites running JUnit 3 based on Rainsberger's JUnit Recipes. The purpose of these tests is to check whether a certain function is properly implemented related to a set of input-output pairs. Here is the definition of the test suite: public static Test suite() throws Exception { TestSuite suite = new TestSuite(); Calendar calendar = GregorianCalendar.getInstance(); calendar.set(2009, 8, 05, 13, 23); // 2009. 09. 05. 13:23 java.sql.Date date = new java.sql.Date(calendar.getTime().getTime()); suite.addTest(new DateFormatTestToString(date, JtDateFormat.FormatType.YYYY_MON_DD, "2009-SEP-05")); suite.addTest(new DateFormatTestToString(date, JtDateFormat.FormatType.DD_MON_YYYY, "05/SEP/2009")); return suite; } and the definition of the testing class: public class DateFormatTestToString extends TestCase { private java.sql.Date date; private JtDateFormat.FormatType dateFormat; private String expectedStringFormat; public DateFormatTestToString(java.sql.Date date, JtDateFormat.FormatType dateFormat, String expectedStringFormat) { super("testGetString"); this.date = date; this.dateFormat = dateFormat; this.expectedStringFormat = expectedStringFormat; } public void testGetString() { String result = JtDateFormat.getString(date, dateFormat); assertTrue( expectedStringFormat.equalsIgnoreCase(result)); } } How is it possible to test several input-output parameters of a method using JUnit 4? This question and the answers explained to me the distinction between JUnit 3 and 4 in this regard. This question and the answers describe the way to create test suite for a set of class but not for a method with a set of different parameters.

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• Asp.Net Cookie sharing

  - by SH

  This is C#.Net code: How to share Cookie between 2 HttpWebRequest calls? Details: I am posting a form in first request, this form contains some setting variables which are used by the system. lets say there is a input field in the form which sets the size of grid pages to be displayed in other pages. Once i have updated the setings in previous request, i go to send a request to another page which shows off asp.net gridview/grid. The grid might contaian several pages and the page size should be the one which i set in previous request. But when i do this via HttpWebReeust it does not happen. When i do it via browser, loading the setting page in the browser and then going to the grid view page... i see the page size is updated. I want to achieve this via code. Sicne i am scraping this grid. i have to set page size or visit the gird pages one by one via code. Or is it possible to set a cookie on 2nd request which is used to set in first request? It will be great if i go this way. any solution?

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• Indirect property notification

  - by Carlo

  Hello, this question might look a little trivial, but it might not be. I'm just wondering which of the following two cases is better for indirect property notification, or perhaps there is an even better way. The scenario: I have two properties, the first one is an object called HoldingObject, the second one is a boolean called IsHoldingObject, which is false if HoldingObject == null, otherwise it's true. I'm just wondering what is the best notification mechanism for IsHoldingObject: Case (A) - Notify IsHoldingObject changed from the HoldingObject proeperty: public class NotifyingClass1 : INotifyPropertyChanged { private object _holdingObject; public object HoldingObject { get { return _holdingObject; } set { if (_holdingObject != value) { _holdingObject = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("HoldingObject"); // Notify from the property that is being checked NotifyPropertyChanged("IsHoldingObject"); } } } public bool IsHoldingObject { get { return this.HoldingObject == null; } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void NotifyPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } #endregion } Case (B) - Notify IsHoldingObject changed from the IsHoldingObject directly, by setting it to false or true from HoldingObject property: public class NotifyingClass2 : INotifyPropertyChanged { private object _holdingObject; public object HoldingObject { get { return _holdingObject; } set { if (_holdingObject != value) { _holdingObject = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("HoldingObject"); // 1) Set the property here this.IsHoldingObject = _holdingObject != null; } } } private bool _isHoldingObject; public bool IsHoldingObject { get { return _isHoldingObject; } set { if (_isHoldingObject != value) { _isHoldingObject = value; // 2) Notify directly from the property NotifyPropertyChanged("IsHoldingObject"); } } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void NotifyPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } #endregion } I personally lean to the first one because it requires less code, but I'm not sure how recommendable it is to do that. Let me know if there is another (better) way. Thanks!

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• How can I keep the the logic to translate a ViewModel's values to a Where clause to apply to a linq query out of My Controller?

  - by Mr. Manager

  This same problem keeps cropping up. I have a viewModel that doesn't have any persistent backing. It is just a ViewModel to generate a search input form. I want to build a large where clause from the values the user entered. If the Action Accepts as a parameter SearchViewModel How do I do this without passing my viewModel to my service layer? Service shouldn't know about ViewModels right? Oh and if I serialize it, then it would be a big string and the key/values would be strongly typed. SearchViewModel this is just a snippet. [Display(Name="Address")] public string AddressKeywords { get; set; } /// <summary> /// Gets or sets the census. /// </summary> public string Census { get; set; } /// <summary> /// Gets or sets the lot block sub. /// </summary> public string LotBlockSub { get; set; } /// <summary> /// Gets or sets the owner keywords. /// </summary> [Display(Name="Owner")] public string OwnerKeywords { get; set; } In my controller action I was thinking of something like this. but I would think all this logic doesn't belong in my Controller. ActionResult GetSearchResults(SearchViewModel model){ var query = service.GetAllParcels(); if(model.Census != null){ query = query.Where(x=>x.Census == model.Census); } if (model.OwnerKeywords != null){ query = query.Where(x=>x.Owners == model.OwnerKeywords); } return View(query.ToList()); }

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• How do I make a function in SQL Server that accepts a column of data?

  - by brandon k

  I made the following function in SQL Server 2008 earlier this week that takes two parameters and uses them to select a column of "detail" records and returns them as a single varchar list of comma separated values. Now that I get to thinking about it, I would like to take this table and application-specific function and make it more generic. I am not well-versed in defining SQL functions, as this is my first. How can I change this function to accept a single "column" worth of data, so that I can use it in a more generic way? Instead of calling: SELECT ejc_concatFormDetails(formuid, categoryName) I would like to make it work like: SELECT concatColumnValues(SELECT someColumn FROM SomeTable) Here is my function definition: FUNCTION [DNet].[ejc_concatFormDetails](@formuid AS int, @category as VARCHAR(75)) RETURNS VARCHAR(1000) AS BEGIN DECLARE @returnData VARCHAR(1000) DECLARE @currentData VARCHAR(75) DECLARE dataCursor CURSOR FAST_FORWARD FOR SELECT data FROM DNet.ejc_FormDetails WHERE formuid = @formuid AND category = @category SET @returnData = '' OPEN dataCursor FETCH NEXT FROM dataCursor INTO @currentData WHILE (@@FETCH_STATUS = 0) BEGIN SET @returnData = @returnData + ', ' + @currentData FETCH NEXT FROM dataCursor INTO @currentData END CLOSE dataCursor DEALLOCATE dataCursor RETURN SUBSTRING(@returnData,3,1000) END As you can see, I am selecting the column data within my function and then looping over the results with a cursor to build my comma separated varchar. How can I alter this to accept a single parameter that is a result set and then access that result set with a cursor?

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• Utilizing a Queue

  - by Nathan

  I'm trying to store records of transactions all together and by category for the last 1, 7, 30 or 360 days. I've tried a couple things, but they've brutally failed. I had an idea of using a queue with 360 values, one for each day, but I don't know enough about queue's to figure out how that would work. Input will be an instance of this class: class Transaction { public string TotalEarned { get; set; } public string TotalHST { get; set; } public string TotalCost { get; set; } public string Category { get; set; } } New transactions can occur at any time during the day, and there could be as many as 15 transactions in a day. My program is using a plain text file as external storage, but how I load it depends on how I decide to store this data. What would be the best way to do this?

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• Adding new records in Access without wrecking the form

  - by Matt Parker

  I'm working on a simple Access 2003 application to keep track of things that need to be done for clients for some colleagues. Each colleague has a set of clients, and each client has a set of actions that need to be taken by a certain date. I've set up a form that consists of a combobox for client ID (indexed), a drop-down for the person who is handling that client's case, and a button for adding new clients (a standard Access-created Add Record button). The actions are listed in a subform below these three elements. The problem I've run into is that the first person I tested this on clicked the button to add a new record, then didn't fill it out and tried to select another client from the drop-down list. Access interprets this as an attempt to set the selected Client ID as the ID for the new record and rightfully throws an error for duplicate primary keys. I can think of a couple of ways around this problem, but I'd much rather hear your elegant solutions than kludge together some junk in a language I don't know. Let me know if you have any questions. Thank you.

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• LINQ: display results from empty lists

  - by Douglas H. M.

  I've created two entities (simplified) in C#: class Log { entries = new List<Entry>(); DateTime Date { get; set; } IList<Entry> entries { get; set; } } class Entry { DateTime ClockIn { get; set; } DateTime ClockOut { get; set; } } I am using the following code to initialize the objects: Log log1 = new Log() { Date = new DateTime(2010, 1, 1), }; log1.Entries.Add(new Entry() { ClockIn = new DateTime(0001, 1, 1, 9, 0, 0), ClockOut = new DateTime(0001, 1, 1, 12, 0, 0) }); Log log2 = new Log() { Date = new DateTime(2010, 2, 1), }; The method below is used to get the date logs: var query = from l in DB.GetLogs() from e in l.Entries orderby l.Date ascending select new { Date = l.Date, ClockIn = e.ClockIn, ClockOut = e.ClockOut, }; The result of the above LINQ query is: /* Date | Clock In | Clock Out 01/01/2010 | 09:00 | 12:00 */ My question is, what is the best way to rewrite the LINQ query above to include the results from the second object I created (Log2), since it has an empty list. In the other words, I would like to display all dates even if they don't have time values. The expected result would be: /* Date | Clock In | Clock Out 01/01/2010 | 09:00 | 12:00 02/01/2010 | | */

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• Pass view to viewmodel with datatemplate

  - by jpsstavares

  I have a ParameterView and ParameterViewModel, and I need the ParameterViewModel to have a reference to the Parameter view (more on that later). In the window I have a list of ParameterViewModels and in the ResourceDictionary I add the DataTemplate: <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type my:ParameterViewModel}" > <my:ParameterView HorizontalAlignment="Left"/> </DataTemplate> I then bind an ItemsControl.ItemSource to the List of ParameterViewModels The problem is: How can I pass the ParameterView to the ParameterViewModel in this scenario? The reason I need the ParameterView in the ParameterViewModel is the following: I have a TextBox whose Text property is binded to the PropertyModelView.Name property. But I want to display a default string when the Name is empty or Null. I've tried to set the property value to the default string I want when that happens but the TextBox.Text is not set in this scenario. I do something like this: private string _name; public string Name { get { return _name; } set { if (value == null || value.Length == 0) Name = _defaultName; else _name = value; } } I've also tried to specifically set the TextBox.Text binding mode to TwoWay without success. I think this is a defense mechanism to prevent an infinite loop from happening but I don't know for sure. Any help on this front would also be highly appreciated. Thanks, José Tavares

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• How do I add a where filter using the original Linq-to-SQL object in the following scenario

  - by GenericTypeTea

  I am performing a select query using the following Linq expression: Table<Tbl_Movement> movements = context.Tbl_Movement; var query = from m in movements select new MovementSummary { Id = m.DocketId, Created = m.DateTimeStamp, CreatedBy = m.Tbl_User.FullName, DocketNumber = m.DocketNumber, DocketTypeDescription = m.Ref_DocketType.DocketType, DocketTypeId = m.DocketTypeId, Site = new Site() { Id = m.Tbl_Site.SiteId, FirstLine = m.Tbl_Site.FirstLine, Postcode = m.Tbl_Site.Postcode, SiteName = m.Tbl_Site.SiteName, TownCity = m.Tbl_Site.TownCity, Brewery = new Brewery() { Id = m.Tbl_Site.Ref_Brewery.BreweryId, BreweryName = m.Tbl_Site.Ref_Brewery.BreweryName }, Region = new Region() { Description = m.Tbl_Site.Ref_Region.Description, Id = m.Tbl_Site.Ref_Region.RegionId } } }; I am also passing in an IFilter class into the method where this select is performed. public interface IJobFilter { int? PersonId { get; set; } int? RegionId { get; set; } int? SiteId { get; set; } int? AssetId { get; set; } } How do I add these where parameters into my SQL expression? Preferably I'd like this done in another method as the filtering will be re-used across multiple repositories. Unfortunately when I do query.Where it has become an IQueryable<MovementSummary>. I'm assuming it has become this as I'm returning an IEnumerable<MovementSummary>. I've only just started learning LINQ, so be gentle.

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• Why doesn't this short php script send email?

  - by RoryG

  I can't seem to get my php script to send email. <?php echo "Does this page work?"; mail('my email address', 'test subject', 'test message'); ?> First, I have set the mail function settings in the php.ini file as follows: I checked my email account settings on outlook. It does not require authentication, its port is 25, and its type of encrypted connection is 'Auto'. Given this I configured my php.ini file accordingly: SMTP = ssl://smtp1.iis.com smtp_port = 25 Then I set: sendmail_from: my email address The echo statement prints out in the browser, so I know the php file is recognized and processed. But the browser also shows the following error: Warning: mail() [function.mail]: "sendmail_from" not set in php.ini or custom "From:" header missing in C:\xampp\htdocs\mailtest.php on line 3 I have clearly set the sendmail_from so I don't know what else to do. I have also tried removing the 'ssl://' part from the SMTP setting in the php.ini file, and configuring the php5.ini file. Which of these .ini files should I be configuring anyways?

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• help me to choose between two designs

  - by alex

  // stupid title, but I could not think anything smarter I have a code (see below, sorry for long code but it's very-very simple): namespace Option1 { class AuxClass1 { string _field1; public string Field1 { get { return _field1; } set { _field1 = value; } } // another fields. maybe many fields maybe several properties public void Method1() { // some action } public void Method2() { // some action 2 } } class MainClass { AuxClass1 _auxClass; public AuxClass1 AuxClass { get { return _auxClass; } set { _auxClass = value; } } public MainClass() { _auxClass = new AuxClass1(); } } } namespace Option2 { class AuxClass1 { string _field1; public string Field1 { get { return _field1; } set { _field1 = value; } } // another fields. maybe many fields maybe several properties public void Method1() { // some action } public void Method2() { // some action 2 } } class MainClass { AuxClass1 _auxClass; public string Field1 { get { return _auxClass.Field1; } set { _auxClass.Field1 = value; } } public void Method1() { _auxClass.Method1(); } public void Method2() { _auxClass.Method2(); } public MainClass() { _auxClass = new AuxClass1(); } } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { // Option1 Option1.MainClass mainClass1 = new Option1.MainClass(); mainClass1.AuxClass.Field1 = "string1"; mainClass1.AuxClass.Method1(); mainClass1.AuxClass.Method2(); // Option2 Option2.MainClass mainClass2 = new Option2.MainClass(); mainClass2.Field1 = "string2"; mainClass2.Method1(); mainClass2.Method2(); Console.ReadKey(); } } What option (option1 or option2) do you prefer ? In which cases should I use option1 or option2 ? Is there any special name for option1 or option2 (composition, aggregation) ?

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• NHibernate Criteria Find by Id

  - by user315648

  Hello, I have 2 entities: public class Authority : Entity { [NotNull, NotEmpty] public virtual string Name { get; set; } [NotNull] public virtual AuthorityType Type { get; set; } } public class AuthorityType : Entity { [NotNull, NotEmpty] public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual string Description { get; set; } } Now I wish to find all authorities from repository by type. I tried doing it like this: public IList<Authority> GetAuthoritiesByType(int id) { ICriteria criteria = Session.CreateCriteria(typeof (Authority)); criteria.Add(Restrictions.Eq("Type.Id", id)); IList<Authority> authorities = criteria.List<Authority>(); return authorities; } However, I'm getting an error that something is wrong with the SQL ("could not execute query". The innerexception is following: {"Invalid column name 'TypeFk'.\r\nInvalid column name 'TypeFk'."} Any advice ? Any other approach ? Best wishes, Andrew

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• Visual Studio internal project references not always working

  - by Chris

  I am using Visual Studio and a solution with 10 or so projects in (mostly VB, some C#) which have various dependencies set up. Usually when I compile the solution it works fine. Occasionally when I do it I get a build error saying that one of the projects referenced is the wrong version (I think always the same one, possibly may be two that can cause problems). In this case going to the solution explorer and right clicking on the mentioned project and saying "rebuild" followed by another full build makes it work fine. I assume there is something set up wrong somewhere but I didn't set up the solution myself initially and a quick look through doesn't show anything immediately wrong. It feels like there is some kind of race condition, that VS is internally setting the version number of the project it needs before that project has been rebuilt and thus gets it wrong or something like that but I'm sure VS should handle all this sort of thing properly. Can anybody please suggest places that I could check for whether this has been correctly set up... And I should finally note that since I don't have reliable repro of this I may not be able to respond to questions too quickly. For example the obvious one of "Could you give the exact error message" will have to wait since I didn't think to copy it this morning, it was only after I cleared it up with the above steps that I thought to post here. Similarly any solutions may take a while to confirm.

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• Point covering problem

  - by Sean

  I recently had this problem on a test: given a set of points m (all on the x-axis) and a set n of lines with endpoints [l, r] (again on the x-axis), find the minimum subset of n such that all points are covered by a line. Prove that your solution always finds the minimum subset. The algorithm I wrote for it was something to the effect of: (say lines are stored as arrays with the left endpoint in position 0 and the right in position 1) algorithm coverPoints(set[] m, set[][] n): chosenLines = [] while m is not empty: minX = min(m) bestLine = n[0] for i=1 to length of n: if n[i][0] <= m and n[i][1] > bestLine[1] then bestLine = n[i] add bestLine to chosenLines for i=0 to length of m: if m <= bestLine[1] then delete m[i] from m return chosenLines I'm just not sure if this always finds the minimum solution. It's a simple greedy algorithm so my gut tells me it won't, but one of my friends who is much better than me at this says that for this problem a greedy algorithm like this always finds the minimal solution. For proving mine always finds the minimal solution I did a very hand wavy proof by contradiction where I made an assumption that probably isn't true at all. I forget exactly what I did. If this isn't a minimal solution, is there a way to do it in less than something like O(n!) time? Thanks

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• Does IE completely ignore cache control headers for AJAX requests?

  - by Joshua Hayworth

  Hello there, I've got, what I would consider, a simple test web site. A single page with a single button. Here is a copy of the source I'm working with if you would like to download it and play with it. When that button is clicked, it creates a JavaScript timer that executes once a second. When the timer function is executed, An AJAX call is made to retrieve a text value. That text value is then placed into the DOM. What's my problem? IE Caching. Crack open Task Manager and watch what happens to the iexplorer.exe process (IE 8.0.7600.16385 for me) while the timer in that page is executing. See the memory and handle count getting larger? Why is that happening when, by all accounts, I have caching turned off. I've got the jQuery cache option set to false in $.ajaxSetup. I've got the CacheControl header set to no-cache and no-store. The Expires header is set to DateTime.Now.AddDays(-1). The headers are set in both the page code-behind as well as the HTTP Handler's response. Anybody got any ideas as to how I could prevent IE from caching the results of the AJAX call? Here is what the iexplorer.exe process looks like in ProcessMonitor. I believe that the activity shown in this picture is exactly what I'm attempting to prevent.

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