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  • Editing a remote file on-the-fly with PHP

    - by user275074
    Hi, I have a requirement to edit a remote text file on-the-fly, the content of which currently stands at ~1Mb. I have tried a couple of approaches and both seem to be clunky or hog memory which I can't rely on. Thinking out logically what I'm trying to achieve is: FTP to a remote server. Download a copy of the file for backup purposes and store it somewhere locally. Open the remote file and add the necessary lines required. Remove lines from the remote file as per an array of un-required data generated from the local server. Is this possible? I've managed to code steps 1 and 2 but I'm having difficult with 3 and 4. The way I'm doing it now is to use fgets and return the whole string. Really, I don't want to do this as it involves manipulating and re-generating the whole string (and it's large) and then re-inserting it in between two markers in the remote file. Is there no way of manipulating the lines of text in the file on-the-fly?

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  • VS2010 Web Deploy: how to remove absolute paths and automate setAcl?

    - by Julien Lebosquain
    The integrated Web Deployment in Visual Studio 2010 is pretty nice. It can create a package ready to be deployed using MSDeploy on a target IIS machine. Problem is, this package will be redistributed to a client that will install it himself using the "Import Application" from IIS when MSDeploy is installed. The default package created always include the full path from the development machine, "D:\Dev\XXX\obj\Debug\Package\PackageTmp" in the source manifest file. It doesn't prevent installation of course since it was designed this way, but it looks ugly in the import dialog and has no meaning to the client. Worse he will wonder what are those paths and it looks quite confusing. By customizing the .csproj file (by adding MSBuild properties used by the package creation task), I managed to add additional parameters to the package. However, I spent most of the afternoon in the 2600 lines long Web.Publishing.targets trying to understand what parameter influenced the "development path" behavior, in vain. I also tried to use the setAcl to customize security on a given folder after deployment, but I only managed to do this with MSBuild by using a relative path... it shouldn't matter if I resolve the first problem though. I could modify the generated archive after its creation but I would prefer if everything was automatized using MSBuild. Does anyone know how to do that?

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  • multi-shop orders table and sequential order numbers based on shop

    - by imanc
    Hey, I am looking at building a shop solution that needs to be scalable. Currently it retrieves 1-2000 orders on average per day across multiple country based shops (e.g. uk, us, de, dk, es etc.) but this order could be 10x this amount in two years. I am looking at either using separate country-shop databases to store the orders tables, or looking to combine all into one order table. If all orders exist in one table with a global ID (auto num) and country ID (e.g uk,de,dk etc.), each countries orders would also need to have sequential ordering. So in essence, we'd have to have a global ID and a country order ID, with the country order ID being sequential for countries only, e.g. global ID = 1000, country = UK, country order ID = 1000 global ID = 1001, country = DE, country order ID = 1000 global ID = 1002, country = DE, country order ID = 1001 global ID = 1003, country = DE, country order ID = 1002 global ID = 1004, country = UK, country order ID = 1001 THe global ID would be DB generated and not something I would need to worry about. But I am thinking that I'd have to do a query to get the current country order based ID+1 to find the next sequential number. Two things concern me about this: 1) query times when the table has potentially millions of rows of data and I'm doing a read before a write, 2) the potential for ID number clashes due to simultaneous writes/reads. With a MyISAM table the entire table could be locked whilst the last country order + 1 is retrieved, to prevent ID number clashes. I am wondering if anyone knows of a more elegant solution? Cheers, imanc

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  • How to write a good PHP database insert using an associative array

    - by Tom
    In PHP, I want to insert into a database using data contained in a associative array of field/value pairs. Example: $_fields = array('field1'=>'value1','field2'=>'value2','field3'=>'value3'); The resulting SQL insert should look as follows: INSERT INTO table (field1,field2,field3) VALUES ('value1','value2','value3'); I have come up with the following PHP one-liner: mysql_query("INSERT INTO table (".implode(',',array_keys($_fields)).") VALUES (".implode(',',array_values($_fields)).")"); It separates the keys and values of the the associative array and implodes to generate a comma-separated string . The problem is that it does not escape or quote the values that were inserted into the database. To illustrate the danger, Imagine if $_fields contained the following: $_fields = array('field1'=>"naustyvalue); drop table members; --"); The following SQL would be generated: INSERT INTO table (field1) VALUES (naustyvalue); drop table members; --; Luckily, multiple queries are not supported, nevertheless quoting and escaping are essential to prevent SQL injection vulnerabilities. How do you write your PHP Mysql Inserts? Note: PDO or mysqli prepared queries aren't currently an option for me because the codebase already uses mysql extensively - a change is planned but it'd take alot of resources to convert?

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  • Help a CRUD programmer think about an "approval workflow"

    - by gerdemb
    I've been working on a web application that is basically a CRUD application (Create, Read, Update, Delete). Recently, I've started working on what I'm calling an "approval workflow". Basically, a request is generated for a material and then sent for approval to a manager. Depending on what is requested, different people need to approve the request or perhaps send it back to the requester for modification. The approvers need to keep track of what to approve what has been approved and the requesters need to see the status of their requests. As a "CRUD" developer, I'm having a hard-time wrapping my head around how to design this. What database tables should I have? How do I keep track of the state of the request? How should I notify users of actions that have happened to their requests? Is their a design pattern that could help me with this? Should I be drawing state-machines in my code? I think this is a generic programing question, but if it makes any difference I'm using Django with MySQL.

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  • 'WebException' error on back button even when calling 'void' async method

    - by BlazingFrog
    I have a windows phone app that allows the user to interact with it. Each interaction will always result in an async WCF call. In addition to that, some interactions will result in opening the browser, maps, email, etc... The problem is that, when hitting the back button, I sometime get the following error "An error (WebException) occurred while transmitting data over the HTTP channel." with the following stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelUtilities.ProcessGetResponseWebException(WebException webException, HttpWebRequest request, HttpAbortReason abortReason) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.CompleteGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.OnGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.<>c__DisplayClassa.<InvokeGetResponseCallback>b__8(Object state2) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.WaitCallback_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.doWork(Object o) at System.Threading.Timer.ring() My understanding is that it's happening because my app opened another app (browser, maps, etc) before it had the time to execute the EndMyAsyncMethod(System.IAsyncResult result). Fair enough... What's really annoying is that it seems it should get fixed by cloning the server-side method, only making it void with the following operation contract [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] but I'm still getting the error. What's worse is that the exception is thrown in a system-generated part of the code and, thus, cannot be manually caught causing the app to just crash. I simply don't understand the need to execute an Endxxx method when it's explicitely marked as OneWay and void. EDIT I did find a similar issue here. It does seem that it is related to the message getting to the service (not the client callback). My next question is: if I'm now calling a method marked AsyncPattern and OneWay, what exactly should I be waiting for on the client to be sure the message was transmitted successfully? This is new service definition: [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true, AsyncPattern = true)] IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s); void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r); And the implementation: public IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s) { // do some stuff return new CompletedAsyncResult<string>(""); } public void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r) { }

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  • How do you verify that 2 copies of a VB 6 executable came from the same code base?

    - by Tim Visher
    I have a program under version control that has gone through multiple releases. A situation came up today where someone had somehow managed to point to an old copy of the program and thus was encountering bugs that have since been fixed. I'd like to go back and just delete all the old copies of the program (keeping them around is a company policy that dates from before version control was common and should no longer be necessary) but I need a way of verifying that I can generate the exact same executable that is better than saying "The old one came out of this commit so this one should be the same." My initial thought was to simply MD5 hash the executable, store the hash file in source control, and be done with it but I've come up against a problem which I can't even parse. It seems that every time the executable is generated (method: Open Project. File Make X.exe) it hashes differently. I've noticed that Visual Basic messes with files every time the project is opened in seemingly random ways but I didn't think that would make it into the executable, nor do I have any evidence that that is indeed what's happening. To try to guard against that I tried generating the executable multiple times within the same IDE session and checking the hashes but they continued to be different every time. So that's: Generate Executable Generate MD5 Checksum: md5sum X.exe > X.md5 Verify MD5 for current executable: md5sum -c X.md5 Generate New Executable Verify MD5 for new executable: md5sum -c X.md5 Fail verification because computed checksum doesn't match. I'm not understanding something about either MD5 or the way VB 6 is generating the executable but I'm also not married to the idea of using MD5. If there is a better way to verify that two executables are indeed the same then I'm all ears. Thanks in advance for your help!

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  • Efficiently sending protocol buffer messages with http on an android platform

    - by Ben Griffiths
    I'm trying to send messages generated by Google Protocol Buffer code via a simple HTTP scheme to a server. What I have currently have implemented is here (forgive the obvious incompletion...): HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); String url = "http://192.168.1.69:8888/sdroidmarshal"; HttpPost postRequest = new HttpPost(url); String proto = offers.build().toString(); List<NameValuePair> nameValuePairs = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(1); nameValuePairs.add(new BasicNameValuePair("sdroidmsg", proto)); postRequest.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(nameValuePairs)); try { ResponseHandler<String> responseHandler = new BasicResponseHandler(); String responseBody = client.execute(postRequest, responseHandler); } catch (Throwable t) { } I'm not that experienced with communications over the internet and no more so with HTTP - while I do understand the basics... So my question, before I blindly develop the rest of the application around this, is whether or not this is particularly efficient? I ideally would like to keep messages small and I assume toString() adds some unnecessary formatting.

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  • Given a typical Rails 3 environment, why am I unable to execute any tests?

    - by Tom
    I'm working on writing simple unit tests for a Rails 3 project, but I'm unable to actually execute any tests. Case in point, attempting to run the test auto-generated by Rails fails: require 'test_helper' class UserTest < ActiveSupport::TestCase # Replace this with your real tests. test "the truth" do assert true end end Results in the following error: <internal:lib/rubygems/custom_require>:29:in `require': no such file to load -- test_helper (LoadError) from <internal:lib/rubygems/custom_require>:29:in `require' from user_test.rb:1:in `<main>' Commenting out the require 'test_helper' line and attempting to run the test results in this error: user_test.rb:3:in `<main>': uninitialized constant Object::ActiveSupport (NameError) The action pack gems appear to be properly installed and up to date: actionmailer (3.0.3, 2.3.5) actionpack (3.0.3, 2.3.5) activemodel (3.0.3) activerecord (3.0.3, 2.3.5) activeresource (3.0.3, 2.3.5) activesupport (3.0.3, 2.3.5) Ruby is at 1.9.2p0 and Rails is at 3.0.3. The sample dump of my test directory is as follows: /fixtures /functional /integration /performance /unit -- /helpers -- user_helper_test.rb -- user_test.rb test_helper.rb I've never seen this problem before - I've run the typical rake tasks for preparing the test environment. I have nothing out of the ordinary in my application or environment configuration files, nor have I installed any unusual gems that would interfere with the test environment. Edit Xavier Holt's suggestion, explicitly specifying the path to the test_helper worked; however, this revealed an issue with ActiveSupport. Now when I attempt to run the test, I receive the following error message (as also listed above): user_test.rb:3:in `<main>': uninitialized constant Object::ActiveSupport (NameError) But as you can see above, Action Pack is all installed and update to date.

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  • How to implement a 'safe' periodical executer without using the Rails helpers?

    - by Robbie
    I am very new to Ruby on Rails and was never really big on writing JavaScript, so the built in helpers were like a tiny silce of heaven. However I have recently learned that using the helper methods creates "obtrusive javascript" so I am doing a tiny bit of refactoring to get all this messy code out of my view. I'm also using the Prototype API to figure out what all these functions do. Right now, I have: <%= periodically_call_remote(:url => {:action => "tablerefresh", :id => 1 }, :frequency => '5', :complete => "load('26', 'table1', request.responseText)")%> Which produces: <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ new PeriodicalExecuter(function() {new Ajax.Request('/qrpsdrail/grids/tablerefresh/1', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, onComplete:function(request){load('26', 'table1', request.responseText)}, parameters:'authenticity_token=' + encodeURIComponent('dfG7wWyVYEpelfdZvBWk7MlhzZoK7VvtT/HDi3w7gPM=')})}, 5) //]]> </script> My concern is that the "encodeURIComponent" and the presence of "authenticity_token" are generated by Rails. I'm assuming these are used to assure the validity of a request. (Ensuring a request comes from a currently active session?) If that is the case, how can I implement this in application.js 'safely'? It seems that the built in method, although obtrusive, does add some beneficial security. Thanks, in advance, to all who answer.

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  • Servlet send image from server and save in client

    - by sangi
    Hi, I'm new and just developing on J2EE. I am modifying an existing application (an OpenSource project). I need to save an image on a client sent by the server, but I do not know how. This activity must be done in a transparent manner without affecting the existing operation of the application. From the tests done I get this error: java.lang.IllegalStateException: getWriter () has Already Been Called for this response. How should carry out this task, according to your own opinion? How do I save on the client, locally, the image? Update: Thanks for the answers. My problem is that: the image is generated on the server, but not for direct client request (there is no link to click on web page), the picture is composed using other services on the Internet. reconstruct the image on the server. This image must be sent to the client to be saved locally. so I'd like it to appear a window where you assign the destination image plus I'd like the rest of the application were not affected by this activity. The application is yet on production. Thank you very much for your response.

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  • Yii CGridView and dropdown filter

    - by Dmitriy Gunchenko
    I created dropdown filter, it's display, but don't worked right. As I anderstand trouble in search() method view: $this->widget('zii.widgets.grid.CGridView', array( 'dataProvider'=>$model->search(), 'filter' => $model, 'columns'=>array( array( 'name' => 'client_id', 'filter' => CHtml::listData(Client::model()->findAll(), 'client_id', 'name'), 'value'=>'$data->client->name' ), 'task' ) )); I have to tables, and they relations are shown down model: public function relations() { // NOTE: you may need to adjust the relation name and the related // class name for the relations automatically generated below. return array( 'client' => array(self::BELONGS_TO, 'Client', 'client_id'), ); } public function search() { // Warning: Please modify the following code to remove attributes that // should not be searched. $criteria=new CDbCriteria; $criteria->with = array('client'); $criteria->compare('task_id',$this->task_id); $criteria->compare('client_id',$this->client_id); $criteria->compare('name',$this->client->name); $criteria->compare('task',$this->task,true); $criteria->compare('start_date',$this->start_date,true); $criteria->compare('end_date',$this->end_date,true); $criteria->compare('complete',$this->complete); return new CActiveDataProvider($this, array( 'criteria'=>$criteria, )); }

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  • jboss cache as hibernate 2nd level - cluster node doesn't persist replicated data

    - by Sergey Grashchenko
    I'm trying to build an architecture basically described in user guide http://www.jboss.org/file-access/default/members/jbosscache/freezone/docs/3.2.1.GA/userguide_en/html/cache_loaders.html#d0e3090 (Replicated caches with each cache having its own store.) but having jboss cache configured as hibernate second level cache. I've read manual for several days and played with the settings but could not achieve the result - the data in memory (jboss cache) gets replicated across the hosts, but it's not persisted in the datasource/database of the target (not original) cluster host. I had a hope that a node might become persistent at eviction, so I've got a cache listener and attached it to @NoveEvicted event. I found that though I could adjust eviction policy to fully control it, no any persistence takes place. Then I had a though that I could try to modify CacheLoader to set "passivate" to true, but I found that in my case (hibernate 2nd level cache) I don't have a way to access a loader. I wonder if replicated data persistence is possible at all by configuration tuning ? If not, will it work for me to create some manual peristence in CacheListener (I could check whether the eviction event is local, and if not - persist it to hibernate datasource somehow) ? I've used mvcc-entity configuration with the modification of cacheMode - set to REPL_ASYNC. I've also played with the eviction policy configuration. Last thing to mention is that I've tested entty persistence and replication in project that has been generated with Seam. I guess it's not important though.

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  • How to join results from two different sets in LINQ?

    - by Inez
    Hi, I get some data about customers in my database with this method: public List<KlientViewModel> GetListOfKlientViewModel() { List<KlientViewModel> list = _klientRepository.List().Select(k => new KlientViewModel { Id = k.Id, Imie = k.Imie, Nazwisko = k.Nazwisko, Nazwa = k.Nazwa, SposobPlatnosci = k.SposobPlatnosci, }).ToList(); return list; } but also I have another method which counts value for extra field in KlientViewModel - field called 'Naleznosci'. I have another method which counts value for this field based on customers ids, it looks like this: public Dictionary<int, decimal> GetNaleznosc(List<int> klientIds) { return klientIds.ToDictionary(klientId => klientId, klientId => (from z in _zdarzenieRepository.List() from c in z.Klient.Cennik where z.TypZdarzenia == (int) TypyZdarzen.Sprzedaz && z.IdTowar == c.IdTowar && z.Sprzedaz.Data >= c.Od && (z.Sprzedaz.Data < c.Do || c.Do == null) && z.Klient.Id == klientId select z.Ilosc*(z.Kwota > 0 ? z.Kwota : c.Cena)).Sum() ?? 0); } So what I want to do is to join data from method GetNaleznosc with data generated in method GetListOfKlientViewModel. I call GetNaleznosc like this: GetNaleznosc(list.Select(k => k.Id).ToList()) but don't know what to do next.

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  • EMF ecore and xsd out of sync, how to resolve ?

    - by SeB
    Hi there, My application is using a model base on an xsd that have been converted to an ecore before generation of the java classes. One of my team member modified the .ecore metamodel in a previous version ,one attribute that used to be generated. He modified the attribute name but not the Extended MetaData specifying the element name used for xml persistance. <eStructuralFeatures xsi:type="ecore:EReference" name="javaDocsAndUserApi" upperBound="-1" eType="#//JavaDocsAndUserApi" containment="true" resolveProxies="false"> <eAnnotations source="http:///org/eclipse/emf/ecore/util/ExtendedMetaData"> <details key="kind" value="element"/> <details key="name" value="docsAndUserApi"/> </eAnnotations> </eStructuralFeatures> so we have an attribute name which is javaDocsAndUserApi and the persisted element named docsAndUserApi, and of course if I create change the attribute in the xsd to be named javaDocsAndUserApi, the ecore transformation will generate a metadata name javaDocsAndUserApi as well, which will break compatibility with previously persisted models. I have looked at xsd authoring guide to find an ecore:som_attribute that would allow me to specify which key to use in the xsd to force the metadata to be named docsAndUserApi during the xsd to ecore transformation but did not find anything. Does anybody have an idea to help me? Thank you.

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  • Jaxb Simplify Plugin

    - by wrm
    i try to use the simplify plugin to simplify the generated code. I have a defined type: <xsd:complexType name="typeWithReferencesProperty"> <xsd:choice maxOccurs="unbounded"> <xsd:annotation> <xsd:appinfo> <simplify:as-element-property/> </xsd:appinfo> </xsd:annotation> <xsd:element name="a" type="AttributeValueIntegerType"/> <xsd:element name="b" type="AttributeValueIntegerType"/> </xsd:choice> </xsd:complexType> but it does not work, as it results in the following error: compiler was unable to honor this as-element-property customization. It is attached to a wrong place, or its inconsistent with other bindings. i used exactly the configuration, i also have other jaxb plugins which work, so i am not quite sure, if the plugin is broken or something? has anybody managed to get this running?

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  • java servlet:response.sendRedirect() not giving illegal state exception if called after commit of re

    - by sahil garg
    after commit of response as here redirect statement should give exception but it is not doing so if this redirect statemnet is in if block.but it does give exception in case it is out of if block.i have shown same statement(with marked stars ) at two places below.can u please tell me reason for it. protected void doPost(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { // TODO Auto-generated method stub synchronized (noOfRequests) { noOfRequests++; } PrintWriter pw=null; response.setContentType("text/html"); response.setHeader("foo","bar"); //response is commited because of above statement pw=response.getWriter(); pw.print("hello : "+noOfRequests); //if i remove below statement this same statement is present in if block.so statement in if block should also give exception as this one do, but its not doing so.why? ***response.sendRedirect("http://localhost:8625/ServletPrc/login% 20page.html"); if(true) { //same statement as above ***response.sendRedirect("http://localhost:8625/ServletPrc/login%20page.html"); } else{ request.setAttribute("noOfReq", noOfRequests); request.setAttribute("name", new Name().getName()); request.setAttribute("GmailId",this.getServletConfig().getInitParameter("GmailId") ); request.setAttribute("YahooId",this.getServletConfig().getInitParameter("YahooId") ); RequestDispatcher view1=request.getRequestDispatcher("HomePage.jsp"); view1.forward(request, response); } }

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  • How does PATH environment affect my running executable from using msvcr90 to msvcr80 ???

    - by Runner
    #include <gtk/gtk.h> int main( int argc, char *argv[] ) { GtkWidget *window; gtk_init (&argc, &argv); window = gtk_window_new (GTK_WINDOW_TOPLEVEL); gtk_widget_show (window); gtk_main (); return 0; } I tried putting various versions of MSVCR80.dll under the same directory as the generated executable(via cmake),but none matched. Is there a general solution for this kinda problem? UPDATE Some answers recommend install the VS redist,but I'm not sure whether or not it will affect my installed Visual Studio 9, can someone confirm? Manifest file of the executable <assembly xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1" manifestVersion="1.0"> <trustInfo xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v3"> <security> <requestedPrivileges> <requestedExecutionLevel level="asInvoker" uiAccess="false"></requestedExecutionLevel> </requestedPrivileges> </security> </trustInfo> <dependency> <dependentAssembly> <assemblyIdentity type="win32" name="Microsoft.VC90.DebugCRT" version="9.0.21022.8" processorArchitecture="x86" publicKeyToken="1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b"></assemblyIdentity> </dependentAssembly> </dependency> </assembly> It seems the manifest file says it should use the MSVCR90, why it always reporting missing MSVCR80.dll? FOUND After spending several hours on it,finally I found it's caused by this setting in PATH: D:\MATLAB\R2007b\bin\win32 After removing it all works fine.But why can that setting affect my running executable from using msvcr90 to msvcr80 ???

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  • Entity framework generates values for NOT NULL columns which has default defined in db.

    - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem
    Hi I have a table Customer. One of the columns in table is DateCreated. This column is NOT NULL but default values is defined for this column in db. When I add new Customer using EF4 from my code. var customer = new Customer(); customer.CustomerName = "Hello"; customer.Email = "[email protected]"; // Watch out commented out. //customer.DateCreated = DateTime.Now; context.AddToCustomers(customer); context.SaveChanges(); Above code generates following query. exec sp_executesql N'insert [dbo].[Customers]([CustomerName], [Email], [Phone], [DateCreated], [DateUpdated]) values (@0, @1, null, @2, null) select [CustomerId] from [dbo].[Customers] where @@ROWCOUNT > 0 and [CustomerId] = scope_identity() ',N'@0 varchar(100),@1 varchar(100),@2 datetime2(7) ',@0='Hello',@1='[email protected]',@2='0001-01-01 00:00:00' And throws following error The conversion of a datetime2 data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range value. The statement has been terminated. Can you please tell me how NOT NULL columns which has default values at db level should not have values generated by EF? DB: DateCreated DATETIME NOT NULL DateCreated Properties in EF: Nullable: False Getter/Setter: public Type: DateTime DefaultValue: None Thanks.

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  • 'LINQ query plan' horribly inefficient but 'Query Analyser query plan' is perfect for same SQL!

    - by Simon_Weaver
    I have a LINQ to SQL query that generates the following SQL : exec sp_executesql N'SELECT COUNT(*) AS [value] FROM [dbo].[SessionVisit] AS [t0] WHERE ([t0].[VisitedStore] = @p0) AND (NOT ([t0].[Bot] = 1)) AND ([t0].[SessionDate] > @p1)',N'@p0 int,@p1 datetime', @p0=1,@p1='2010-02-15 01:24:00' (This is the actual SQL taken from SQL Profiler on SQL Server 2008.) The query plan generated when I run this SQL from within Query Analyser is perfect. It uses an index containing VisitedStore, Bot, SessionDate. The query returns instantly. However when I run this from C# (with LINQ) a different query plan is used that is so inefficient it doesn't even return in 60 seconds. This query plan is trying to do a key lookup on the clustered primary key which contains a couple million rows. It has no chance of returning. What I just can't understand though is that the EXACT same SQL is being run - either from within LINQ or from within Query Analyser yet the query plan is different. I've ran the two queries many many times and they're now running in isolation from any other queries. The date is DateTime.Now.AddDays(-7), but I've even hardcoded that date to eliminate caching problems. Is there anything i can change in LINQ to SQL to affect the query plan or try to debug this further? I'm very very confused!

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  • A GUID as the MySQL table's Primary Key or as a separate column

    - by Ben
    I have a multi-process program that performs, in a 2 hour period, 5-10 million inserts to a 34GB table within a single Master/Slave MySQL setup (plus an equal number of reads in that period). The table in question has only 5 fields and 3 (single field) indexes. The primary key is auto-incrementing. I am far from a DBA, but the database appears to be crippled during this two hour period. So, I have a couple of general questions. 1) How much bang will I get out of batching these writes into units of 10? Currently, I am writing each insert serially because, after writing, I immediately need to know, in my program, the resulting primary key of each insert. The PK is the only unique field presently and approximating the order of insertion with something like a Datetime field or a multi-column value is not acceptable. If I perform a bulk insert, I won't know these IDs, which is a problem. So, I've been thinking about turning the auto-increment primary key into a GUID and enforcing uniqueness. I've also been kicking around the idea of creating a new column just for the purposes of the GUID. I don't really see the what that achieves though, that the PK approach doesn't already offer. As far as I can tell, the big downside to making the PK a randomly generated number is that the index would take a long time to update on each insert (since insertion order would not be sequential). Is that an acceptable approach for a table that is taking this number of writes? Thanks, Ben

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  • Visual Studio and .NET programming

    - by Vit
    Hi, I just want to ask wheather I am right or not about .NET. So, .NET is new framework that enables you to easily implement new and old windows functions. It is similiar to java in the way that its also compiled into "bytecode", but its name is Common Language Infrastructure, or CLI. This language is interpreted by .NET Framework, so code generated by programming using .NET cannot be executed directly by CPU. Now, few languages can be compiled to CLI. First, it was Microsoft-developed C#, than J#, C++ others. I suspect that this is in general right, at least I hope I understand it right. But, what I am still missing is, can you write to machine code compiled code in C#? And, if using Visual Studio 2005, when I select Win32 project, it is compiled into machine code, so only thing you need to run this apps are windows dynamic-link libraries, since static libraries code is implemented into app durink linking phase. And those dynamic-link libraries are implemented in every windows installation, or provided by DirectX installations. But when I select CLR in Visual Studio 2005, than app is compiled into CLI code, and it first executes .NET framework, and than .NET framework executes that program, since its not in machine code. So, I am right? I ask becouse you can read these infos on the internet, but I have noone to tell me wheather I understand it right or not. Thanks.

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  • How to synchronize Silverlight clients with WCF?

    - by user564226
    Hi, this is probably only some conceptual problem, but I cannot seem to find the ideal solution. I'd like to create a Silverlight client application that uses WCF to control a third party application via some self written webservice. If there is more than one Silverlight client, all clients should be synchronized, i.e. parameter changes from one client should be propagated to all clients. I set up a very simple Silverlight GUI that manipulates parameters which are passed to the server (class inherits INotifyPropertyChanged): public double Height { get { return frameworkElement.Height; } set { if (frameworkElement.Height != value) { frameworkElement.Height = value; OnPropertyChanged("Height", value); } } } OnPropertyChanged is responsible for transferring data. The WCF service (duplex net.tcp) maintains a list of all clients and as soon as it receives a data packet (XElement with parameter change description) it forwards this very packet to all clients but the one the packet was received from. The client receives the package, but now I'm not sure, what's the best way to set the property internally. If I use "Height" (see above) a new change message would be generated and sent to all other clients a.s.o. Maybe I could use the data field (frameworkElement.Height) itself or a function - but I'm not sure whether there would arise problems with data binding later on. Also I don't want to simply copy parts of the code properties, to prevent bugs with redundant code. So what would you recommend? Thanks!

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  • PHP form processing - how to capture text from field that has variable Name/ID

    - by user80151
    I have a form that has a field pulled from the database as a dropdown. I need to get the text selected in the dropdown but I don't know in advance what the field ID will be. This is basically just a form that has already been generated. I don't need to pull anything from the database, it's already on this page. All I need to do is get the form information and email it, no writing to the database. I know how to do the _Request for the other fields based on the ID but I'm not sure how to do this one. The ID changes. It can be ID=1, ID-2, etc. I need to do something like: _REQUEST form element where ID is LIKE "ID[*]" or something similar. Any suggestions or links to tutorials? Here are a couple samples of what the dropdown renders on the page: <div class="wrapperAttribsOptions"> <h4 class="optionName back"><label class="attribsSelect" for="attrib- 1">Model</label></h4> <div class="back"> <select name="id[1]" id="attrib-1"> <option value="45">VC3-4C</option> <option value="1">VC3-4PG</option> <option value="3">VC3-4SG</option> <div class="wrapperAttribsOptions"> <h4 class="optionName back"><label class="attribsSelect" for="attrib-14">SPK Model</label></h4> <div class="back"> <select name="id[14]" id="attrib-14"> <option value="43">SPK-4</option> <option value="44">SPK-8</option> </select> TIA

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  • How to build a simulation of a login hardware token in .Net

    - by Michel
    Hi, i have a hardware token for remote login to some citrix environment. When i click the button on the device, i get an id and i can use that to login to the citrix farm. I can click the button as much as i like, and every time a new code gets generated, and they all work. Now i want to secure my private website likewise, but not with the hardware token, but with a 'token app' on my phone. So i run an app on my phone, generate a key, and use that to (partly) authenticate myself on the server. But here's the point: i don't know how it works! How can i generate 1, 2 or 100 keys at one time which i can see (on the server) are all valid, but without the server and the phone app having contact (the hardware token also is an 'offline' solution). Can you help me with a hint how i would do this? This is what i thought of so far: the phone app and the server app know (hardcoded) the same encryption key. The phone app encrypts the current time. The server app decrypts the string to the current time and if the diff between that time and the actual server time is less than 10 minutes it's an ok. Difficult for other users to fake a key, but encryption gives such nasty strings to enter, and the hardware token gives me nice things like 'H554TU8' And this is probably not how the real hardware token works, because the server and the phone app must 'know' the same encryption key. Michel

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