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  • VS 2008 C++ build output?

    - by STingRaySC
    Why when I watch the build output from a VC++ project in VS do I see: 1Compiling... 1a.cpp 1b.cpp 1c.cpp 1d.cpp 1e.cpp [etc...] 1Generating code... 1x.cpp 1y.cpp [etc...] The output looks as though several compilation units are being handled before any code is generated. Is this really going on? I'm trying to improve build times, and by using pre-compiled headers, I've gotten great speedups for each ".cpp" file, but there is a relatively long pause during the "Generating Code..." message. I do not have "Whole Program Optimization" nor "Link Time Code Generation" turned on. If this is the case, then why? Why doesn't VC++ compile each ".cpp" individually (which would include the code generation phase)? If this isn't just an illusion of the output, is there cross-compilation-unit optimization potentially going on here? There don't appear to be any compiler options to control that behavior (I know about WPO and LTCG, as mentioned above). EDIT: The build log just shows the ".obj" files in the output directory, one per line. There is no indication of "Compiling..." vs. "Generating code..." steps. EDIT: I have confirmed that this behavior has nothing to do with the "maximum number of parallel project builds" setting in Tools - Options - Projects and Solutions - Build and Run. Nor is it related to the MSBuild project build output verbosity setting. Indeed if I cancel the build before the "Generating code..." step, the ".obj" files will not exist for the most recent set of "compiled" files. E.g., if I cancel the build during "c.cpp" above, I will see only "a.obj" and "b.obj".

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  • 'LINQ query plan' horribly inefficient but 'Query Analyser query plan' is perfect for same SQL!

    - by Simon_Weaver
    I have a LINQ to SQL query that generates the following SQL : exec sp_executesql N'SELECT COUNT(*) AS [value] FROM [dbo].[SessionVisit] AS [t0] WHERE ([t0].[VisitedStore] = @p0) AND (NOT ([t0].[Bot] = 1)) AND ([t0].[SessionDate] > @p1)',N'@p0 int,@p1 datetime', @p0=1,@p1='2010-02-15 01:24:00' (This is the actual SQL taken from SQL Profiler on SQL Server 2008.) The query plan generated when I run this SQL from within Query Analyser is perfect. It uses an index containing VisitedStore, Bot, SessionDate. The query returns instantly. However when I run this from C# (with LINQ) a different query plan is used that is so inefficient it doesn't even return in 60 seconds. This query plan is trying to do a key lookup on the clustered primary key which contains a couple million rows. It has no chance of returning. What I just can't understand though is that the EXACT same SQL is being run - either from within LINQ or from within Query Analyser yet the query plan is different. I've ran the two queries many many times and they're now running in isolation from any other queries. The date is DateTime.Now.AddDays(-7), but I've even hardcoded that date to eliminate caching problems. Is there anything i can change in LINQ to SQL to affect the query plan or try to debug this further? I'm very very confused!

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  • Conditional row count in linq to nhibernate doesn't work

    - by Lucasus
    I want to translate following simple sql query into Linq to NHibernate: SELECT NewsId ,sum(n.UserHits) as 'HitsNumber' ,sum(CASE WHEN n.UserHits > 0 THEN 1 ELSE 0 END) as 'VisitorsNumber' FROM UserNews n GROUP BY n.NewsId My simplified UserNews class: public class AktualnosciUzytkownik { public virtual int UserNewsId { get; set; } public virtual int UserHits { get; set; } public virtual User User { get; set; } // UserId key in db table public virtual News News { get; set; } // NewsId key in db table } I've written following linq query: var hitsPerNews = (from n in Session.Query<UserNews>() group n by n.News.NewsId into g select new { NewsId = g.Key, HitsNumber = g.Sum(x => x.UserHits), VisitorsNumber = g.Count(x => x.UserHits > 0) }).ToList(); But generated sql just ignores my x => x.UserHits > 0 statement and makes unnecessary 'left outer join': SELECT news1_.NewsId AS col_0_0_, CAST(SUM(news0_.UserHits) AS INT) AS col_1_0_, CAST(COUNT(*) AS INT) AS col_2_0_ FROM UserNews news0_ LEFT OUTER JOIN News news1_ ON news0_.NewsId=news1_.NewsId GROUP BY news1_.NewsId How Can I fix or workaround this issue? Maybe this can be done better with QueryOver syntax?

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  • Prevent two users from editing the same data

    - by Industrial
    Hi everyone, I have seen a feature in different web applications including Wordpress (not sure?) that warns a user if he/she opens an article/post/page/whatever from the database, while someone else is editing the same data simultaneously. I would like to implement the same feature in my own application and I have given this a bit of thought. Is the following example a good practice on how to do this? It goes a little something like this: 1) User A enters a the editing page for the mysterious article X. The database tableEvents is queried to make sure that no one else is editing the same page for the moment, which no one is by then. A token is then randomly being generated and is inserted into a database table called Events. 1) User B also want's to make updates to the article X. Now since our User A already is editing the article, the Events table is queried and looks like this: | timestamp | owner | Origin | token | ------------------------------------------------------------ | 1273226321 | User A | article-x | uniqueid## | 2) The timestamp is being checked. If it's valid and less than say 100 seconds old, a message appears and the user cannot make any changes to the requested article X: Warning: User A is currently working with this article. In the meantime, editing cannot be done. Please do something else with your life. 3) If User A decides to go on and save his changes, the token is posted along with all other data to update the database, and toggles a query to delete the row with token uniqueid##. If he decides to do something else instead of committing his changes, the article X will still be available for editing in 100 seconds for User B Let me know what you think about this approach! Wish everyone a great weekend!

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  • OpenGL pixels drawn with each horizontal pair swapped

    - by Tim Kane
    I'm somewhat new to OpenGL though I'm fairly sure my problem lies in the pixel format being used, or how my texture is being generated... I'm drawing a texture onto a flat 2D quad using a 16bit RGB5_A1 pixel format, though I don't make use of any alpha at this stage. The problem I'm having is that each pair of horizontal pixel values have been swapped. That is... if the pixels positions should be in this order (assume 8x2 image) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 they are instead drawn as 1 0 3 2 5 4 7 6 Or, more clearly from this image (below). Left is what I get... Right is what I should get. . The question is... How have I ended up with this? Is there something wrong with the pixel format? Unlikely since the colours all appear correct, and I would expect all kinds of nasty if it were down to endian-ness. Suggestions greatly appreciated. Update: Turns out the problem was in my source renderer. Interestingly, I've avoided the problem entirely by using 32-bit textures (haven't tried 24-bit at this point).

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  • Google Maps API v3 not working

    - by user1496322
    I've been banging my head on the wall after going through the documentation on this several times! I can't seem to get past the API error to get the map to appear on my site. I am getting the following error message from the web page where I want the map to be displayed: ~~~~~~~~~~~ Google has disabled use of the Maps API for this application. The provided key is not a valid Google API Key, or it is not authorized for the Google Maps Javascript API v3 on this site. If you are the owner of this application, you can learn about obtaining a valid key here: https://developers.google.com/maps/documentation/javascript/tutorial#Obtaining_Key ~~~~~~~~~~~ I have (several times now) gone into my account and 1) enabled the Maps v3 API service. 2) Generated a new API key. and 3) added my allowed referrers to the key. (both www.domain.com and domain.com URLs) I have the following added to the head of the web page: < script src="http://maps.googleapis.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false&key=MY_API_KEY_HERE" type="text/JavaScript" language="JavaScript" And... I have the following javascript function that executes when a link is clicked on the page: alert("viewMap()"); var map = new GMap3(document.getElementById("map_canvas")); var geocoder = new GClientGeocoder(); var address = "1600 Amphitheatre Parkway, Mountain View"; alert("Calling getLatLng ..."); geocoder.getLatLng(address, function(point) { var latitude = point.y; var longitude = point.x; // do something with the lat lng alert("Lat:"+latitude+" - Lng:"+longitude); }); The initial 'viewMap' alert is displayed and then is followed by the 'Google has disbled use...' error message. The error console is also showing 'GMap3 is not defined'. Can anyone please assist with showing me the errors of my ways?!?!? Thank you in advance for any help you can provide. -Dennis

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  • Looking for all-in-one drm/installer/CD creation kit.

    - by user30997
    The company I work for has a download manager in place that handles distribution, DRM, installation of our products - when a user gets them off our website. However, we're using an clunky system for packaging and protecting our products when we do press releases or make retail CDs. Part of the antiquation problem is the fact that the automated system that works with the installer- and DRM-creation software we have is a disaster that needs to be put out of my misery. The list of products that we currently produce, that I would like a new system MUST be capable of producing: Retail CDs, with a certain level of obfuscation to make copying difficult. Downloadable installers that time out after a few hours of use of the product. After the time has expired, removing and reinstalling the product will leave you still blocked from use. Installers that will fail to work after a certain date. I'd love to be able to just feed a tool the directory where a complete product resides and have the installer generated with a couple command-line operations. (The command-line issue is non-negotiable this well be called by an automated tool.) A single-solution package would be far preferable. Software with royalty-based or per-unit based licensing is not an option.

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  • Adding a block of XML as child of a SimpleXMLElement object

    - by miCRoSCoPiC_eaRthLinG
    Hey all, I have this SimpleXMLElement object with a XML setup similar to the following... $xml <<< EOX <books> <book> <name>ABCD</name> </book> </books> EOX; $sx = new SimpleXMLElement( $xml ); Now I have a class named Book that contains info. about each book. The same class can also spit out the book info. in XML format akin the the above (the nested block).. example, $book = new Book( 'EFGH' ); $book->genXML(); ... will generate <book> <name>EFGH</name> </book> Now I'm trying to figure out a way by which I can use this generated XML block and append as a child of so that now it looks like... for example.. // Non-existent member method. For illustration purposes only. $sx->addXMLChild( $book->genXML() ); ...XML tree now looks like: <books> <book> <name>ABCD</name> </book> <book> <name>EFGH</name> </book> </books> From what documentation I have read on SimpleXMLElement, addChild() won't get this done for you as it doesn't support XML data as tag value. Any ideas on how I should go about this ? Thanks, m^e

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  • Yii CGridView and dropdown filter

    - by Dmitriy Gunchenko
    I created dropdown filter, it's display, but don't worked right. As I anderstand trouble in search() method view: $this->widget('zii.widgets.grid.CGridView', array( 'dataProvider'=>$model->search(), 'filter' => $model, 'columns'=>array( array( 'name' => 'client_id', 'filter' => CHtml::listData(Client::model()->findAll(), 'client_id', 'name'), 'value'=>'$data->client->name' ), 'task' ) )); I have to tables, and they relations are shown down model: public function relations() { // NOTE: you may need to adjust the relation name and the related // class name for the relations automatically generated below. return array( 'client' => array(self::BELONGS_TO, 'Client', 'client_id'), ); } public function search() { // Warning: Please modify the following code to remove attributes that // should not be searched. $criteria=new CDbCriteria; $criteria->with = array('client'); $criteria->compare('task_id',$this->task_id); $criteria->compare('client_id',$this->client_id); $criteria->compare('name',$this->client->name); $criteria->compare('task',$this->task,true); $criteria->compare('start_date',$this->start_date,true); $criteria->compare('end_date',$this->end_date,true); $criteria->compare('complete',$this->complete); return new CActiveDataProvider($this, array( 'criteria'=>$criteria, )); }

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  • Zend framework controller action helper

    - by guptanikhilchandra
    I am getting fatal error after adding the action helper class. I am trying to load layout corresponding to called layout. Following is my code snippet: First of all i added a helper class under application/controller/helpers: class Zend_Controller_Action_Helper_Layout extends Zend_Controller_Action_Helper_Abstract { public $pluginLoader; public function __construct() { // TODO Auto-generated Constructor $this->pluginLoader = new Zend_Loader_PluginLoader (); } public function preDispatch() { $bootstrap = $this->getActionController()->getInvokeArg('bootstrap'); $config = $bootstrap->getOptions(); $module = $this->getRequest()->getModuleName(); if (isset($config[$module]['resources']['layout']['layout'])) { $layoutScript = $config[$module]['resources']['layout']['layout']; $this->getActionController()->getHelper('layout')->setLayout($layoutScript); } } } Then i added a loader in bootstrap.php: protected function _initLayoutHelper() { $this->bootstrap('frontController'); Zend_Controller_Action_HelperBroker::addPath(APPLICATION_PATH .'/controllers/helpers'); $layout = Zend_Controller_Action_HelperBroker::addHelper(new Zend_Controller_Action_Helper_Layout()); } Following is my application.ini: [production] autoloaderNamespaces.tree = "Tree_" phpSettings.display_startup_errors = 0 phpSettings.display_errors = 0 includePaths.library = APPLICATION_PATH "/../library" bootstrap.path = APPLICATION_PATH "/Bootstrap.php" bootstrap.class = "Bootstrap" resources.frontController.controllerDirectory = APPLICATION_PATH "/controllers" resources.frontController.moduleDirectory = APPLICATION_PATH "/modules" resources.frontController.helperDirectory = APPLICATION_PATH "/controllers/helpers" resources.modules[] = "" contact.resources.frontController.defaultControllerName = "index" resources.layout.layoutPath = APPLICATION_PATH "/layouts/scripts" resources.layout.layout = layout admin.resources.layout.layout = admin admin.resources.layout.layoutPath = APPLICATION_PATH "/layouts/scripts" resources.view[] = [staging : production] [testing : production] phpSettings.display_startup_errors = 1 phpSettings.display_errors = 1 [development : production] phpSettings.display_startup_errors = 1 phpSettings.display_errors = 1 While running this code i am getting following errors: Warning: include(Zend\Controller\Action\Helper\LayoutLoader.php) [function.include]: failed to open stream: No such file or directory in D:\personal\proj\renovate\library\Zend\Loader.php on line 83 Warning: include() [function.include]: Failed opening 'Zend\Controller\Action\Helper\LayoutLoader.php' for inclusion (include_path='D:\personal\proj\renovate\application/../library;D:\personal\proj\renovate\library;.;C:\php5\pear') in D:\personal\proj\renovate\library\Zend\Loader.php on line 83 Fatal error: Class 'Zend_Controller_Action_Helper_LayoutLoader' not found in D:\personal\proj\renovate\application\Bootstrap.php on line 33 Kindly let me know, how can i come out from this issue. I am beginner in Zend Framework. Thanks Nikhil

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  • A GUID as the MySQL table's Primary Key or as a separate column

    - by Ben
    I have a multi-process program that performs, in a 2 hour period, 5-10 million inserts to a 34GB table within a single Master/Slave MySQL setup (plus an equal number of reads in that period). The table in question has only 5 fields and 3 (single field) indexes. The primary key is auto-incrementing. I am far from a DBA, but the database appears to be crippled during this two hour period. So, I have a couple of general questions. 1) How much bang will I get out of batching these writes into units of 10? Currently, I am writing each insert serially because, after writing, I immediately need to know, in my program, the resulting primary key of each insert. The PK is the only unique field presently and approximating the order of insertion with something like a Datetime field or a multi-column value is not acceptable. If I perform a bulk insert, I won't know these IDs, which is a problem. So, I've been thinking about turning the auto-increment primary key into a GUID and enforcing uniqueness. I've also been kicking around the idea of creating a new column just for the purposes of the GUID. I don't really see the what that achieves though, that the PK approach doesn't already offer. As far as I can tell, the big downside to making the PK a randomly generated number is that the index would take a long time to update on each insert (since insertion order would not be sequential). Is that an acceptable approach for a table that is taking this number of writes? Thanks, Ben

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  • Thread-safe data structure design

    - by Inso Reiges
    Hello, I have to design a data structure that is to be used in a multi-threaded environment. The basic API is simple: insert element, remove element, retrieve element, check that element exists. The structure's implementation uses implicit locking to guarantee the atomicity of a single API call. After i implemented this it became apparent, that what i really need is atomicity across several API calls. For example if a caller needs to check the existence of an element before trying to insert it he can't do that atomically even if each single API call is atomic: if(!data_structure.exists(element)) { data_structure.insert(element); } The example is somewhat awkward, but the basic point is that we can't trust the result of "exists" call anymore after we return from atomic context (the generated assembly clearly shows a minor chance of context switch between the two calls). What i currently have in mind to solve this is exposing the lock through the data structure's public API. This way clients will have to explicitly lock things, but at least they won't have to create their own locks. Is there a better commonly-known solution to these kinds of problems? And as long as we're at it, can you advise some good literature on thread-safe design? EDIT: I have a better example. Suppose that element retrieval returns either a reference or a pointer to the stored element and not it's copy. How can a caller be protected to safely use this pointer\reference after the call returns? If you think that not returning copies is a problem, then think about deep copies, i.e. objects that should also copy another objects they point to internally. Thank you.

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  • How can I automatically generate sql update scripts when some data is updated ?

    - by Brann
    I'd like to automatically generate an update script each time a value is modified in my database. In other words, if a stored procedure, or a query, or whatever updates column a with value b in table c (which as a pk column (i,j...k), I want to generate this : update c set a=b where i=... and j=... and k=... and store it somewhere (for example as a raw string in a table). To complicate things, I want the script to be generated only if the update has been made by a specific user. Good news is that I've got a primary key defined for all my tables. I can see how to do this using a trigger, but I would need to generate specific triggers for each table, and to update them each and every-time my schema changes. I guess there are some built-in ways to do this as SQL server sometimes need to store this kind of things (while using transactional replication for example), but couldn't find anything so far ... any ideas ? I'm also interested in ways to automatically generate triggers (probably using triggers - meta triggers, huh? - since I will need to update triggers automatically when the schema change)

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  • Editing a remote file on-the-fly with PHP

    - by user275074
    Hi, I have a requirement to edit a remote text file on-the-fly, the content of which currently stands at ~1Mb. I have tried a couple of approaches and both seem to be clunky or hog memory which I can't rely on. Thinking out logically what I'm trying to achieve is: FTP to a remote server. Download a copy of the file for backup purposes and store it somewhere locally. Open the remote file and add the necessary lines required. Remove lines from the remote file as per an array of un-required data generated from the local server. Is this possible? I've managed to code steps 1 and 2 but I'm having difficult with 3 and 4. The way I'm doing it now is to use fgets and return the whole string. Really, I don't want to do this as it involves manipulating and re-generating the whole string (and it's large) and then re-inserting it in between two markers in the remote file. Is there no way of manipulating the lines of text in the file on-the-fly?

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  • Set a callback function to a new window in javascript

    - by SztupY
    Is there an easy way to set a "callback" function to a new window that is opened in javascript? I'd like to run a function of the parent from the new window, but I want the parent to be able to set the name of this particular function (so it shouldn't be hardcoded in the new windows page). For example in the parent I have: function DoSomething { alert('Something'); } ... <input type="button" onClick="OpenNewWindow(linktonewwindow,DoSomething);" /> And in the child window I want to: <input type="button" onClick="RunCallbackFunction();" /> The question is how to create this OpenNewWindow and RunCallbackFunction functions. I though about sending the function's name as a query parameter to the new window (where the server side script generates the appropriate function calls in the generated child's HTML), which works, but I was thinking whether there is another, or better way to accomplish this, maybe something that doesn't even require server side tinkering. Pure javascript, server side solutions and jQuery (or other frameworks) are all welcomed.

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  • authentication question (security code generation logic)

    - by Stick it to THE MAN
    I have a security number generator device, small enough to go on a key-ring, which has a six digit LCD display and a button. After I have entered my account name and password on an online form, I press the button on the security device and enter the security code number which is displayed. I get a different number every time I press the button and the number generator has a serial number on the back which I had to input during the account set-up procedure. I would like to incorporate similar functionality in my website. As far as I understand, these are the main components: Generate a unique N digit aplha-numeric sequence during registration and assign to user (permanently) Allow user to generate an N (or M?) digit aplha-numeric sequence remotely For now, I dont care about the hardware side, I am only interested in knowing how I may choose a suitable algorithm that will allow the user to generate an N (or M?) long aplha-numeric sequence - presumably, using his unique ID as a seed Identify the user from the number generated in step 2 (which decryption method is the most robust to do this?) I have the following questions: Have I identified all the steps required in such an authentication system?, if not please point out what I have missed and why it is important What are the most robust encryption/decryption algorithms I can use for steps 1 through 3 (preferably using 64bits)?

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  • Syntax error results in blank page

    - by Philipp
    I am new to wicket and trying to get some things working. One thing that annoys me a lot is that I get a blank (0 chars of text) page whenever there is a syntax error on a page. Striped down example: Test.html header stuff: doctype ... html ... head ... body ... <span wicket:id="msgTest" id="message">MSG</span> footer stuff: /body ... /html Test.java public class Test extends WebPage { public Test() { add(new Label("msgTest", "Hello, World!")); } } This will output the page as expected. Now, lets introduce an error: header stuff: doctype ... html ... head ... body ... <span wicket:id="msgTest2" id="message">MSG</span> footer stuff: /body ... /html I changed the label-id to something different then what the source-file expects. If I run this code I get the already mentioned blank page. However, for every request to a page with such a syntax error I get an error report in the log-file of around 1000+ lines. This error-report is basically just wicket-generated html of a page which describes the error. This makes me wonder why wicket isn't displaying the error-stuff instead of the blank page. I'm not very experienced with wicket but to me it somehow looks like wicket is having trouble rendering its own error-page code. It would be nice to know how one goes about finding syntax-errors with wicket. Reading through a 1000+ line error-report for a small error like a misplaced character seems a bit tedious. Thanks in advance for guiding me into the right direction :) PS: wicket-version: 1.4.9 stage: development

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  • How do I include a frameset under CGI.pm?

    - by neversaint
    I want to have a cgi-script that does two things. Take the input from a form. Generate results base on the input values on a frame. I also want the frame to exist only after the result is generated/printed. Below is the simplified code of what I want to do. But somehow it doesn't work. What's the right way to do it? #!/usr/local/bin/perl use CGI ':standard'; print header; print start_html('A Simple Example'), h1('A Simple Example'), start_form, "What's your name? ",textfield('name'), p, "What's the combination?", p, checkbox_group(-name=>'words', -values=>['eenie','meenie','minie','moe'], -defaults=>['eenie','minie']), p, "What's your favorite color? ", popup_menu(-name=>'color', -values=>['red','green','blue','chartreuse']), p, submit, end_form, hr; if (param()) { # begin create the frame print <<EOF; <html><head><title>$TITLE</title></head> <frameset rows="10,90"> <frame src="$script_name/query" name="query"> <frame src="$script_name/response" name="response"> </frameset> EOF # Finish creating frame print "Your name is: ",em(param('name')), p, "The keywords are: ",em(join(", ",param('words'))), p, "Your favorite color is: ",em(param('color')), hr; } print end_html;

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  • How do you verify that 2 copies of a VB 6 executable came from the same code base?

    - by Tim Visher
    I have a program under version control that has gone through multiple releases. A situation came up today where someone had somehow managed to point to an old copy of the program and thus was encountering bugs that have since been fixed. I'd like to go back and just delete all the old copies of the program (keeping them around is a company policy that dates from before version control was common and should no longer be necessary) but I need a way of verifying that I can generate the exact same executable that is better than saying "The old one came out of this commit so this one should be the same." My initial thought was to simply MD5 hash the executable, store the hash file in source control, and be done with it but I've come up against a problem which I can't even parse. It seems that every time the executable is generated (method: Open Project. File Make X.exe) it hashes differently. I've noticed that Visual Basic messes with files every time the project is opened in seemingly random ways but I didn't think that would make it into the executable, nor do I have any evidence that that is indeed what's happening. To try to guard against that I tried generating the executable multiple times within the same IDE session and checking the hashes but they continued to be different every time. So that's: Generate Executable Generate MD5 Checksum: md5sum X.exe > X.md5 Verify MD5 for current executable: md5sum -c X.md5 Generate New Executable Verify MD5 for new executable: md5sum -c X.md5 Fail verification because computed checksum doesn't match. I'm not understanding something about either MD5 or the way VB 6 is generating the executable but I'm also not married to the idea of using MD5. If there is a better way to verify that two executables are indeed the same then I'm all ears. Thanks in advance for your help!

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  • State Animation on ListBox ItemTemplate

    - by Peanut
    I have a listbox which reads from Observable collection, and is ItemTemplate'ed: <DataTemplate x:Key="DataTemplate1"> <Grid x:Name="grid" Height="47.333" Width="577" Opacity="0.495"> <Image HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="10.668,8,0,8" Width="34" Source="{Binding ImageLocation}"/> <TextBlock Margin="56,8,172.334,8" TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="{Binding ApplicationName}" FontSize="21.333"/> <Grid x:Name="grid1" HorizontalAlignment="Right" Margin="0,10.003,-0.009,11.33" Width="26" Opacity="0" RenderTransformOrigin="0.5,0.5"> <Image HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" Margin="0" Source="image/downloads.png" Stretch="Fill" MouseDown="Image_MouseDown" /> </Grid> </Grid> </DataTemplate> <ListBox x:Name="searchlist" Margin="8" ItemTemplate="{DynamicResource DataTemplate1}" ItemsSource="{Binding SearchResults}" SelectionChanged="searchlist_SelectionChanged" ItemContainerStyle="{DynamicResource ListBoxItemStyle1}" /> In general, my question is "What is the easiest way to do Animation on Particular Items in this listbox As they are selected? Basically the image inside the "grid1" will be setting its opacity to 1, slowly. I would prefer to use states, but I do not know of any way to just tell blend and xaml to "When a selected item is changed, change the image opacity to 1 over a period of .3 seconds". Infact, I have been doing this in the .cs file using the VisualStateManager. Also, there is another issue. When the selected index is changed, we goto the CS file and look at SelectedItem. SelectedItem returns an instance of the Object in which it was bound to (The object inside the observable collection), and NOT an instance of the DataTemplate/ListItem etc. So how am I able to pull the correct image out of this list? State animation with VisualStateManager I can handle fine if its just normal things, but when it comes to generated listboxes' items, I'm lost. Thanks

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  • C# custom control to get internal text as string

    - by Ed Woodcock
    ok, I'm working on a custom control that can contain some javascript, and read this out of the page into a string field. This is a workaround for dynamic javascript inside an updatepanel. At the moment, I've got it working, but if I try to put a server tag inside the block: <custom:control ID="Custom" runat="server"> <%= ControlName.ClientID %> </custom:control> The compiler does not like it. I know these are generated at runtime, and so might not be compatible with what I'm doing, but does anyone have any idea how I can get that working? EDIT Error message is: Code blocks are not supported in this context EDIT 2 The control: [DataBindingHandler("System.Web.UI.Design.TextDataBindingHandler, System.Design, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a"), ControlValueProperty("Text"), DefaultProperty("Text"), ParseChildren(true, "Text"), AspNetHostingPermission(SecurityAction.LinkDemand, Level = AspNetHostingPermissionLevel.Minimal), AspNetHostingPermission(SecurityAction.InheritanceDemand, Level = AspNetHostingPermissionLevel.Minimal)] public class CustomControl : Control, ITextControl { [DefaultValue(""), Bindable(true), Localizable(true)] public string Text { get { return (string)(ViewState["Text"] ?? string.Empty); } set { ViewState["Text"] = value; } } }

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  • A regex I have working in Ruby doesn't in PHP; what could the cause be?

    - by Alex R
    I do not know ruby. I am trying to use the following regex that was generated by ruby (namely by http://www.a-k-r.org/abnf/ running on the grammar given rfc1738) in php. It is failing to match in php, but it is successfully matching in ruby. Does anyone see what differences between php's and ruby's handling of regexes that might explain this discrepancy? http:\/\/(?:(?:(?:(?:[0-9a-z]|[0-9a-z](?:[\x2d0-9a-z]?)*[0-9a-z])\x2e)?)*(?:[a-z]|[a-z](?:[\x2d0-9a-z]?)*[0-9a-z])|\d+\x2e\d+\x2e\d+\x2e\d+)(?::\d+)?(?:\/(?:(?:[!\x24'-\x2e0-9_a-z]|%[0-9a-f][0-9a-f]|[&:;=@])?)*(?:(?:\/(?:(?:[!\x24'-\x2e0-9_a-z]|%[0-9a-f][0-9a-f]|[&:;=@])?)*)?)*(?:\x3f(?:(?:[!\x24'-\x2e0-9_a-z]|%[0-9a-f][0-9a-f]|[&:;=@])?)*)?)?/i Since you all love regexes so much, how about an alternate solution. Given the ABNF in an rfc, I want a way (in php) to check if an arbitrary string is in the grammar. APG fails to compile on a 64-bit system, VTC is not Free, and I have not found any other such tools. I would also prefer not to use a regex, but it's the closest I've come to success.

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  • Building a control-flow graph from an AST with a visitor pattern using Java

    - by omegatai
    Hi guys, I'm trying to figure out how to implement my LEParserCfgVisitor class as to build a control-flow graph from an Abstract-Syntax-Tree already generated with JavaCC. I know there are tools that already exist, but I'm trying to do it in preparation for my Compilers final. I know I need to have a data structure that keeps the graph in memory, and I want to be able to keep attributes like IN, OUT, GEN, KILL in each node as to be able to do a control-flow analysis later on. My main problem is that I haven't figured out how to connect the different blocks together, as to have the right edge between each blocks depending on their nature: branch, loops, etc. In other words, I haven't found an explicit algorithm that could help me build my visitor. Here is my empty Visitor. You can see it works on basic langage expressions, like if, while and basic operations (+,-,x,^,...) public class LEParserCfgVisitor implements LEParserVisitor { public Object visit(SimpleNode node, Object data) { return data; } public Object visit(ASTProgram node, Object data) { data = node.childrenAccept(this, data); return data; } public Object visit(ASTBlock node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTStmt node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTAssignStmt node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTIOStmt node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTIfStmt node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTWhileStmt node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTExpr node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTAddExpr node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTFactExpr node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTMultExpr node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTPowerExpr node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTUnaryExpr node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTBasicExpr node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTFctExpr node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTRealValue node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTIntValue node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTIdentifier node, Object data) { } } Can anyone give me a hand? Thanks!

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  • Exception while hosting a WCF Service in a DependencyInjection Module ?

    - by Maciek
    Hello, I've written a small just-for-fun console project using Ninject, I'm pasting some of the code below just so that you get the idea : Program.cs using System; using Ninject; using Ninjectionn.Modules; // My namespace for my modules namespace Ninjections { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { IKernel kernel = new StandardKernel(); kernel.Load<ServicesHostModule>(); Console.ReadKey(); } } } ServicesHostModule.cs using System; using System.ServiceModel; using Ninject; using Ninject.Modules; namespace Ninjections.Modules { public class ServicesHostModule : INinjectModule { #region INinjectModule Members public string Name { get { return "ServicesHost"; }} public void OnLoad(IKernel kernel) { if(m_host != null) m_host.Close(); else m_host = new ServiceHost(typeof(WCFTestService)); m_host.Open(); // (!) EXCEPTION HERE } public void OnUnLoad(IKernel kernel) { m_host.Close(); } #endregion } } ITestWCFService.cs using System.ServiceModel; namespace Ninjections.Modules { [ServiceContract] public interface ITestWCFService { [OperationContract] string GetString1(); [OperationContract] string GetString2(); } } An auto-generated App.config is in the ServicesHostModule project. I've "added" an existing item (the app config) as link in the main project. Q: at the m_host.Open(); line, an InvalidOperationException occurs. The message says : "Service "Ninjections.Modules.TestWCFService" has zero application endopints. What's wrong?

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  • 'WebException' error on back button even when calling 'void' async method

    - by BlazingFrog
    I have a windows phone app that allows the user to interact with it. Each interaction will always result in an async WCF call. In addition to that, some interactions will result in opening the browser, maps, email, etc... The problem is that, when hitting the back button, I sometime get the following error "An error (WebException) occurred while transmitting data over the HTTP channel." with the following stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelUtilities.ProcessGetResponseWebException(WebException webException, HttpWebRequest request, HttpAbortReason abortReason) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.CompleteGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.OnGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.<>c__DisplayClassa.<InvokeGetResponseCallback>b__8(Object state2) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.WaitCallback_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.doWork(Object o) at System.Threading.Timer.ring() My understanding is that it's happening because my app opened another app (browser, maps, etc) before it had the time to execute the EndMyAsyncMethod(System.IAsyncResult result). Fair enough... What's really annoying is that it seems it should get fixed by cloning the server-side method, only making it void with the following operation contract [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] but I'm still getting the error. What's worse is that the exception is thrown in a system-generated part of the code and, thus, cannot be manually caught causing the app to just crash. I simply don't understand the need to execute an Endxxx method when it's explicitely marked as OneWay and void. EDIT I did find a similar issue here. It does seem that it is related to the message getting to the service (not the client callback). My next question is: if I'm now calling a method marked AsyncPattern and OneWay, what exactly should I be waiting for on the client to be sure the message was transmitted successfully? This is new service definition: [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true, AsyncPattern = true)] IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s); void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r); And the implementation: public IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s) { // do some stuff return new CompletedAsyncResult<string>(""); } public void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r) { }

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