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  • How can I clear explosions in my function?

    - by hustlerinc
    Hi I have a function to place bombs, and a for loop that places explosions on the tiles where possible. My problem is that I can't remove the explosions after a while. I've tried everything I can come up with so now I turn here as a last resort. The function looks like this: function Bomb(){ var placebomb = false; if(placeBomb && player.bombs != 0){ map[player.Y][player.X].object = 2; var bombX = player.X; var bombY = player.Y; placeBomb = false; player.bombs--; setTimeout(explode, 3000); } function explode(){ var explodeNorth = true; var explodeEast = true; var explodeSouth = true; var explodeWest = true; map[bombY][bombX].explosion = 1; delete map[bombY][bombX].object; for(i=0;i<=player.bombRadius;i++){ if(explodeNorth && map[bombY-i][bombX]){ if(!map[bombY-i][bombX].wall){ if(!map[bombY-i][bombX].object){ map[bombY-i][bombX].explosion = 1; } else var explodeNorth = false; delete map[bombY-i][bombX].object; map[bombY-i][bombX].explosion = 1; } else var explodeNorth = false; } if(explodeEast && map[bombY][bombX+i]){ if(!map[bombY][bombX+i].wall){ if(!map[bombY][bombX+i].object){ map[bombY][bombX+i].explosion = 1; } else var explodeEast = false; delete map[bombY][bombX+i].object; map[bombY][bombX+i].explosion = 1; } else var explodeEast = false; } if(explodeSouth && map[bombY+i][bombX]){ if(!map[bombY+i][bombX].wall){ if(!map[bombY+i][bombX].object){ map[bombY+i][bombX].explosion = 1; } else var explodeSouth = false; delete map[bombY+i][bombX].object; map[bombY+i][bombX].explosion = 1; } else var explodeSouth = false; } if(explodeWest && map[bombY][bombX-i]){ if(!map[bombY][bombX-i].wall){ if(!map[bombY][bombX-i].object){ map[bombY][bombX-i].explosion = 1; } else var explodeWest = false; delete map[bombY][bombX-i].object; map[bombY][bombX-i].explosion = 1; } else var explodeWest = false; } } player.bombs++; } } If anyone can think of a good way to remove the explosion after a delay please help.

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  • Work around for calculating age using the SQL Server DateDiff function

    Have you ever wanted to compute age, but the results from the DATEDIFF function seemed to be wrong some of the time? This tip covers why the DATEDIFF function does not always reliably compute age. New! SQL Monitor 3.0 Red Gate's multi-server performance monitoring and alerting tool gets results from Day One.Simple to install and easy to use – download a free trial today.

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  • shared transaction ID function among multiple threads

    - by poly
    I'm writing an application in C that requires multiple threads to request a unique transaction ID from a function as shown below; struct list{ int id; struct list *next }; function generate_id() { linked-list is built here to hold 10 millions } my concern is how to sync between two or more threads so that transaction id can be unique among them without using mutex, is this possible? Please share anything even if I need to change linked list to something else.

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  • Stairway to MDX - Level 2: The Ordinal Function

    Business Intelligence Architect Bill Pearson introduces the MDX Ordinal Function, as a means for generating lists and for conditionally presenting calculations. He also demonstrates the use of the function in creating datasets to support report parameter picklists. Develop seamlessly between Management Studio and Visual StudioSQL Connect is a Visual Studio add-in that makes it easy to keep your database and Visual Studio project in sync.

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  • Entity Framework, Foreign Keys and EntityKeys

    - by Greg
    I've got a problem with the Entity Framework and the ForeignKeys. I've got a table "BC_Message_Assets" which has 3 FK's (MessageId, AssetId and StatusId). I create my "MessageAsset" like this MessageAsset messageAsset = new MessageAsset(); messageAsset.MessageStatusReference.EntityKey = new EntityKey("MyEntities.MessageStatusSet", "Id", 1); messageAsset.AssetReference.EntityKey = new EntityKey("MyEntities.AssetSet", "Id", 1); messageAsset.MessageReference.EntityKey = new EntityKey("MyEntities.MessageSet", "Id", messageId); context.AddToMessageAssetSet(messageAsset); context.SaveChanges(); But I got the following exception : The INSERT statement conflicted with the FOREIGN KEY constraint \"FK_BC_Message_Assets_BC_Assets\". The conflict occurred in database \"Test\", table \"dbo.BC_Assets\", column 'Id'.\r\nThe statement has been terminated. When I look at the query, I notice that the parameter value for AssetId is "0" despite that I provided "1" to the EntityKey. Here's the generated query : exec sp_executesql N'insert [dbo].[BC_Message_Assets]([MessageId], [AssetId], [CompletionTime], [StatusId]) values (@0, @1, null, @2) ',N'@0 int,@1 int,@2 int',@0=47,@1=0,@2=1 I can't explain what happens. I hardcoded "1" in the EntityKey and I received "0" in the query ?

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  • Why is the compiler not selecting my function-template overload in the following example?

    - by Steve Guidi
    Given the following function templates: #include <vector> #include <utility> struct Base { }; struct Derived : Base { }; // #1 template <typename T1, typename T2> void f(const T1& a, const T2& b) { }; // #2 template <typename T1, typename T2> void f(const std::vector<std::pair<T1, T2> >& v, Base* p) { }; Why is it that the following code always invokes overload #1 instead of overload #2? void main() { std::vector<std::pair<int, int> > v; Derived derived; f(100, 200); // clearly calls overload #1 f(v, &derived); // always calls overload #1 } Given that the second parameter of f is a derived type of Base, I was hoping that the compiler would choose overload #2 as it is a better match than the generic type in overload #1. Are there any techniques that I could use to rewrite these functions so that the user can write code as displayed in the main function (i.e., leveraging compiler-deduction of argument types)?

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  • Entity Framework - Foreign key constraints not added for inherited entity

    - by Tri Q
    Hello, It appears to me that a strange phenomenon is occurring with inherited entities (TPT) in EF4. I have three entities. 1. Asset 2. Property 3. Activity Property is a derived-type of Asset. Property has many activities (many-to-many) When modeling this in my EDMX, everything seems fine until I try to insert a new Property into the database. If the property does not contain any Activity, it works, but all hell breaks loose when I add some new activities to the new Property. As it turns out after 2 days of crawling the web and fiddling around, I noticed that in the EF store (SSDL) some of the constraints between entities were not picked up during the update process. Property_Activity table which links properties and activities show only one constraint FK_Property_Activity_Activity but FK_Property_Activity_Property was missing. I knew this is an Entity Framework anomoly because when I switched the relationship in the database to: Asset <-- Asset_Activity <-- Activity After an update, all foreign key constraints are picked up and the save is successful, with or without activities in the new property. Is this intended or a bug in EF? How do I get around this problem? Should I abandon inheritance altogether?

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  • Access Expression problem: it's too complex, so how do I turn it in to a function?

    - by Mike
    Access 2007 is telling me that my new expression is to complex. It used to work when we had 10 service levels, but now we have 19! Great! I've asked this question in SuperUser and someone suggested I try it over here. Suggestions are I turn it in to a function - but I'm not sure where to begin and what the function would look like. My expression is checking the COST of our services in the [PriceCharged] field and then assigning the appropriate HOURS [Servicelevel] when I perform a calculation to work out how much REVENUE each colleague has made when working for a client. The [EstimatedTime] field stores the actual hours each colleague has worked. [EstimatedTime]/[ServiceLevel]*[PriceCharged] Below is the breakdown of my COST to HOURS expression. I've put them on different lines to make it easier to read - please do not be put off by the length of this post, it's all the same info in the end. Many thanks,Mike ServiceLevel: IIf([pricecharged]=100(COST),6(HOURS), IIf([pricecharged]=200 Or [pricecharged]=210,12.5, IIf([pricecharged]=300,19, IIf([pricecharged]=400 Or [pricecharged]=410,25, IIf([pricecharged]=500,31, IIf([pricecharged]=600,37.5, IIf([pricecharged]=700,43, IIf([pricecharged]=800 Or [pricecharged]=810,50, IIf([pricecharged]=900,56, IIf([pricecharged]=1000,62.5, IIf([pricecharged]=1100,69, IIf([pricecharged]=1200 Or [pricecharged]=1210,75, IIf([pricecharged]=1300 Or [pricecharged]=1310,100, IIf([pricecharged]=1400,125, IIf([pricecharged]=1500,150, IIf([pricecharged]=1600,175, IIf([pricecharged]=1700,200, IIf([pricecharged]=1800,225, IIf([pricecharged]=1900,250,0)))))))))))))))))))

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  • Building a many-to-many db schema using only an unpredictable number of foreign keys

    - by user1449855
    Good afternoon (at least around here), I have a many-to-many relationship schema that I'm having trouble building. The main problem is that I'm only working with primary and foreign keys (no varchars or enums to simplify things) and the number of many-to-many relationships is not predictable and can increase at any time. I looked around at various questions and couldn't find something that directly addressed this issue. I split the problem in half, so I now have two one-to-many schemas. One is solved but the other is giving me fits. Let's assume table FOO is a standard, boring table that has a simple primary key. It's the one in the one-to-many relationship. Table BAR can relate to multiple keys of FOO. The number of related keys is not known beforehand. An example: From a query FOO returns ids 3, 4, 5. BAR needs a unique key that relates to 3, 4, 5 (though there could be any number of ids returned) The usual join table does not work: Table FOO_BAR primary_key | foo_id | bar_id | Since FOO returns 3 unique keys and here bar_id has a one-to-one relationship with foo_id. Having two join tables does not seem to work either, as it still can't map foo_ids 3, 4, 5 to a single bar_id. Table FOO_TO_BAR primary_key | foo_id | bar_to_foo_id | Table BAR_TO_FOO primary_key | foo_to_bar_id | bar_id | What am I doing wrong? Am I making things more complicated than they are? How should I approach the problem? Thanks a lot for the help.

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  • Mapping composite foreign keys in a many-many relationship in Entity Framework

    - by Kirk Broadhurst
    I have a Page table and a View table. There is a many-many relationship between these two via a PageView table. Unfortunately all of these tables need to have composite keys (for business reasons). Page has a primary key of (PageCode, Version), View has a primary key of (ViewCode, Version). PageView obviously enough has PageCode, ViewCode, and Version. The FK to Page is (PageCode, Version) and the FK to View is (ViewCode, Version) Makes sense and works, but when I try to map this in Entity framework I get Error 3021: Problem in mapping fragments...: Each of the following columns in table PageView is mapped to multiple conceptual side properties: PageView.Version is mapped to (PageView_Association.View.Version, PageView_Association.Page.Version) So clearly enough, EF is having a complain about the Version column being a common component of the two foreign keys. Obviously I could create a PageVersion and ViewVersion column in the join table, but that kind of defeats the point of the constraint, i.e. the Page and View must have the same Version value. Has anyone encountered this, and is there anything I can do get around it? Thanks!

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  • MonoRail ActiveRecord - The UPDATE statement conflicted with the FOREIGN KEY SAME TABLE

    - by Justin
    Hey all, I'm new to MonoRail and ActiveRecord and have inherited an application that I need to modify. I have a Category table (Id, Name) and I'm adding a ParentId FK which references the Id in the same table so that you can have parent/child category relationships. I tried adding this to my Category model class: [Property] public int ParentId { get; set; } I also tried doing it this way: [BelongsTo("ParentId")] public Category Parent { get; set; } When I call a method to get all parent categories (they have a null ParentId), it works fine: public static Category[] GetParentCategories() { var criteria = DetachedCriteria.For<Core.Models.Category>(); return (FindAllByProperty("ParentId", null)); } However, when I call a method to get all child categories within a specific category, it errors out: public static Category[] GetChildCategories(int parentId) { var criteria = DetachedCriteria.For<Core.Models.Category>(); return (FindAllByProperty("ParentId", parentId)); } The error is: "The UPDATE statement conflicted with the FOREIGN KEY SAME TABLE constraint \"FK_Category_ParentId\". The conflict occurred in database \"UCampus\", table \"dbo.Category\", column 'Id'.\r\nThe statement has been terminated." I'm hard-coding in the parentId parameter as 1 and I'm 100% sure it exists as an id in the Category table so I don't know why it'd give this error. Also, I'm doing a select, not an update, so what is going on here?? Thanks for any input on this, Justin

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  • NHibernate, legacy database, foreign keys that aren't

    - by Joe
    The project I'm working on has a legacy database with lots of information in it that's used to alter application behavior. Basically I'm stuck with something that I have to be super careful about changing. Onto my problem. In this database is a table and in this table is a column. This column contains integers and most of the pre-existing data have a value of zero for this column. The problem is that this column is in fact a foreign key reference to another entity, it was just never defined as such in the database schema. Now in my new code I defined my Fluent-NHibernate mapping to treat this column as a Reference so that I don't have to deal with entity id's directly in my code. This works fine until I come across an entity that has a value of 0 in this column. NHibernate thinks that a value of 0 is a valid reference. When my code tries to use that referenced object I get an ObjectNotFoundException as obviously there is no object in my database with an id of 0. How can I, either through mapping or some kind of convention (I'm using Fluent-nhibernate), get NHibernate to treat id's that are 0 the same as if it was NULL?

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  • javascript - How to pass an argument in a function call?

    - by Fernando SBS
    function rp_marcadesmarcaFarm(valor) { FM_log(3, "marcadesmarcaFarm called = "+valor); for (i = 0; i < farmList.length; i++) { var arr = farmList[i].split("|"); var xy = arr[0].split(","); var fvillageId = xy2id(parseInt(xy[0]), parseInt(xy[1])); GM_setValue("farmAtivada_"+suffixLocal+fvillageId, valor); GM_setValue("farmAtivada_"+suffixLocal+i, valor); }; reloadFarmTable(); }; function createLinkButton(text, title, jsFunction, value) { var button = dom.cn("a"); button.href = "javascript:void(0)"; button.innerHTML = text; button.title = title; if (jsFunction != null) { button.addEventListener('click', jsFunction, false); } return button; } createLinkButton("X", T('CHECKFARM_M'), rp_marcadesmarcaFarm(true)); apparently the last argument (rp_marcadesmarcaFarm(true)) when invoking the createLinkButton is not working. If I change to: createLinkButton("X", T('CHECKFARM_M'), rp_marcadesmarcaFarm); it works. So how can I pass the (true) variable to the third argument of createLinkButton?

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  • Entity Framework: Auto-updating foreign key when setting a new object reference

    - by Adrian Grigore
    Hi, I am porting an existing application from Linq to SQL to Entity Framework 4 (default code generation). One difference I noticed between the two is that a foreign key property are not updated when resetting the object reference. Now I need to decide how to deal with this. For example supposing you have two entity types, Company and Employee. One Company has many Employees. In Linq To SQL, setting the company also sets the company id: var company=new Company(ID=1); var employee=new Employee(); Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==0); employee.Company=company; Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==1); //Works fine! In Entity Framework (and without using any code template customization) this does not work: var company=new Company(ID=1); var employee=new Employee(); Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==0); employee.Company=company; Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==1); //Throws, since CompanyID was not updated! How can I make EF behave the same way as LinqToSQL? I had a look at the default code generation T4 template, but I could not figure out how to make the necessary changes.

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  • Synchronizing one or more databases with a master database - Foreign keys

    - by Ikke
    I'm using Google Gears to be able to use an application offline (I know Gears is deprecated). The problem I am facing is the synchronization with the database on the server. The specific problem is the primary keys or more exactly, the foreign keys. When sending the information to the server, I could easily ignore the primary keys, and generate new ones. But then how would I know what the relations are. I had one sollution in mind, bet the I would need to save all the pk for every client. What is the best way to synchronize multiple client with one server db. Edit: I've been thinking about it, and I guess seqential primary keys are not the best solution, but what other possibilities are there? Time based doesn't seem right because of collisions which could happen. A GUID comes to mind, is that an option? It looks like generating a GUID in javascript is not that easy. I can do something with natural keys or composite keys. As I'm thinking about it, that looks like the best solution. Can I expect any problems with that?

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  • is it better to test if a function is needed inside or outside of it?

    - by b0x0rz
    what is the best practice? call a function then return if you test for something, or test for something then call? i prefer the test inside of function because it makes an easier viewing of what functions are called. for example: protected void Application_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.FixURLCosmetics(); } and private void FixURLCosmetics() { HttpContext context = HttpContext.Current; if (!context.Request.HttpMethod.ToString().Equals("GET", StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase)) { // if not a GET method cancel url cosmetics return; }; string url = context.Request.RawUrl.ToString(); bool doRedirect = false; // remove > default.aspx if (url.EndsWith("/default.aspx", StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase)) { url = url.Substring(0, url.Length - 12); doRedirect = true; } // remove > www if (url.Contains("//www")) { url = url.Replace("//www", "//"); doRedirect = true; } // redirect if necessary if (doRedirect) { context.Response.Redirect(url); } } is this good: if (!context.Request.HttpMethod.ToString().Equals("GET", StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase)) { // if not a GET method cancel url cosmetics return; }; or should that test be done in Application_BeginRequest? what is better? thnx

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  • Foreign key relationships in Entity Framework

    - by Anders Svensson
    I'm trying to add an object created from Entity Data Model classes. I have a table called Users, which has turned into a User EDM class. And I also have a table Pages, which has become a Page EDM class. These tables have a foreign key relationship, so that each page is associated with many users. Now I want to be able to add a page, but I can't get how to do it. I get a nullreference exception on Users below. I'm still rather confused by all this, so I'm sure it's a simple error, but I just can't see how to do it. Also, by the way, the compiler requires that I set PageID in the object initializer, even though this field is set to be an automatic id in the table. Am I doing it right just setting it to 0, expecting it to be updated automatically in the table when saved, or how should I do that? Any help appreciated! The method in question: private Page GetPage(User currentUser) { string url = _request.ServerVariables["url"].ToLower(); var userPages = from p in _context.PageSet where p.Users.UserID == currentUser.UserID select p; var existingPage = userPages.FirstOrDefault(e => e.Url == url); //Could be combined with above, but hard to read? if (existingPage != null) return existingPage; Page page = new Page() { Count = 0, Url = _request.ServerVariables["url"].ToLower(), PageID = 0, //Only initial value, changed later? }; _context.AddToPageSet(page); page.Users.UserID = currentUser.UserID; //Here's the problem... return page; }

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  • Attaching methods to prototype from within constructor function

    - by Matthew Taylor
    Here is the textbook standard way of describing a 'class' or constructor function in JavaScript, straight from the Definitive Guide to JavaScript: function Rectangle(w,h) { this.width = w; this.height = h; } Rectangle.prototype.area = function() { return this.width * this.height; }; I don't like the dangling prototype manipulation here, so I was trying to think of a way to encapsulate the function definition for area inside the constructor. I came up with this, which I did not expect to work: function Rectangle(w,h) { this.width = w; this.height = h; this.constructor.prototype.area = function() { return this.width * this.height; }; } I didn't expect this to work because the this reference inside the area function should be pointing to the area function itself, so I wouldn't have access to width and height from this. But it turns out I do! var rect = new Rectangle(2,3); var area = rect.area(); // great scott! it is 6 Some further testing confirmed that the this reference inside the area function actually was a reference to the object under construction, not the area function itself. function Rectangle(w,h) { this.width = w; this.height = h; var me = this; this.constructor.prototype.whatever = function() { if (this === me) { alert ('this is not what you think');} }; } Turns out the alert pops up, and this is exactly the object under construction. So what is going on here? Why is this not the this I expect it to be?

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  • WPF & Linq To SQL binding ComboBox to foreign key

    - by ZeroDelta
    I'm having trouble binding a ComboBox to a foreign key in WPF using Linq To SQL. It works fine when displaying records, but if I change the selection on the ComboBox, that change does not seem to affect the property to which it is bound. My SQL Server Compact file has three tables: Players (PK is PlayerID), Events (PK is EventID), and Matches (PK is MatchID). Matches has FKs for the the other two, so that a match is associated with a player and an event. My window for editing a match uses a ComboBox to select the Event, and the ItemsSource is set to the result of a LINQ query to pull all of the Events. And of course the user should be able to select the Event based on EventName, not EventID. Here's the XAML: <ComboBox x:Name="cboEvent" DisplayMemberPath="EventName" SelectedValuePath="EventID" SelectedValue="{Binding Path=EventID, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" /> And some code-behind from the Loaded event handler: var evt = from ev in db.Events orderby ev.EventName select ev; cboEvent.ItemsSource = evt.ToList(); var mtch = from m in db.Matches where m.PlayerID == ((Player)playerView.CurrentItem).PlayerID select m; matchView = (CollectionView)CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(mtch); this.DataContext = matchView; When displaying matches, this works fine--I can navigate from one match to the next and the EventName is shown correctly. However, if I select a new Event via this ComboBox, the CurrentItem of the CollectionView doesn't seem to change. I feel like I'm missing something stupid! Note: the Player is selected via a ListBox, and that selection filters the matches displayed--this seems to be working fine, so I didn't include that code. That is the reason for the "PlayerID" reference in the LINQ query

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  • Is it possible to return a list of numbers from a Sybase function?

    - by ps_rs4
    I'm trying to overcome a very serious performance issue in which Sybase refuses to use the primary key index on a large table because one of the required fields is specified indirectly through another table - or, in other words; SELECT ... FROM BIGTABLE WHERE KFIELD = 123 runs in ms but SELECT ... FROM BIGTABLE, LTLTBL WHERE KFIELD = LTLTBL.LOOKUP AND LTLTBL.UNIQUEID = 'STRINGREPOF123' takes 30 - 40 seconds. I've managed to work around this first problem by using a function that basically lets me do this; SELECT ... FROM BIGTABLE WHERE KFIELD = MYFUNC('STRINGREPOF123') which also runs in ms. The problem, however, is that this approach only works when there is a single value returned by MYFUNCT but I have some cases where it may return 2 or 3 values. I know that the SQL SELECT ... FROM BIGTABLE WHERE KFIELD IN (123,456,789) also returns in millis so I'd like to have a function that returns a list of possible values rather than just a single one - is this possible? Sadly the application is running on Sybase ASA 9. Yes I know it is old and is scheduled to be refreshed but there's nothing I can do about it now so I need logic that will work with this version of the DB. Thanks in advance for any assistance on this matter.

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  • Objective C: Function returning correct data for the first time of call and null for other times

    - by Kooshal Bhungy
    Hi all, Am a beginner in objective C, i am implementing a function that would query a web server and display the returning string in console. I am calling the function (getDatafromServer) repeatedly in a loop. The problem is that the first time am getting the value whereas the other times, it returns me a (null) in console... I've searched about memory management and check out on the forums but none have worked. Can you please guys tell me where am wrong in the codes below? Thanks in advance.... @implementation RequestThread +(void)startthread:(id)param{ while (true) { //NSLog(@"Test threads"); sleep(5); NSLog(@"%@",[self getDatafromServer]); } } +(NSString *) getDatafromServer{ NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSString *myRequestString = @"name=Hello%20&[email protected]"; NSData *myRequestData = [NSData dataWithBytes:[myRequestString UTF8String] length:[myRequestString length]]; NSMutableURLRequest *request = [[NSMutableURLRequest alloc] initWithURL: [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://192.168.1.32/gs/includes/widget/getcalls.php?user=asdasd&passw=asdasdasd"]]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [request setHTTPBody: myRequestData]; [request setValue:@"application/x-www-form-urlencoded" forHTTPHeaderField:@"content-type"]; NSData *returnData = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:nil error:nil]; NSString *myString = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:[returnData bytes]]; [myRequestString release]; [request release]; [returnData release]; return myString; [pool release]; } @end

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  • How to override part of an overload function in JavaScript

    - by Guan Yuxin
    I create a class with a function like this var Obj=function(){this.children=[];this.parent=null;}//a base class Obj.prototype.index=function(child){ // the index of current obj if(arguments.length==0){ return this.parent?this.parent.index(this):0; } // the index of a child matchs specific obj [to be override] return -1; } basically it is just an overload function composed of index() and index(child). Then I create a sub class,SubObj or whatever, inherits from Obj SubObj.prototype.prototype=Obj; Now, it's time to override the index(child) function,however, index() is also in the function an I don't want to overwrite it too. One solution is to write like this var Obj=function(){this.children=[];this.parent=null;}//a base class Obj.prototype.index=function(child){ // the index of current obj if(arguments.length==0){ return this.parent?this.parent.index(this):0; } // the index of a child matchs specific obj [to be override] return this._index(this); } Obj.prototype._index=function(this){ return -1; } SubObj.prototype._index=function(this){/* overwriteing */} But this will easily mislead other coders as _index(child) should be both private(should not be used except index() function) and public(is an overload function of index(),which is public) you guys have better idea?

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  • NHibernate not dropping foreign key constraints.

    - by Kendrick
    I'm new to NHibernate, so this is probably my mistake, but when I use: schema.Create(true, true); I get: SchemaExport [(null)]- There is already an object named 'XXX' in the database. System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: There is already an object named 'XXX' in the database. I grabbed the SQL code nHibernate was using, ran it directly from MSSMS, and recieved similar errors. Looking into it, the generated code is not properly dropping the foreign key constraints. The drop looks like this: if exists (select 1 from sysobjects where id = OBJECT_ID(N'dbo[FK22212EAFBFE4C58]') AND parent_obj = OBJECT_ID('YYY')) alter table dbo.YYY drop constraint FK22212EAFBFE4C58 Doing a "select OBJECT_ID(N'dbo[FK22212EAFBFE4C58]')" I get null. If I take out the "dbo" (i.e. "select OBJECT_ID(N'[FK22212EAFBFE4C58]')") then the ID is returned. So, my question is, why is nHibernate adding the dbo, and why does that prevent the object from being returned (since the table owning the constraint is dbo.XXX) One of my mapping files: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <hibernate-mapping namespace="CanineApp.Model" assembly="CanineApp.Model" xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2"> <class name="MedicalLog" table="MedicalLog" schema="dbo"> <id name="MedicalLogID" type="Int64"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="InvoiceAmount" type="Decimal" not-null="true" /> ... <many-to-one name="Canine" class="Canine" column="CanineID" not-null="true" fetch="join" /> <many-to-one name="TreatmentCategory" class="TreatmentCategory" column="TreatmentCategoryID" not-null="true" access="field.camelcase-underscore" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping>

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