Search Results

Search found 11639 results on 466 pages for 'numerical methods'.

Page 401/466 | < Previous Page | 397 398 399 400 401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408  | Next Page >

• IEnumerator seems to be effecting all objects, and not one at a time

  - by PFranchise

  Hey, I am trying to alter an attribute of an object. I am setting it to the value of that same attribute stored on another table. There is a one to many relationship between the two. The product end is the one and the versions is the many. Right now, both these methods that I have tried have set all the products returned equal to the final version object. So, in this case they are all the same. I am not sure where the issue lies. Here are my two code snipets, both yield the same result. int x = 1 IEnumerator<Product> ie = productQuery.GetEnumerator(); while (ie.MoveNext()) { ie.Current.RSTATE = ie.Current.Versions.First(o => o.VersionNumber == x).RSTATE; x++; } and foreach (var product in productQuery) { product.RSTATE = product.Versions.Single(o => o.VersionNumber == x).RSTATE; x++; } The versions table holds information for previous products, each is distinguished by the version number. I know that it will start at 1 and go until it reaches the current version, based on my query returning the proper number of products. Thanks for any advice.

  Read the article

• Can't use method from class in other file

  - by user1833848

  I am not able to use one of my methods that i implemented in my tableviewcell file in my tableview controller implementation. I tried searching the web and xcode help with no luck. My codes looks like this: TableViewController.h: #import TableViewCell.h @interface TableViewController : UITableViewController @property (nonatomic, strong) IBOutlet UIBarButtonItem *A1Buy; @property (nonatomic, getter = isUserInteractionEnabled) BOOL userInteractionEnabled; - (IBAction)A1Buy:(UIBarButtonItem *)sender; TableViewController.m: @implementation A1ViewController @synthesize A1Buy = _A1Buy; @synthesize userInteractionEnabled; - (IBAction)A1Buy:(UIBarButtonItem *)sender { [TableViewCell Enable]; //this is where it gives an error } TableViewCell.h: @interface TableViewCell : UITableViewCell { BOOL Enable; BOOL Disable; } @property (nonatomic, getter = isUserInteractionEnabled) BOOL userInteractionEnabled; TableViewCell.m: @implementation TableViewCell; @synthesize userInteractionEnabled; - (BOOL) Enable { return userInteractionEnabled = YES; } - (BOOL) Disable { return userInteractionEnabled = NO; } As you can see i am trying to enable user interaction with a button, but Xcode only gives me errors like "class does not have this method" and stuff like that. All files are importet correctly so thats not why. Would appreciate any help. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Deleting items from datagrid (xml)

  - by Tonz

  Hello, I have a datagrid buttoncolumn which acts as delete buttons for my xml nodes. The elements are simply displayed in a boundcolumn, so there names get displayed. Each item generated gets a unique id (each time one is made id+++). My question his how can i remove a item (the entire element node with that certain id) when i click on one of the buttons in the bound column? <root> <element id="0"> <name>One</name> </element> <element id="1"> <name>Two</name> </element> </root> protected void dg_DeleteCommand(object sender, DataGridCommandEventArgs e) { XmlFunctions.Remove(index); }/*dg_DeleteCommand*/ (function on other class, where all my xml methods are written) public static void Remove(string index) { XmlDocument XMLDoc = new XmlDocument(); XMLDoc.Load(XMLFile); XPathNavigator nav = XMLDoc.CreateNavigator(); var node = nav.SelectSingleNode("/test/one[@id='" +???+ "']"); node.DeleteSelf(); XMLDoc.Save(XMLFile); } Edit: added datagrid <asp:View ID="viewDelete" runat="server"> <asp:DataGrid ID="dgDelete runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False" OnDeleteCommand="dg_DeleteCommand"> <Columns> <asp:BoundColumn DataField="name" HeaderText="names" /> <asp:ButtonColumn ButtonType="PushButton" Text="Delete" CommandName="Delete" ></asp:ButtonColumn> </Columns> </asp:DataGrid> </asp:View>

  Read the article

• Implementing inotifycollectionchanged interface

  - by George

  Hello, I need to implement a collection with special capabilities. In addition, I want to bind this collection to a ListView, Therefore I ended up with the next code (I omitted some methods to make it shorter here in the forum): public class myCollection<T> : INotifyCollectionChanged { private Collection<T> collection = new Collection<T>(); public event NotifyCollectionChangedEventHandler CollectionChanged; public void Add(T item) { collection.Insert(collection.Count, item); OnCollectionChange(new NotifyCollectionChangedEventArgs(NotifyCollectionChangedAction.Add, item)); } protected virtual void OnCollectionChange(NotifyCollectionChangedEventArgs e) { if (CollectionChanged != null) CollectionChanged(this, e); } } I wanted to test it with a simple data class: public class Person { public string GivenName { get; set; } public string SurName { get; set; } } So I created an instance of myCollection class as follows: myCollection<Person> _PersonCollection = new myCollection<Person>(); public myCollection<Person> PersonCollection { get { return _PersonCollection; } } The problem is that the ListView does not update when the collection updates although I implemented the INotifyCollectionChanged interface. I know that my binding is fine (in XAML) because when I use the ObservableCollecion class instead of myCollecion class like this: ObservableCollection<Person> _PersonCollection = new ObservableCollection<Person>(); public ObservableCollection<Person> PersonCollection { get { return _PersonCollection; } } the ListView updates What is the problem?

  Read the article

• Is there a Python module for handling Python object addresses?

  - by cool-RR

  (When I say "object address", I mean the string that you type in Python to access an object. For example 'life.State.step'. Most of the time, all the objects before the last dot will be packages/modules, but in some cases they can be classes or other objects.) In my Python project I often have the need to play around with object addresses. Some tasks that I have to do: Given an object, get its address. Given an address, get the object, importing any needed modules on the way. Shorten an object's address by getting rid of redundant intermediate modules. (For example, 'life.life.State.step' may be the official address of an object, but if 'life.State.step' points at the same object, I'd want to use it instead because it's shorter.) Shorten an object's address by "rooting" a specified module. (For example, 'garlicsim_lib.simpacks.prisoner.prisoner.State.step' may be the official address of an object, but I assume that the user knows where the prisoner package is, so I'd want to use 'prisoner.prisoner.State.step' as the address.) Is there a module/framework that handles things like that? I wrote a few utility modules to do these things, but if someone has already written a more mature module that does this, I'd prefer to use that. One note: Please, don't try to show me a quick implementation of these things. It's more complicated than it seems, there are plenty of gotchas, and any quick-n-dirty code will probably fail for many important cases. These kind of tasks call for battle-tested code. UPDATE: When I say "object", I mostly mean classes, modules, functions, methods, stuff like these. Sorry for not making this clear before.

  Read the article

• How can I achieve this kind of relationship (inheritance, composition, something else)?

  - by Tim

  I would like to set up a foundation of classes for an application, two of which are person and student. A person may or may not be a student and a student is always a person. The fact that a student “is a” person led me to try inheritance, but I can't see how to make it work in the case where I have a DAO that returns an instance of person and I then want to determine if that person is a student and call student related methods for it. class Person { private $_firstName; public function isStudent() { // figure out if this person is a student return true; // (or false) } } class Student extends Person { private $_gpa; public function getGpa() { // do something to retrieve this student's gpa return 4.0; // (or whatever it is) } } class SomeDaoThatReturnsPersonInstances { public function find() { return new Person(); } } $myPerson = SomeDaoThatReturnsPersonInstances::find(); if($myPerson->isStudent()) { echo 'My person\'s GPA is: ', $myPerson->getGpa(); } This obviously doesn't work, but what is the best way to achieve this effect? Composition doesn't sond right in my mind because a person does not “have a” student. I'm not looking for a solution necessarily but maybe just a term or phrase to search for. Since I'm not really sure what to call what I'm trying to do, I haven't had much luck. Thank you!

  Read the article

• Call instance method with objc_msgSend

  - by user772349

  I'm trying to use the objc_msgSend method to call some method dynamically. Say I want call some method in Class B from Class A and there are two methods in class B like: - (void) instanceTestWithStr1:(NSString *)str1 str2:(NSString *)str1; + (void) methodTestWithStr1:(NSString *)str1 str2:(NSString *)str1; And I can call the class method like this in Class A successfully: objc_msgSend(objc_getClass("ClassB"), sel_registerName("methodTestWithStr1:str2:"), @"111", @"222"); And I can call the instance method like this in Class A successfully as well: objc_msgSend([[objc_getClass("ClassB") alloc] init], sel_registerName("instanceTestWithStr1:str2:"), @"111", @"222"); But the thing is to get a instance of Class B I have to call "initWithXXXXX:XXXXXX:XXXXXX" instead of "init" so that to pass some necessary parameters to class B to do the init stuff. So I stored a instance of ClassB in class A as variable: self.classBInstance = [[ClassB alloc] initWithXXXXX:XXXXXX:XXXXXX]; And then I call the method like this (successfully): The problem is, I want to call a method by simply applying the classname and the method sel like "ClassName" and "SEL" and then call it dynamically: If it's a class method. then call it like: objc_msgSend(objc_getClass("ClassName"), sel_registerName("SEL")); If it's a instance method, find the existing class instance variable in the calling class then: objc_msgSend([self.classInstance, sel_registerName("SEL")); So I want to know if there is any way to: Check if a class has a given method (I found "responseToSelector" will be the one) Check if a given method in class method or instance method (maybe can use responseToSelector as well) Check if a class has a instance variable of a given class So I can call a instance method like: objc_msgSend(objc_getClassInstance(self, "ClassB"), sel_registerName("SEL"));

  Read the article

• Global State and Singletons Dependency injection

  - by Manu

  this is a problem i face lot of times when i am designing a new app i'll use a sample problem to explain this think i am writing simple game.so i want to hold a list of players. i have few options.. 1.use a static field in some class private static ArrayList<Player> players = new ArrayList<Integer>(); public Player getPlayer(int i){ return players.get(i); } but this a global state 2.or i can use a singleton class PlayerList{ private PlayerList instance; private PlayerList(){...} public PlayerList getInstance() { if(instance==null){ ... } return instance; } } but this is bad because it's a singleton 3.Dependency injection class Game { private PlayerList playerList; public Game(PlayerList list) { this.list = list; } public PlayerList getPlayerList() { return playerList; } } this seems good but it's not, if any object outside Game need to look at PlayerList (which is the usual case) i have to use one of the above methods to make the Game class available globally. so I just add another layer to the problem. didn't actually solve anything. what is the optimum solution ? (currently i use Singleton approach)

  Read the article

• Scope of Groovy's ExpandoMetaClass?

  - by TicketMonster

  Groovy exposes an ExpandoMetaClass that allows you to dynamically add instance and class methods/properties to a POJO. I would like to use it to add an instance method to one of my Java classes: public class Fizz { // ...etc. } Fizz fizz = new Fizz(); fizz.metaClass.doStuff = { String blah -> fizz.buzz(blah) } This would be the equivalent to refactoring the Fizz class to have: public class Fizz { // ctors, getters/setters, etc... public void doStuff(String blah) { buzz(blah); } } My question: Does this add doStuff(String blah) to only this particular instance of Fizz? Or do all instances of Fizz now have a doStuff(String blah) instance method? If the former, how do I get all instances of Fizz to have the doStuff instance method? I know that if I made the Groovy: fizz.metaClass.doStuff << { String blah -> fizz.buzz(blah) } Then that would add a static class method to Fizz, such as Fizz.doStuff(String blah), but that's not what I want. I just want all instances of Fizz to now have an instance method called doStuff. Ideas?

  Read the article

• Understanding Basic Prototyping & Updating Key/Value pairs

  - by JordanD

  First time poster, long time lurker. I'm trying to learn some more advanced features of .js, and have two ojectives based on the pasted code below: I would like to add methods to a parent class in a specific way (by invoking prototype). I intend to update the declared key/value pairs each time I make an associated method call. execMTAction as seen in TheSuper will execute each function call, regardless. This is by design. Here is the code: function TheSuper(){ this.options = {componentType: "UITabBar", componentName: "Visual Browser", componentMethod: "select", componentValue: null}; execMTAction(this.options.componentType, this.options.componentName, this.options.componentMethod, this.options.componentValue); }; TheSuper.prototype.tapUITextView = function(val1, val2){ this.options = {componentType: "UITextView", componentName: val1, componentMethod: "entertext", componentValue: val2}; }; I would like to execute something like this (very simple): theSuper.executeMTAction(); theSuper.tapUITextView("a", "b"); Unfortunately I am unable to overwrite the "this.options" in the parent, and the .tapUITextView method throws an error saying it cannot find executeMTAction. All I want to do, like I said, is to update the parameters in the parent, then have executeMTAction run each time I make any method call. That's it. Any thoughts? I understand this is basic but I'm coming from a long-time procedural career and .js seems to have this weird confluence of oo/procedural that I'm having a bit of difficulty with. Thanks for any input!

  Read the article

• jquery dialog calls a server side method with button parameters

  - by Chiefy

  Hello all, I have a gridview control with delete asp:ImageButton for each row of the grid. What I would like is for a jquery dialog to pop up when a user clicks the delete button to ask if they are sure they want to delete it. So far I have the dialog coming up just fine, Ive got buttons on that dialog and I can make the buttons call server side methods but its getting the dialog to know the ID of the row that the user has selected and then passing that to the server side code. The button in the page row is currently just an 'a' tag with the id 'dialog_link'. The jquery on the page looks like this: $("button").button(); $("#DeleteButton").click(function () { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "ManageUsers.aspx/DeleteUser", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { // Replace the div's content with the page method's return. $("#DeleteButton").text(msg.d); } }); }); // Dialog $('#dialog').dialog({ autoOpen: false, width: 400, modal: true, bgiframe: true }); // Dialog Link $('#dialog_link').click(function () { $('#dialog').dialog('open'); return false; }); The dialog itself is just a set of 'div' tags. Ive thought of lots of different ways of doing this (parameter passing, session variable etc...) but cant figure out how to get any of them working. Any ideas are most welcome As always, thanks in advance to those who contribute.

  Read the article

• Temporarily disable vim plugin without relaunching

  - by simont

  I'm using c-support in Vim. One of it's features is the automatic comment expansion. When I'm pasting code into Vim from an external editor, the comments are expanded (which gives me double-comments and messes up the paste - see below for example). I'd like to be able to disable the plugin, paste, then re-enable it, without relaunching Vim. I'm not sure if this is possible. The SO questions here, here and here all describe methods to disable plugins, but they all require me to close Vim, mess with my .vimrc or similar, and relaunch; if I have to close Vim, I might as well cat file1 >> myfile; vim myfile, then shift the lines internally, which will be just as quick. Is it possible to disable a plugin while running vim without relaunching, preferably in a way which allows me to map a hot-key toggle-plugin (so re-sourcing ~/.vimrc is alright; that's mappable to a hotkey [I imagine, haven't tried it yet])? Messed up comments: /* * * Authors: * * A Name * * * * Copyright: * * A Name, 2012 * */ EDIT: It turns out you can :set paste, :set nopaste (which, to quote :help paste, will "avoid unexpected effects [while pasting]". (See the comments). However, I'm still curious whether you can disable/enable a plugin as per the original question, so I shall leave the question open.

  Read the article

• Split a string by comma, quote and full-stop.. with a few exceptions

  - by dunc

  I've got a lot of text, similar to the following paragraph, which I'd like to split into words without punctuation (', ", ,, ., newline etc).. with a few exceptions. Initially considered endemic to the Chalakudy River system in Kerala state, southern India, but now recognised to have a wider distribution in surrounding drainages including the Periyar, Manimala, and Pamba river though the Manimala data may be questionable given it seems to be the type locality of P. denisonii. In the Achankovil River basin it occurs sympatrically, and sometimes syntopically, with P. denisonii. Wild stocks may have dwindled by as much as 50% in the last 15 years or so with collection for the aquarium trade largely held responsible although habitats are also being degraded by pollution from agricultural and domestic sources, plus destructive fishing methods involving explosives or organic toxins. The text refers to P. denisonii which is a species of fish. It's an abbreviation of Genus species. I would like this reference to be one word. So, for instance, this is the kind of array I'd like to see: Array ( ... [44] given [45] it [46] seems [47] to [48] be [49] the [50] type [51] locality [52] of [53] P. denisonii [54] In [55] the ... ) The only things that distinguish these species references such as P. denisonii from a new sentence like end. New are: The P (for Puntius, as in the P. in the aforementioned example) is only ever one letter, always a capital the d (as in . denisonii) is always either a lower case letter or an apostrophe (') What regexp can I use with preg_split to give me such an array? I've tried a simple explode( " ", $array ) but it doesn't do the job at all. Thanks in advance,

  Read the article

• How to override jquery's show() and hide() functions

  - by Max Williams

  hi all Short version of question: see title Long version of question: I've used jquery's show() and hide() functions extensively in my code and just encountered a bit of a problem: they work by changing the display attribute of the element to 'block' or 'none' respectively, so that if you have somethin that has display: inline and then hide and show it, you've changed its display to block, which screws up the layout in a couple of cases. In my code, whenever i want something to be hidden initially i give it a class 'hidden'. This class is simply {display: none}. I'd like the change show and hide to remove or add this class, instead of directly changing the display attribute, so that if you add the hidden class and then remove it again (ie hide and show something) then it's back to exactly how it was to start off with (since adding a class overrides the attributes rather than directly changing them). Something like this (this is a little pseucodey as i don't know how to set the function up properly - let's assume that 'this' is the object that show/hide was called on) function show(){ this.removeClass("hidden"); } function hide(){ this.addClass("hidden"); } how and where would i go about overriding the jquery methods? (I'm not a javascript expert) thanks - max

  Read the article

• Vector Usage in MPI(C++)

  - by lsk1985

  I am new to MPI programming,stiil learning , i was successful till creating the Derived data-types by defining the structures . Now i want to include Vector in my structure and want to send the data across the Process. for ex: struct Structure{ //Constructor Structure(): X(nodes),mass(nodes),ac(nodes) { //code to calculate the mass and accelerations } //Destructor Structure() {} //Variables double radius; double volume; vector<double> mass; vector<double> area; //and some other variables //Methods to calculate some physical properties Now using MPI i want to sent the data in the structure across the processes. Is it possible for me to create the MPI_type_struct vectors included and send the data? I tried reading through forums, but i am not able to get the clear picture from the responses given there. Hope i would be able to get a clear idea or approach to send the data PS: i can send the data individually , but its an overhead of sending the data using may MPI_Send/Recieve if we consider the domain very large(say 10000*10000)

  Read the article

• How can I pass an array resulting from a Perl method by reference?

  - by arareko

  Some XML::LibXML methods return arrays instead of references to arrays. Instead of doing this: $self->process_items($xml->findnodes('items/item')); I want to do something like: $self->process_items(\$xml->findnodes('items/item')); So that in process_items() I can dereference the original array instead of creating a copy: sub process_items { my ($self, $items) = @_; foreach my $item (@$items) { # do something... } } I can always store the results of findnodes() into an array and then pass the array reference to my own method, but let's say I want to try a reduced version of my code. Is that the correct syntax for passing the method results or should I use something different? Thanks! EDIT: Now suppose I want to change process_items() to process_item() so I can do stuff on a single element of the referenced array inside a loop. Something like: $self->process_item($_) for ([ $xml->findnodes('items/item') ]); This doesn't work as process_item() is executed only once because a single value is passed to the for loop (the reference to the array from findnodes()). What's the proper way of using $_ in this case?

  Read the article

• Placing and removing element on array trough object

  - by Chris

  Hello, Lets assume i have 2 methods 1 that places a element on the array and one that removes it. const int Max = 10; int[] table= new int[Max]; I would like to call it up like this: s1.Place(5); // 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 s1.Place(9); // 5 9 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 s1.Remove(9); // 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 I would only like to use : using system for this. The result i get right now when i run the program is s1 = "nameofprogram" "name of class object" Normally i should get 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 to begin with. Any ideas how i can exactly add or remove those elements on the array? public void Place(int g) { if (top == Max) { throw new Exception("Stack overflow..."); } else { table[top] = g; top++; } .... Best Regards.

  Read the article

• Is it possible in SQLAlchemy to filter by a database function or stored procedure?

  - by Rico Suave

  We're using SQLalchemy in a project with a legacy database. The database has functions/stored procedures. In the past we used raw SQL and we could use these functions as filters in our queries. I would like to do the same for SQLAlchemy queries if possible. I have read about the @hybrid_property, but some of these functions need one or more parameters, for example; I have a User model that has a JOIN to a bunch of historical records. These historical records for this user, have a date and a debit and credit field, so we can look up the balance of a user at a specific point in time, by doing a SUM(credit) - SUM(debit) up until the given date. We have a database function for that called dbo.Balance(user_id, date_time). I can use this to check the balance of a user at a given point in time. I would like to use this as a criterium in a query, to select only users that have a negative balance at a specific date/time. selection = users.filter(coalesce(Users.status, 0) == 1, coalesce(Users.no_reminders, 0) == 0, dbo.pplBalance(Users.user_id, datetime.datetime.now()) < -0.01).all() This is of course a non-working example, just for you to get the gist of what I'd like to do. The solution looks to be to use hybrd properties, but as I mentioned above, these only work without parameters (as they are properties, not methods). Any suggestions on how to implement something like this (if it's even possible) are welcome. Thanks,

  Read the article

• C# property exactly the same, defined in two places

  - by Sarah Vessels

  I have the following classes: Defect - represents a type of data that can be found in a database FilterQuery - provides a way of querying the database by setting simple Boolean filters Both Defect and FilterQuery implement the same interface: IDefectProperties. This interface specifies particular fields that are in the database. Different classes have methods that return lists of Defect instances. With FilterQuery, you specify some filters for the particular properties implemented as part of IDefectProperties, and then you run the query and get back a list of Defect instances. My problem is that I end up implementing some properties exactly the same in FilterQuery and Defect. The two are inherently different classes, they just share some of the same properties. For example: public DateTime SubmitDateAsDate { get { return DateTime.Parse(SubmitDate); } set { SubmitDate = value.ToString(); } } This is a property required by IDefectProperties that depends on a different property, SubmitDate, which returns a string instead of a DateTime. Now SubmitDate is implemented differently in Defect and FilterQuery, but SubmitDateAsDate is exactly the same. Is there a way that I can define SubmitDateAsDate in only place, but both Defect and FilterQuery provide it as a property? FilterQuery and Defect already inherit from two different classes, and it wouldn't make sense for them to share an ancestor anyway, I think. I am open to suggestions as to my design here as well.

  Read the article

• Is `super` local variable?

  - by Michael

  // A : Parent @implementation A -(id) init { // change self here then return it } @end A A *a = [[A alloc] init]; a. Just wondering, if self is a local variable or global? If it's local then what is the point of self = [super init] in init? I can successfully define some local variable and use like this, why would I need to assign it to self. -(id) init { id tmp = [super init]; if(tmp != nil) { //do stuff } return tmp; } b. If [super init] returns some other object instance and I have to overwrite self then I will not be able to access A's methods any more, since it will be completely new object? Am I right? c. super and self pointing to the same memory and the major difference between them is method lookup order. Am I right? sorry, don't have Mac to try, learning theory as for now...

  Read the article

• Best practices to deal with "slightly different" branches of source code

  - by jedi_coder

  This question is rather agnostic than related to a certain version control program. Assume there is a source code tree under certain distributed version control. Let's call it A. At some point somebody else clones it and gets its own copy. Let's call it B. I'll call A and B branches, even if some version control tools have different definitions for branches (some might call A and B repositories). Let's assume that branch A is the "main" branch. In the context of distributed version control this only means that branch A is modified much more actively and the owner of branch B periodically syncs (pulls) new updates from branch A. Let's consider that a certain source file in branch B contains a class (again, it's also language agnostic). The owner of branch B considers that some class methods are more appropriate and groups them together by moving them inside the class body. Functionally nothing has changed - this is a very trivial refactoring of the code. But the change gets reflected in diffs. Now, assuming that this change from branch B will never get merged into branch A, the owner of branch B will always get this difference when pulling from branch A and merging into his own workspace. Even if there's only one such trivial change, the owner of branch B needs to resolve conflicts every time when pulling from branch A. As long as branches A and B are modified independently, more and more conflicts like this appear. What is the workaround for this situation? Which workflow should the owner of branch B follow to minimize the effort for periodically syncing with branch A?

  Read the article

• Is this method a good aproach to get SQL values from C#?

  - by MadBoy

  I have this little method that i use to get stuff from SQL. I either call it with varSearch = "" or varSearch = "something". I would like to know if having method written this way is best or would it be better to split it into two methods (by overloading), or maybe i could somehow parametrize whole WHERE clausule? private void sqlPobierzKontrahentDaneKlienta(ListView varListView, string varSearch) { varListView.BeginUpdate(); varListView.Items.Clear(); string preparedCommand; if (varSearch == "") { preparedCommand = @" SELECT t1.[KlienciID], CASE WHEN t2.[PodmiotRodzaj] = 'Firma' THEN t2.[PodmiotFirmaNazwa] ELSE t2.[PodmiotOsobaNazwisko] + ' ' + t2.[PodmiotOsobaImie] END AS 'Nazwa' FROM [BazaZarzadzanie].[dbo].[Klienci] t1 INNER JOIN [BazaZarzadzanie].[dbo].[Podmioty] t2 ON t1.[PodmiotID] = t2.[PodmiotID] ORDER BY t1.[KlienciID]"; } else { preparedCommand = @" SELECT t1.[KlienciID], CASE WHEN t2.[PodmiotRodzaj] = 'Firma' THEN t2.[PodmiotFirmaNazwa] ELSE t2.[PodmiotOsobaNazwisko] + ' ' + t2.[PodmiotOsobaImie] END AS 'Nazwa' FROM [BazaZarzadzanie].[dbo].[Klienci] t1 INNER JOIN [BazaZarzadzanie].[dbo].[Podmioty] t2 ON t1.[PodmiotID] = t2.[PodmiotID] WHERE t2.[PodmiotOsobaNazwisko] LIKE @searchValue OR t2.[PodmiotFirmaNazwa] LIKE @searchValue OR t2.[PodmiotOsobaImie] LIKE @searchValue ORDER BY t1.[KlienciID]"; } using (var varConnection = Locale.sqlConnectOneTime(Locale.sqlDataConnectionDetails)) using (SqlCommand sqlQuery = new SqlCommand(preparedCommand, varConnection)) { sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@searchValue", "%" + varSearch + "%"); using (SqlDataReader sqlQueryResult = sqlQuery.ExecuteReader()) if (sqlQueryResult != null) { while (sqlQueryResult.Read()) { string varKontrahenciID = sqlQueryResult["KlienciID"].ToString(); string varKontrahent = sqlQueryResult["Nazwa"].ToString(); ListViewItem item = new ListViewItem(varKontrahenciID, 0); item.SubItems.Add(varKontrahent); varListView.Items.AddRange(new[] {item}); } } } varListView.EndUpdate(); }

  Read the article

• How to enforce jsf to create new instance of bean instead of throwing NullPointerException?

  - by Roman

  I'm almost sure that I do something wrong and thus the question's title is a bit incorrect. I have a form with several fields for creating a new User-objects (fields like login, password, birthday etc). And I have 2 buttons - Cancel and Create. I didn't finish Create yet :) , but when I press Cancel I see NullPointerException. Here is simplified code: <f:view> <h:form> <h:panelGroup layout="block"> <h:inputText id="add_login" value="#{userSupport.user.login}"/> <h:inputSecret id="add_password" value="#{userSupport.user.password}"/> <h:inputText id="add_name" value="#{userSupport.user.name}"/> <h:inputText id="add_surname" value="#{userSupport.user.surname}"/> <h:commandButton value="Cancel" action="cancel"/> </h:panelGroup> </h:form> </f:view> UserSupport class has field user with getter and setter and some other methods. It's a Spring bean with Session scope. When I press cancel, I see NPE because jsf tries to save values from inputs in user-object, but user-object is null. What is the correct way of doing this?

  Read the article

• EF4 querying through the generations

  - by Hans Kesting

  I have a model withs Parents, Children and Grandchildren, in a many-to-many relationship. Using this article I created POCO classes that work fine, except for one thing I can't yet figure out. When I query the Parents or Children directly using LINQ, the SQL reflects the LINQ query (a .Count() executes a COUNT in the database and so on) - fine. The Parent class has a Children property, to access it's children. But (and now for the problem) this doesn't expose an IQueryable interface but an ICollection. So when I access the Children property on a particular parent all the Parent's Children are read. Even worse, when I access the Grandchildren (theParent.Children.SelectMany(child => child.GrandChildren).Count()) then for each and every child a separate request is issued to select it's grandchildren. Changing the type of the Children property from ICollection to IQueryable doesn't solve this. Apart from missing needed methods like Add() and Remove(), EF just doesn't recognize the property then. Are there correct ways (as in: low database interaction) of querying through children (and what are they)? Or is this just not possible?

  Read the article

• MVC3 Custom view engine

  - by eth0

  I have a custom View Engine that derives from WebFormViewEngine. There's a lot of stuff going on in here, mostly caching. I want to be able to use WebFormViewEngine AND RazorViewEngine at the same time, is this possible? Ideally I'd like to do; ViewEngines.Add(new MyViewEngine<WebFormsViewEngine>()); ViewEngines.Add(new MyViewEngine<RazorViewEngine>()); if a .ascx/.aspx/.master file exists then use WebForms, otherwise use Razor is a .cshtml file exists. EDIT: I should of worded my question better. As my custom view engine derives from WebFormViewEngine it obviously uses WebForms, I can't derive from two classes. I can derive from RazorViewEngine but then I'll loose WebForms. I can duplicate my code entirely, derive from RazorViewEngine and edit the views file extensions, etc. but as I said I've got a lot of custom code in my view engine and would be duplicating hundreds of lines. WebFormViewEngine and RazorViewEngine derive from BuildManagerViewEngine which in turn implements IViewEngine. The problem with that is I have to implement methods CreatePartialView() and CreateView() but how would I know what to return (WebForms/Razor?) using generics?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 397 398 399 400 401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408  | Next Page >