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  • Missing line number in stack trace eventhough the PDB files are included

    - by Farzad
    This is running me nuts. I have this web service implemented w/ C# using VS 2008. I publish it on IIS. I have modified the release build so the pdb files are copied along with the dlls into the target directory on inetpub. Also web.config file has debug=true. Then I call a web service that throws an exception. The stack trace does not contain the line numbers. I have no idea what I am missing here, any ideas? Additional Info: If I run the web app using VS built-in web server, it works and I get line numbers in stack trace. But if I copy the same files (pdb and dll) that the VS built-in web server is using to IIS, still the line numbers are missing in stack trace. It seems that there is something related to the IIS that ignores the pdb files! Update When I publish to IIS, all the pdb files are published under the bin directory and everything looks fine. But when I go to "C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files" under the specific directory related to my project, I can see that the assembly (.dll) files are all there, but there is no pdb files. But this does not happen if I run the project using VS built-in web server. So if I copy the pdb files manually to the temp folder, I can see the line numbers. Any idea why the pdb files are not copied to the temp folder? BTW, when I attach to the worker process I can see that it says Symbols loaded!

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  • Error when creating JFrame from JFrame

    - by Aly
    Hi, I have an application that is works fine and the JFrame for it is launched in the constructor of a GameInitializer class which takes in some config parameters. I have tried to create a GUI in which allows the user to specify these config parameters and then click submit. When the user clicks submit a new GameInitializer object is created. The error I am getting is: Exception in thread "AWT-EventQueue-0" java.lang.Error: Cannot call invokeAndWait from the event dispatcher thread at java.awt.EventQueue.invokeAndWait(Unknown Source) at javax.swing.SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait(Unknown Source) at game.player.humanplayer.view.HumanView.update(HumanView.java:43) once submit is called this code is executed: values assigned to parames... new GameInitializer(userName, player, Constants.BLIND_STRUCTURE_FILES.get(blindStructure), handState); Then code in the GameInitializer constructor is: public GameInitializer(String playerName, AbstractPlayer opponent, String blindStructureConfig, AbstractHandState handState){ beginGame(playerName, opponent, blindStructureConfig, handState); } public static void beginGame(String playerName, AbstractPlayer opponent, String blindStructureConfig, AbstractHandState handState){ AbstractDealer dealer; BlindStructure.initialize(blindStructureConfig); AbstractPlayer humanPlayer = new HumanPlayer(playerName, handState); AbstractPlayer[] players = new AbstractPlayer[2]; players[0] = humanPlayer; players[1] = opponent; handState.setTableLayout(players); for(AbstractPlayer player : players){ player.initialize(); } dealer = new Dealer(players, handState); dealer.beginGame(); } It basically cascades down and eventually calls this piece of code in the HumanView class: public void update(final Event event, final ReadableHandState handState, final AbstractPlayer player) { try { SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait(new Runnable() { public void run() { gamePanel.update(event, handState, player); validate(); } }); } catch (InterruptedException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (InvocationTargetException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } if(event.equals(Event.HAND_ENDING)){ try { if(handState.wonByShowdown() || handState.isSplitPot()){ Thread.sleep(3500); } else{ Thread.sleep(1000); } } catch (InterruptedException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } Do you have any idea why?

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  • Workflow Foundation (WF) -- Why does setting a DependencyProperty to a COM object using SetValue() t

    - by stakx
    Assume that I have a .NET Workflow Foundation (WF) SequenceActivity class with the following property: public IWorkspace Workspace { get; set; } // ^^^^^^^^^^ // important: this is a COM interface type! public static DependencyProperty WorkspaceProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "Workspace", typeof(IWorkspace), typeof(FoobarActivity)); // <-- this activity class This activity executes some code that sets both of the above like this: this.Workspace = ...; // exact code not relevant; property set to a COM object SetValue(WorkspaceProperty, this.Workspace); The last line (which makes the call to SetValue) results in an ArgumentException for the second parameter (having the value of this.Workspace): Type […].IWorkspace of dependency property Workspace does not match the value's type System.__ComObject.                                           (translated from German, the English exception text might differ slightly) As soon as I register the dependency property with typeof(object) instead of typeof(IWorkspace) as the second parameter, the code executes just fine. However, that would result in the possibility to assign just about any value to the dependency property, and I do not want that. It seems to me that WF dependency properties don't work for COM interop objects.Does anyone have a solution to this?

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  • Passing object(s) to a Controller Action

    - by Nicholas H
    I'm attempting to use jQuery to do a $.post() to an MVC controller action. Here's the jQuery calls: var _authTicket = { username: 'testingu', password: 'testingp' }; function DoPost() { var inputObj = { authTicket: _authTicket, dateRange: 'ThisWeek' }; $.post('/MyController/MyAction', inputObj, PostResult); } function PostResult(data) { alert(JSON.stringify(data)); } Here's the controller action: <HttpPost()> _ Function MyAction(ByVal authTicket As AuthTicket, ByVal dateRange As String) As ActionResult Dim u = ValidateUser(authTicket) If u Is Nothing Then Throw New Exception("User not valid") ' etc.. End Function The problem is, MyAction's "authTicket" parameter is all empty. The second "dateRange" parameter gets populated just fine. I'm pretty sure that the issue stems from jQuery turning the data into key/value pairs to POST to the action. MVC must not understand the format, at least when it's an object with it's own properties. The name/value pair format that jQuery is converting to is like: authTicket[username] = "testingu" authTicket[password] = "testingp" Which in turn gets made into x-www-form-urlencoded'd data: authTicket%5Busername%5D=testingu &authTicket%5Bpassword%5D=testingp I guess I could always have "username" and "password" properties in my actions, but that seems wrong to me. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Button Click Event Getting Lost

    - by AlishahNovin
    I have a Menu and Submenu structure in Silverlight, and I want the submenu to disappear when the parent menu item loses focus - standard Menu behavior. I've noticed that the submenu's click events are lost when a submenu item is clicked, because the parent menu item loses focus and the submenu disappears. It's easier to explain with code: ParentMenuBtn.Click += delegate { SubMenu.Visibility = (SubMenu.Visibility == Visibility.Visible) ? SubMenu.Collapsed : SubMenu.Visible; }; ParentMenuBtn.LostFocus += delegate { SubMenu.Visibility = Visibility.Collapsed; }; SubMenuBtn.Click += delegate { throw new Exception("This will never be thrown."); }; In my example, when SubMenuBtn is clicked, the first event that triggers is ParentMenuBtn.LostFocus(), which hides the container of SubMenuBtn. Once the container's visibility collapses, the Click event is never triggered. I'd rather avoid having to hide the sub-menu each time, but I'm a little surprised that the Click event is never triggered as a result... Anyone have any thoughts about this?

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  • running bash scripts in php

    - by HDawg
    I have two computers. On the first computer I have apache running with all my web code. On the second computer I have large amounts of data stored with a retrieval script (the script usually takes hours to run). I am essentially creating a web UI to access this data without any time delay. so I call: exec("bash initial.bash"); this is a driver script that is in my Apache folder. It calls the script on the other computer. calling: ssh otherMachine temp.bash& this script invokes the data retrieval script on the second computer. If I call initial.bash in the terminal, everything works smoothly and successfully, but if I call it in my PHP file, then all my commands in initial.bash run, with the exception of ssh otherMachine temp.bash&. I put the & at the end of that, so that temp.bash will run in the background, since it does take a few hours to complete. I am not sure why the nested script is not running when invoked by Apache. Is there a better alternative than using exec or shell_exec to call a script, which ultimately calls another script. The reason I don't call a script on the second machine directly is because of the time it takes the program to run. Shell_exec does not render the php page until the script is complete.

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  • Grails: How to include an html link inside a <g:message> default attribute?

    - by Christoph
    Hi, I am starting with Grails and want to have one page with multilanguage content. I started using the tag which works fine. But here is what I want to do: I want to include the default text of the default language right in the text, to avoid switching back and forth in between files. <g:message code="homepage.feature.headline1" default="This is an english text" /> The above works. But now I a have a message which should include a link like this: <g:message code="homepage.feature.headline1" default="This is an english text with <a href='somefile.html'>a link</a>" /> This gives me an exception: org.codehaus.groovy.grails.web.pages.exceptions.GroovyPagesException: Error processing GroovyPageView: Grails tags were not closed! [[<g:message>]] in GSP How can I achieve that I can include a link there? I have tried escaping the < brackets but still no luck. I really would like to avoid splitting up this one sentence into multiple smaller sentences. Thanks Christoph

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  • Connect to a site using proxy code in java

    - by Nithin
    I want to connect to as site through proxy in java.This is the code which I have written public class ConnectThroughProxy { Proxy proxy = new Proxy(Proxy.Type.HTTP, new InetSocketAddress("proxy ip", 8080)); public static void main(String[] args) { try{ URL url = new URL("http://www.rgagnon.com/javadetails/java-0085.html"); URLConnection connection=url.openConnection(); String encoded = new String(Base64.encode(new String("user_name:pass_word").getBytes())); connection.setDoOutput(true); connection.setRequestProperty("Proxy-Authorization","Basic "+encoded); String page=""; String line; StringBuffer tmp = new StringBuffer(); BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(connection.getInputStream())); while ((line=in.readLine()) != null){ page.concat(line + "\n"); } System.out.println(page); }catch(Exception ex){ ex.printStackTrace(); } } while trying to run this code it throws the following error java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Illegal character(s) in message header value: Basic dXNlcl9uYW1lOnBhc3Nfd29yZA== at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.checkMessageHeader(HttpURLConnection.java:323) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.setRequestProperty(HttpURLConnection.java:2054) at test.ConnectThroughProxy.main(ConnectThroughProxy.java:30) Any Idea how to do it.

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  • WebFaultException http status code is not passed

    - by Mike Bantegui
    I have the following service method: <OperationContract()> <WebGet([ResponseFormat]:=WebMessageFormat.Json)> Function ShouldThrowException() As Boolean It's implementation does only one thing, which is to throw a WebFaultException. Public Function ShouldThrowException() As Boolean Implements IRestService.ShouldThrowException Throw New WebFaultException(Of String)("This should fail", HttpStatusCode.BadRequest) End Function My web.config reads as: <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="WebEndpointBehavior"> <webHttp /> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> .. snip .. <webHttpBinding> <binding name="WebBinding" crossDomainScriptAccessEnabled="true"> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </webHttpBinding> .. snip .. <service name="RestService"> <endpoint address="" binding="webHttpBinding" behaviorConfiguration="WebEndpointBehavior" bindingConfiguration="WebBinding" contract="IRestService" name="RestService"> </endpoint> </service> When I call ShouldThrowException via my browser, I only get the following: "This should fail" I was expecting to get a 400 Bad Request error on the page. If I inspect the page using FireBug, I see that the HTTP status code that was returned is a 200 OK. According to this blog post, I should be seeing this exception. Except I'm not. What am I doing wrong here?

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  • Delphi 2009: How do I prevent network application from leaking critical section?

    - by eed3si9n
    As part of Vista certification, Microsoft wants to make sure that an application exits without holding on to a lock (critical section): TEST CASE 31. Verify application does not break into a debugger with the specified AppVerifier checks (Req:3.2) As it turns out, network applications built using Delphi 2009 does break into the debugger, which displays unhelpful message as follows: (1214.1f10): Break instruction exception - code 80000003 (first chance) eax=00000001 ebx=07b64ff8 ecx=a6450000 edx=0007e578 esi=0017f7e0 edi=80000003 eip=77280004 esp=0017f780 ebp=0017f7ac iopl=0 nv up ei pl zr na pe nc cs=0023 ss=002b ds=002b es=002b fs=0053 gs=002b efl=00000246 *** ERROR: Symbol file could not be found. Defaulted to export symbols for C:\Windows\SysWOW64\ntdll.dll - ntdll!DbgBreakPoint: 77280004 cc int 3 After hitting Go button several times, you come across the actual error: ======================================= VERIFIER STOP 00000212: pid 0x18A4: Freeing virtual memory containing an active critical section. 076CC5DC : Critical section address. 01D0191C : Critical section initialization stack trace. 075D0000 : Memory block address. 00140000 : Memory block size. ======================================= This verifier stop is continuable. After debugging it use `go' to continue. ======================================= Given that my code does not leak TCriticalSection, how do I prevent Delphi from doing so.

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  • How can i inject servletcontext in spring

    - by M.R.
    I need to write a junit test for a rather complex application which runs in a tomcat. I wrote a class which builds up my spring context. private static ApplicationContext springContext = null; springContext = new ClassPathXmlApplicationContext( new String[] {"beans"....}); In the application there is a call: public class myClass implements ServletContextAware { .... final String folder = servletContext.getRealPath("/example"); ... } which breaks everything, because the ServletContext is null. I have started to build a mock object: static ServletConfig servletConfigMock = createMock(ServletConfig.class); static ServletContext servletContextMock = createMock(ServletContext.class); @BeforeClass public static void setUpBeforeClass() throws Exception { expect(servletConfigMock.getServletContext()).andReturn(servletContextMock).anyTimes(); expect(servletContextMock.getRealPath("/example")).andReturn("...fulllpath").anyTimes(); replay(servletConfigMock); replay(servletContextMock); } Is there a simple methode to inject the ServletContext or to start the tomcat with a deployment descriptor at the runtime of the junit test? I am using: spring, maven, tomcat 6 and easymock for the mock objects.

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  • StackOverFlowException - but oviously NO recursion/endless loop

    - by user567706
    Hi there, I'm now blocked by this problem the entire day, read thousands of google results, but nothing seems to reflect my problem or even come near to it... i hope any of you has a push into the right direction for me. I wrote a client-server-application (so more like 2 applications) - the client collects data about his system, as well as a screenshot, serializes all this into a XML stream (the picture as a byte[]-array]) and sends this to the server in regular intervals. The server receives the stream (via tcp), deserializes the xml to an information-object and shows the information on a windows form. This process is running stable for about 20-25 minutes at a submission interval of 3 seconds. When observing the memory usage there's nothing significant to see, also kinda stable. But after these 20-25 mins the server throws a StackOverflowException at the point where it deserializes the tcp-stream, especially when setting the Image property from the byte[]-array. I thoroughly searched for recursive or endless loops, and regarding the fact that it occurs after thousands of sucessfull intervals, i could hardly imagine that. public byte[] ImageBase { get { MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); _screen.Save(ms, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); return ms.GetBuffer(); } set { if (_screen != null) _screen.Dispose(); //preventing well-known image memory leak MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(value); try { _screen = Image.FromStream(ms); //<< EXCEPTION THROWING HERE } catch (StackOverflowException ex) //thx to new CLR management this wont work anymore -.- { Console.WriteLine(ex.Message + Environment.NewLine + ex.StackTrace); } ms.Dispose(); ms = null; } } I hope that more code would be unnecessary, or it could get very complex... Please help, i have no clue at all anymore thx Chris

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  • Magento install errors

    - by nXqd
    I try to install new magento version 1.4.xx . But after the config menu I meet after I copy and change local.example.xml to local.xml . Error in file: "E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\app\code\core\Mage\Catalog\sql\catalog_setup\mysql4-install-1.4.0.0.0.php" - SQLSTATE[23000]: Integrity constraint violation: 1062 Duplicate entry '4-page_layout' for key 'entity_type_id' Trace: #0 E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\Resource\Setup.php(374): Mage::exception('Mage_Core', 'Error in file: ...') #1 E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\Resource\Setup.php(260): Mage_Core_Model_Resource_Setup->_modifyResourceDb('install', '', '1.4.0.0.21') #2 E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\Resource\Setup.php(224): Mage_Core_Model_Resource_Setup->_installResourceDb('1.4.0.0.21') #3 E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\Resource\Setup.php(153): Mage_Core_Model_Resource_Setup->applyUpdates() #4 E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\App.php(363): Mage_Core_Model_Resource_Setup::applyAllUpdates() #5 E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\App.php(295): Mage_Core_Model_App->_initModules() #6 E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\app\Mage.php(596): Mage_Core_Model_App->run(Array) #7 E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\index.php(78): Mage::run('', 'store') #8 {main} I really need your help , thanks so much :)

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  • Elmah on a WebServer

    - by Subbarao
    I Setup Elmah to work on a website. It works fine on my local machine but when I moved it to a web server I get this exception Configuration Error Description: An error occurred during the processing of a configuration file required to service this request. Please review the specific error details below and modify your configuration file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Unrecognized configuration section elmah/security. Source Error: Line 110: </connectionStrings> Line 111: <elmah> Line 112: <security allowRemoteAccess="1" /> Line 113: <errorLog type="Elmah.SqlErrorLog, Elmah" connectionStringName="CadaretGrantConnectionString"/> Line 114: <!-- Don't log 404 --> It shows me a error at Line 112. What should be done in order to get Elmah to work with remote access? Below is my configuration <elmah> <security allowRemoteAccess="1" /> <errorLog type="Elmah.SqlErrorLog, Elmah" connectionStringName="ConnectionString"/> <!-- Don't log 404 --> <errorFilter> <test> <equal binding="HttpStatusCode" value="404" valueType="Int32"/> </test> </errorFilter> </elmah>

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  • IHttpAsyncHandler and IObservable web requests

    - by McLovin
    Within Async handler I'm creating an IObservable from webrequest which returns a redirect string. I'm subscribing to that observable and calling AsyncResult.CompleteCall() but I'm forced to use Thread.Sleep(100) in order to get it executed. And it doesn't work every time. I'm pretty sure this is not correct. Could you please shine some light. Thank you! public IAsyncResult BeginProcessRequest(HttpContext context, AsyncCallback cb, object state) { _context = context; _ar = new AsyncResult(cb, state); _tweet = context.Request["tweet"]; string url = context.Request["url"]; if(String.IsNullOrEmpty(_tweet) || String.IsNullOrEmpty(url)) { DisplayError("<h2>Tweet or url cannot be empty</h2>"); return _ar; } _oAuth = new oAuthTwitterRx(); using (_oAuth.AuthorizationLinkGet().Subscribe(p => { _context.Response.Redirect(p); _ar.CompleteCall(); }, exception => DisplayError("<h2>Unable to connect to twitter, please try again</h2>") )) return _ar; } public class AsyncResult : IAsyncResult { private AsyncCallback _cb; private object _state; private ManualResetEvent _event; private bool _completed = false; private object _lock = new object(); public AsyncResult(AsyncCallback cb, object state) { _cb = cb; _state = state; } public Object AsyncState { get { return _state; } } public bool CompletedSynchronously { get { return false; } } public bool IsCompleted { get { return _completed; } } public WaitHandle AsyncWaitHandle { get { lock (_lock) { if (_event == null) _event = new ManualResetEvent(IsCompleted); return _event; } } } public void CompleteCall() { lock (_lock) { _completed = true; if (_event != null) _event.Set(); } if (_cb != null) _cb(this); } }

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  • NullReferenceException when testing DefaultModelBinder.

    - by Byron Sommardahl
    I'm developing a project using BDD/TDD techniques and I'm trying my best to stay the course. A problem I just ran into is unit testing the DefaultModelBinder. I'm using mspec to write my tests. I have a class like this that I want to bind to: public class EmailMessageInput : IMessageInput { public object Recipient { get; set; } public string Body { get; set; } } Here's how I'm building my spec context. I'm building a fake form collection and stuffing it into a bindingContext object. public abstract class given_a_controller_with_valid_email_input : given_a_controller_context { Establish additional_context = () => { var form = new FormCollection { new NameValueCollection { { "EmailMessageInput.Recipient", "[email protected]"}, { "EmailMessageInput.Body", "Test body." } } }; _bindingContext = new ModelBindingContext { ModelName = "EmailMessageInput", ValueProvider = form }; _modelBinder = new DefaultModelBinder(); }; protected static ModelBindingContext _bindingContext; protected static DefaultModelBinder _modelBinder; } public abstract class given_a_controller_context { protected static MessageController _controller; Establish context = () => { _controller = new MessageController(); }; } Finally, my spec throws an null reference exception when I execute .BindModel() from inside one of my specs: Because of = () => { _model = _modelBinder.BindModel(_controller.ControllerContext, _bindingContext); }; Any clue what it could be? Feel free to ask me for more info, if needed. I might have taken something for granted.

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  • Weird error running com-exposed assembly

    - by Bernabé Panarello
    I am facing the following issue when deploying a com-exposed assembly to my client's. The COM component should be consummed by a vb6 application. Here's how it's done 1) I have one c# project which has a class with a couple of methods exposed to COM 2) The project has references to multiple assemblies 3) I compile the project, generating a folder (named dllcom) that contains the assembly plus all the referenced dlls 4) I include in the folder a .bat which does the following: regasm /u c:\dllcom\LibInsertador.dll del LibInsertador.tlb regasm c:\dllcom\LibInsertador.dll /tlb:c:\dllcom\LibInsertador.tlb /codebase c:\dllcom\ pause 5) After running the bat locally in many workstations of my laboratory, i'm able to consume the generated tlb from my vb6 application without any problems. I'm even able to update the dll by only means of running this bat, without having to recompile the vb6 application. I mean that im not having issues of vb6 fiding and invoking the exposed com object. The problem 6) I send the SAME FOLDER to my client 7) They execute the .bat locally, without any errors 8) They execute the vb6 application, vb6 finds the main assembly, the .net code seems to run correctly (it's even able to generate a log file) until it has to intantiate it's first referenced assembly. Then, they get the following exception: "Could not load type 'GYF.Common.TypeBuilder' from assembly 'GYF_Common, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'." Where "GYF.Common" is an assembly referenced by LibInsertador and TypeBuilder is a class contained in GYF.Common. GYF.Common is not a signed assembly and it's not in the GAC, just in the same folder with Libinsertador. According to .net reflector, the version is correct. ¿Any ideas about what could be happening?

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  • How can I get PowerShell Added-Types to use Added References

    - by Scott Weinstein
    I'm working on a PoSh project that generates CSharp code, and then Add-Types it into memory. The new types use existing types in an on disk DLL, which is loaded via Add-Type. All is well and good untill I actualy try to invoke methods on the new types. Here's an example of what I'm doing: $PWD = "." rm -Force $PWD\TestClassOne* $code = " namespace TEST{ public class TestClassOne { public int DoNothing() { return 1; } } }" $code | Out-File tcone.cs Add-Type -OutputAssembly $PWD\TestClassOne.dll -OutputType Library -Path $PWD\tcone.cs Add-Type -Path $PWD\TestClassOne.dll $a = New-Object TEST.TestClassOne "Using TestClassOne" $a.DoNothing() "Compiling TestClassTwo" Add-Type -Language CSharpVersion3 -TypeDefinition " namespace TEST{ public class TestClassTwo { public int CallTestClassOne() { var a = new TEST.TestClassOne(); return a.DoNothing(); } } }" -ReferencedAssemblies $PWD\TestClassOne.dll "OK" $b = New-Object TEST.TestClassTwo "Using TestClassTwo" $b.CallTestClassOne() Running the above script gives the following error on the last line: Exception calling "CallTestClassOne" with "0" argument(s): "Could not load file or assembly 'TestClassOne,...' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified." At AddTypeTest.ps1:39 char:20 + $b.CallTestClassOne <<<< () + CategoryInfo : NotSpecified: (:) [], MethodInvocationException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : DotNetMethodException What am I doing wrong?

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  • Style Trigger on Attached Property

    - by vanja.
    I have created my own Attached Property like this: public static class LabelExtension { public static bool GetSelectable(DependencyObject obj) { return (bool)obj.GetValue(SelectableProperty); } public static void SetSelectable(DependencyObject obj, bool value) { obj.SetValue(SelectableProperty, value); } // Using a DependencyProperty as the backing store for Selectable. This enables animation, styling, binding, etc... public static readonly DependencyProperty SelectableProperty = DependencyProperty.RegisterAttached("Selectable", typeof(bool), typeof(Label), new UIPropertyMetadata(false)); } And then I'm trying to create a style with a trigger that depends on it: <!--Label--> <Style TargetType="{x:Type Label}"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Util:LabelExtension.Selectable" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type Label}"> <TextBox IsReadOnly="True" Text="{TemplateBinding Content}" /> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> But I'm getting a run time exception: Cannot convert the value in attribute 'Property' to object of type 'System.Windows.DependencyProperty'. Error at object 'System.Windows.Trigger' in markup file How can I access the value of the attached property in a style trigger? I have tried using a DataTrigger with a RelativeSource binding but it wasn't pulling the value through.

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  • Visual Studio 2008 project organization for executable and assembly

    - by user304582
    Hi - I am having a problem setting up the following in Visual Studio 2008: a parent project which includes the entrypoint Main() method class and which declares an interface, and a child project which has classes that implement the interface declared in the parent project. I have specified that Parent's Output type is a Console application, and Child's Output type is a Class library. In Child I have add a reference to the Parent as a project, and specified that Child depends on Parent and that the build order should be Parent, then Child. The build succeeds, and as far I can tell, the right things show up in the Child/bin/debug directory: Parent.exe and Child.dll. However, if I run Parent.exe, then at the point when it should load a class from the Child.dll, it fails with the error message: exception executing operation System.TypeLoadException: Could not load type 'Child.some.class' from assembly 'Parent, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'. I guess I'm confused as to how to get the Parent and Child projects to play together. I plan on having more child projects that use the same framework that is set up in the Parent, and so I do not want to move the entrypoint class down into the Child project. If I try to specify that the Child project is also a Console application, then the build process fails because there is no Main() entrypoint class in the child (even though the Parent project is included as a reference). Any help would be welcome! Thanks, Martin

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  • What is the correct way to pass an object to WebApi RC controller

    - by Diver Dan
    I have a webapi project running rc I have a very basic controlller like [System.Web.Http.HttpPost] public void Update(Business business) { //if (business.Id == Guid.Empty) //{ // throw new HttpResponseException("Business ID not provided", HttpStatusCode.BadRequest); //} _repository.Update(business); //if (!isUpdated) //{ // throw new HttpResponseException("Business not found", HttpStatusCode.NotFound); //} } I found an example using HttpClient however it doesnt work with rc using (var client = new HttpClient()) { try { string url = string.Format("{0}{1}", ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ApiBaseUrl"].ToString(),apiMethod); HttpRequestMessage request = new HttpRequestMessage(); MediaTypeFormatter[] formatter = new MediaTypeFormatter[] { new JsonMediaTypeFormatter() }; var content = request.CreateContent<Business>( business, MediaTypeHeaderValue.Parse("application/json"), formatter, new FormatterSelector()); HttpResponseMessage response = client.PostAsync(url, content).Result; return response.Content.ToString(); } catch (Exception ex) { return null; } } I get an error Method not found: 'Void System.Net.Http.Headers.HttpHeaders.AddWithoutValidation(System.String, System.String)'. Passing the data from jquery is a piece of cake however I need call the api from code behind vs client side. Can someone point me in the right direction for calling the webapi? Thank you

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  • Java 1.4 singleton containing a mutable field

    - by Philippe
    Hi, I'm working on a legacy Java 1.4 project, and I have a factory that instantiates a csv file parser as a singleton. In my csv file parser, however, I have a HashSet that will store objects created from each line of my CSV file. All that will be used by a web application, and users will be uploading CSV files, possibly concurrently. Now my question is : what is the best way to prevent my list of objects to be modified by 2 users ? So far, I'm doing the following : final class MyParser { private File csvFile = null; private static Set myObjects = Collections.synchronizedSet(new HashSet); public synchronized void setFile(File file) { this.csvFile = file; } public void parse() FileReader fr = null; try { fr = new FileReader(csvFile); synchronized(myObjects) { myObjects.clear(); while(...) { // foreach line of my CSV, create a "MyObject" myObjects.add(new MyObject(...)); } } } catch (Exception e) { //... } } } Should I leave the lock only on the myObjects Set, or should I declare the whole parse() method as synchronized ? Also, how should I synchronize - both - the setting of the csvFile and the parsing ? I feel like my actual design is broken because threads could modify the csv file several times while a possibly long parse process is running. I hope I'm being clear enough, because myself am a bit confused on those multi-synchronization issues. Thanks ;-)

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  • android bindservice

    - by mnish
    hi, I get null pointer exception at line mService.start() when i try to bind to an already started service. I do the same thing from different activity(where the service gets started) everythig goes right. All these activities are part of one application. What do you think I do wrong? public class RouteOnMap extends MapActivity{ private static final int NEW_LOCATION = 1; private static final int GPS_OFF = 2; private MapView mMapView; private ILocService mService; private boolean mServiceStarted; private boolean mBound; private Intent mServiceIntent; private double mLatitude, mLongitude; private ServiceConnection connection = new ServiceConnection() { public void onServiceConnected(ComponentName className, IBinder iservice) { mService = ILocService.Stub.asInterface(iservice); mBound = true; } public void onServiceDisconnected(ComponentName className) { mService = null; mBound = false; } }; public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState){ super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.mapview); mMapView = (MapView) findViewById(R.id.mapview); mMapView.setBuiltInZoomControls(true); mServiceIntent = new Intent(); mLatitude = 0.0; mLongitude = 0.0; mBound = false; } @Override public void onStart(){ super.onStart(); mServiceIntent.setClass(this, LocationService.class); //startService(mServiceIntent); if(!mBound){ mBound = true; this.bindService(mServiceIntent, connection, Context.BIND_AUTO_CREATE); } } @Override public void onResume(){ super.onResume(); try { mService.start(); } catch (RemoteException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } @Override public void onPause(){ super.onPause(); if(mBound){ this.unbindService(connection); } } @Override protected boolean isRouteDisplayed() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return false; } }

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  • Best way to close nested streams in Java?

    - by dirtyvagabond
    What is considered the best, most comprehensive way to close nested streams in Java? For example, consider the setup: FileOutputStream fos = new FileOutputStream(...) BufferedOS bos = new BufferedOS(fos); ObjectOutputStream oos = new ObjectOutputStream(bos); I understand the close operation needs to be insured (probably by using a finally clause). What I wonder about is, is it necessary to explicitly make sure the nested streams are closed, or is it enough to just make sure to close the outer stream (oos)? One thing I notice, at least dealing with this specific example, is that the inner streams only seem to throw FileNotFoundExceptions. Which would seem to imply that there's not technically a need to worry about closing them if they fail. Here's what a colleague wrote: Technically, if it were implemented right, closing the outermost stream (oos) should be enough. But the implementation seems flawed. Example: BufferedOutputStream inherits close() from FilterOutputStream, which defines it as: 155 public void close() throws IOException { 156 try { 157 flush(); 158 } catch (IOException ignored) { 159 } 160 out.close(); 161 } However, if flush() throws a runtime exception for some reason, then out.close() will never be called. So it seems "safest" (but ugly) to mostly worry about closing FOS, which is keeping the file open. What is considered to be the hands-down best, when-you-absolutely-need-to-be-sure, approach to closing nested streams? And are there any official Java/Sun docs that deal with this in fine detail?

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  • SQL Compact allow only one WCF Client

    - by Andreas Hoffmann
    Hi, I write a little Chat Application. To save some infos like Username and Password I store the Data in an SQL-Compact 3.5 SP1 Database. Everything working fine, but If another (the same .exe on the same machine) Client want to access the Service. It came an EndpointNotFound exception, from the ServiceReference.Class.Open() at the Second Client. So i remove the CE Data Access Code and I get no Error (with an if (false)) Where is the Problem? I googled for this, but no one seems the same error I get :( SOLUTION I used the wrapper in http://csharponphone.blogspot.com/2007/01/keeping-sqlceconnection-open-and-thread.html for threat safty, and now it works :) Client Code: public test() { var newCompositeType = new Client.ServiceReference1.CompositeType(); newCompositeType.StringValue = "Hallo" + DateTime.Now.ToLongTimeString(); newCompositeType.Save = (Console.ReadKey().Key == ConsoleKey.J); ServiceReference1.Service1Client sc = new Client.ServiceReference1.Service1Client(); sc.Open(); Console.WriteLine("Save " + newCompositeType.StringValue); sc.GetDataUsingDataContract(newCompositeType); sc.Close(); } Server Code public CompositeType GetDataUsingDataContract(CompositeType composite) { if (composite.Save) { SqlCeConnection con = new SqlCeConnection(Properties.Settings.Default.Con); con.Open(); var com = con.CreateCommand(); com.CommandText = "SELECT * FROM TEST"; SqlCeResultSet result = com.ExecuteResultSet(ResultSetOptions.Scrollable | ResultSetOptions.Updatable); var rec = result.CreateRecord(); rec["TextField"] = composite.StringValue; result.Insert(rec); result.Close(); result.Dispose(); com.Dispose(); con.Close(); con.Dispose(); } return composite; }

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