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  • Accessing global variables of custom controls in ASP.NET

    - by CL4NCY
    Hi, I have built lots of custom asp.net controls which work really well separately but I want to somehow allow global access to all their variables from anywhere on the page. I have a central control called the ContentManager which I can use to store these variables. The problem I have is that all the controls are bound at different times so I only want the variables available after they're bound. For example I have many custom repeaters on the page which when bound I want to add a reference in the content manager so all their variables are then available to use. <Custom:ContentManager ID="cm" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r1" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r2" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r3" runat="server"/> Then I want a tag which can access all variables from any of these controls. <%= cm.controls["r1"].Items[0]["name"] %> The problem with this is that the variable isn't available until the repeater is bound so I might need to use events to push out the value to tags on the page like so: <Custom:Var ID="v1" control="r1" value="Items[0]["name"]" runat="server"/> Is this possible or can you recommend a better approach?

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  • How exactly do MbUnit's [Parallelizable] and DegreeOfParallelism work?

    - by BenA
    I thought I understood how MbUnit's parallel test execution worked, but the behaviour I'm seeing differs sufficiently much from my expectation that I suspect I'm missing something! I have a set of UI tests that I wish to run concurrently. All of the tests are in the same assembly, split across three different namespaces. All of the tests are completely independent of one another, so I'd like all of them to be eligible for parallel execution. To that end, I put the following in the AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: DegreeOfParallelism(8)] [assembly: Parallelizable(TestScope.All)] My understanding was that this combination of assembly attributes should cause all of the tests to be considered [Parallelizable], and that the test runner should use 8 threads during execution. My individual tests are marked with the [Test] attribute, and nothing else. None of them are data-driven. However, what I actually see is at most 5-6 threads being used, meaning that my test runs are taking longer than they should be. Am I missing something? Do I need to do anything else to ensure that all of my 8 threads are being used by the runner? N.B. The behaviour is the same irrespective of which runner I use. The GUI, command line and TD.Net runners all behave the same as described above, again leading me to think I've missed something. EDIT: As pointed out in the comments, I'm running v3.1 of MbUnit (update 2 build 397). The documentation suggests that the assembly level [parallelizable] attribute is available, but it does also seem to reference v3.2 of the framework despite that not yet being available. EDIT 2: To further clarify, the structure of my assembly is as follows: assembly - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute)

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  • Fluent NHibernate - How to map the foreign key column as a property

    - by Steve
    I am sure this is a straightforward question but consider the following: I have a reference between company and sector as follows: public class Company { public Guid ID { get; set; } public Sector Sector { get; set; } public Guid SectorID { get; set; } } public class Sector { public Guid ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } Ok. What I want is the SectorID of the Company object to be populated after I go: (new Company()).Sector = new Sector() { Name="asdf" } and do a flush. The mapping I am using kindly creates an additional column in the database called Sector_Id in the Company table, but this is not available as a property on Company. I want the SectorID property to be filled. The mapping i am currently using in the CompanyMap is References(c = c.Sector).Cascade.All(); Does anyone have any ideas?

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  • adding a token onto a webservice or wcf call

    - by duncanUK
    I have an httphandler which I am using to log the http soap request and response for each webservice that is called from my application as a comms log. i would like to inject a token ont he 1st call (possibly the 1st call to invoke the service that is being logged) and then be able to track all subsequent webservice calls run in the same context with this token so i can tie the subsequent calls back up to the original call. so for example. main webservice -> 2nd web service -> another web service [token] [token] [token] -> nth web service [token] I would like to inject the token on the first call to the main webservice (http handler checks if no token, add it), I would like to use the same http handler to intercept each call to the subsequent webservices and pass on the token if it exists already (the job of the httphandler is to log the in/out soap with the token to reference with. I have managed to inject the first token, but my problem is how do I add the token on the subsequent calls.. can I make it stick on the same context or session? My worry is that when we call a new webservice, we create a whole new proxy/http request which will not inhrit the token... or will it?! Ideally I would like it to persist on the http header as I am setting the token as a header at the moment? has anyone got any ideas or a better way of doing this? I would be most greatful for you comments!

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  • Setting synthesized arrays causing memory leaks using nested arrays

    - by webtoad
    Hello: Why is the following code causing a memory leak in an iPhone App? All of the initted objects below leak, including the arrays, the strings and the numbers. So, I'm thinking it has something to do with the the synthesized array property not releasing the object when I set the property again on the second and subsequent time this piece of code is called. Here is the code: "controller" (below) is my custom view controller class, which I have a reference to, and I am setting with this code snippet: sqlite3_stmt *statement; NSMutableArray *foo_IDs = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_Names = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_IDsBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_NamesBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Get data: NSString *sql = @"select distinct p.foo_ID, p.foo_Name from foo as p "; if (sqlite3_prepare_v2(...) == SQLITE_OK) { while (sqlite3_step(statement) == SQLITE_ROW) { int p_id; NSString *foo_Name; p_id = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 0); char *str2 = (char *)sqlite3_column_text(statement, 1); foo_Name = [NSString stringWithCString:str2]; [foo_IDs addObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:p_id]]; [foo_Names addObject:foo_Name]; } sqlite3_finalize(statement); } // Pass the array itself into another array: // (normally there is more than one array in each array) [foo_IDsBySection addObject: foo_IDs]; [foo_NamesBySection addObject: foo_Names]; [foo_IDs release]; [foo_Names release]; // Set some synthesized properties (of type NSArray, nonatomic, // retain) in controller: controller.foo_IDsBySection = foo_IDsBySection; controller.foo_NamesBySection = foo_NamesBySection; [foo_IDsBySection release]; [foo_NamesBySection release]; Thanks for any help!

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  • ASP.NET MVC (VB) error when publishing to test server

    - by Colin
    I have an ASP.NET MVC project that works fine on my local machine (no build errors, server errors or anything). However, when I publish the project to a test server, I get an "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error on a For Each I have in my view. I have a function within a model that returns a DataRowCollection. I'm calling that function in my controller and passing the DataRowCollection to my View, which then iterates over the rows and displays the necessary information: In the Controller I have: Function Index() As ActionResult Dim MyModel As New Model ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") = MyModel.GetDataRowCollection() Return View() End Function And then in the View, which is throwing the error: <%@ Page Language="VB" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <asp:Content ID="indexTitle" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> My Page Title </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="indexContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% For Each MyDataRow In ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") ' do stuff with each MyDataRow Next %> I'm pretty new to ASP.NET MVC so I'm sure there might be a better way to do what I'm doing (I'd be happy to hear if there is), but my main concern is why this works fine on my local machine but throws an error on the For Each on the test server? Please let me know if I can clarify any of the above, and thanks in advance for any information.

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  • Moving from NHibernate to FluentNHibernate: assembly error (related to versions)?

    - by goober
    Not sure where to start, but I had gotten the most recent version of NHibernate, successfully mapped the most simple of business objects, etc. When trying to move to FluentNHibernate and do the same thing, I got this error message on build: "System.IO.FileLoadException: Could not load file or assembly 'NHibernate, Version=2.1.0.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4' or one of its dependencies. The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference." Background: I'm new to Hibernate, NHibernate, and FluentNHibernate -- but not to .NET, C#, etc. Database I have a database table called Category: (PK) CategoryID (type: int), unique, auto-incrementing UserID (type: uniqueidentifier) -- given the value of the user Guid in ASP.NET database Title (type: varchar(50) -- the title of the category Components involved: I have a SessionProviderClass which creates the mapping to the database I have a Category class which has all the virtual methods for FluentNHibernate to override I have a CategoryMap : ClassMap class, which does the fluent mappings for the entity I have a CategoryRepository class that contains the method to add & save the category I have the TestCatAdd.aspx file which uses the CategoryRepository class. Would be happy to post code for any of those, but I'm not sure that it's necessary, as I think the issue is that somewhere there's a version conflict between what FluentNHibernate references and the NHibernate I have installed from before. Thanks in advance for any help you can give!

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  • Change Rectangle Fill Based on ColumnWidth of a grid

    - by Coesy
    Essentially i want to do as the title says, if the columnwidth is .50 then the rectangle should be red, if it's .75 then it should be amber, and if it's 1 then it should be green. I thought I could achieve this with DataTriggers but for some reason I am getting "Object Reference Not Set To An Instance Of An Object" error, here is my code, am I missing something here? FYI the width property will be changed in the backend through a timer_tick event. <Grid x:Name="Grid1" Width="300" Height="30"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition x:Name="MyColumn1" Width=".50*"></ColumnDefinition> <ColumnDefinition x:Name="MyColumn2" Width=".50*"></ColumnDefinition> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ElementName=MyColumn1,Path=Width}" Value=".50*"> <Setter TargetName="rect" Property="Fill" Value="Red"></Setter> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ElementName=MyColumn1,Path=Width}" Value=".75*"> <Setter TargetName="rect" Property="Fill" Value="Yellow"></Setter> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ElementName=MyColumn1,Path=Width}" Value="1"> <Setter TargetName="rect" Property="Fill" Value="Green"></Setter> </DataTrigger> </Grid.Triggers> <Rectangle x:Name="rect" Grid.Column="0" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch"></Rectangle> <Rectangle Grid.Column="1" Fill="Blue"></Rectangle> </Grid>

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  • Can't diagnose my MySQL root user problem

    - by George Crawford
    Hi all, I have a problem with the MySQL root user in My MySQL setup, and I just can't for the life of me work out how to fix it. It seems that I have somehow messed up the root user, and my access to databases is now very erratic. For reference, I'm using MAMP on OS X to provide the MySQL server. I'm not sure how much that matters though - I'd guess that whatever I've done will require a command-line fix to solve it. I can start MySQL using MAMP as usual, and access databases using the 'standard' users I have created for my PHP apps. However, the root user, which I use in my MySQL GUI client, and also in phpMyAdmin, can only access the "information_schema" database, as well as two I have created manually, and presumably (and mistakenly) left permissions wide open for. My 15 or so other databases cannot be accessed my the root user. When I load up phpMyAdmin, the home screen says: "Create new database: No Privileges". I certainly did at some stage change my root user's password using the MAMP dialog. But I don't remember if I did anything else which might have caused this problem. I've tried changing the password again, and there seems to be no change in the issue. I've also tried resetting root password using the command line, including starting mysql manually with --skip-grant-tables then flushing privs, but again, nothing seems to fix the issue. I've come to the end of my ideas, and would very much appreciate some step-by-step advice and diagnosis from one of the experts here! Many thanks for your help.

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  • Dynamically cast a control type in runtime

    - by JayT
    Hello, I have an application whereby I dynamically create controls on a form from a database. This works well, but my problem is the following: private Type activeControlType; private void addControl(ContainerControl inputControl, string ControlName, string Namespace, string ControlDisplayText, DataRow drow, string cntrlName) { Assembly assem; Type myType = Type.GetType(ControlName + ", " + Namespace); assem = Assembly.GetAssembly(myType); Type controlType = assem.GetType(ControlName); object obj = Activator.CreateInstance(controlType); Control tb = (Control)obj; tb.Click += new EventHandler(Cntrl_Click); inputControl.Controls.Add(tb); activeControlType = controlType; } private void Cntrl_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string test = ((activeControlType)sender).Text; //Problem ??? } How do I dynamically cast the sender object to a class that I can reference the property fields of it. I have googled, and found myself trying everything I have come across..... Now I am extremely confused... and in need of some help Thnx JT

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  • What's the SQL function for timestamp manipulation?

    - by Eric Leroy
    I'm new to SQL and the time functions are different than mySQL so I'm having a terrible time finding a good site reference with USEFUL timestamp queries. I'm not able to locate the correct way of doing this query in SQL: Id Timestamp ----------------------------------- 1145744 2012-10-10 18:15:11.500 1145743 2012-10-10 18:15:11.313 1145742 2012-10-10 18:15:11.313 1145741 2012-10-10 18:15:11.253 1145740 2012-10-10 18:15:11.190 1145739 2012-10-10 18:15:11.190 1145738 2012-10-10 18:15:11.127 1145737 2012-10-10 18:15:11.067 1145736 2012-10-10 18:15:11.063 1145735 2012-10-10 18:15:10.940 1145734 2012-10-10 18:15:10.817 SELECT * from table WHERE Timestamp ... RANGE I need the range of 2 timestamps so I can select rows by the following parameters: second range minute range hour range day range week range month range year range Is there one function to put in 2 timestamps and get the range? or is this a mix of functions I need? Any good site references would be greatly appriceated. MSDN site isn't helping me isolate the proper way of doing this. I've been searching for about an hour trying to get the last day from 1:30PM to 1:30PM today.

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  • Unmanaged DLL (exporting Dialog) + Class Library (DLL) + no Windows Style/Themes

    - by Gohlool
    Hi, I have a managed application TestApplication.exe in C# and Application.EnableVisualStyles() is allready called. I have a Class Library MySharedCode.dll also in C# which uses [DLLImport()] to import some External dialogs out of an unmanaged dll. Well, now I am using (add reference) MySharedCode.dll in my TestApplication.exe and call a function MyTestConfigDlg() out of it. TestClass.MyTestConfigDlg(); OK, everything works fine and I get my dialog, but the dialog has NO XP style/themes? I just wanted to see if it's general problem with managed/unmanged modules, so I used the [DLLImport()] to call the same MyTestConfigDlg() dialog but this time directly in my TestApplication.exe! WOW! Worked as I expected. The Dialog was in XP Style/Themes! so, anybody here who can help me out? FYI: I also tried (just for test) to call MessageBoxA() API call in my Class Library Dll which later called by my TestApplication.exe and the MessageBoxA() had also no Style/Themes! Thanks in advance!

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  • Const_cast on a this pointer - would I get told off by other C++ coders for doing this?

    - by BeeBand
    I have a class Game e.g. class Game { public: InitObjects(); ... }; And I have another class Grid, that needs to be initialised with a non-const reference to that Game object. ( A Grid object needs to call functions that can update a Game object ). class Grid { public: Grid(Game & g): game(g){} ... private: Game & game; ... }; The Game object is responsible for initialising the Grid. I did this: void Game::InitObjects() { grid = new Grid(*(const_cast<Game*>(this)) ); } grid is not a member of a Game - it's a global ( argh - i know... I don't mind making it a member, but I have the same problem right? ). Can some seasoned C++ folk tell me if this odd looking const_cast is acceptable?

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  • GWT - problems with constants in css

    - by hba
    Hi, I'm new to GWT; I'm building a small sample app. I have several CSS files. I'm able to successfully use the ClientBundle and CssResource to assign styles to the elements defined in my UiBinder script. Now I'd like to take it one step further and introduce CSS constants using @def css-rule. The @def works great when I define a constant and use it in the same CSS file. However I cannot use it in another CSS file. When I try to use the @eval rule to evaluate an existing constant the compiler throws an execption: "cannot make a static reference to the non-static method ". Here is an example of what I'm trying to do: ConstantStyle.css @def BACKGROUND red; ConstantStyle.java package abc; import ...; interface ConstantStyle extends cssResource { String BACKGROUND(); } MyStyle.css @eval BACKGROUND abc.ConstantStyle.BACKGROUND(); .myClass {background-color: BACKGROUND;} MyStyle.java package abc; import ...; interface ConstantStyle extends cssResource { String myClass; } MyResources.java package abc; import ...; interface MyResources extends ClientBundle { @Source("ConstantStyle.css") ConstantStyle constantStyle(); @Source("MyStyle.css") MyStyle myStyle(); } Thanks in advance!

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  • How to force inclusion of an object file in a static library when linking into executable?

    - by Brian Bassett
    I have a C++ project that due to its directory structure is set up as a static library A, which is linked into shared library B, which is linked into executable C. (This is a cross-platform project using CMake, so on Windows we get A.lib, B.dll, and C.exe, and on Linux we get libA.a, libB.so, and C.) Library A has an init function (A_init, defined in A/initA.cpp), that is called from library B's init function (B_init, defined in B/initB.cpp), which is called from C's main. Thus, when linking B, A_init (and all symbols defined in initA.cpp) is linked into B (which is our desired behavior). The problem comes in that the A library also defines a function (Af, defined in A/Afort.f) that is intended to by dynamically loaded (i.e. LoadLibrary/GetProcAddress on Windows and dlopen/dlsym on Linux). Since there are no references to Af from library B, symbols from A/Afort.o are not included into B. On Windows, we can artifically create a reference by using the pragma: #pragma comment (linker, "/export:_Af") Since this is a pragma, it only works on Windows (using Visual Studio 2008). To get it working on Linux, we've tried adding the following to A/initA.cpp: extern void Af(void); static void (*Af_fp)(void) = &Af; This does not cause the symbol Af to be included in the final link of B. How can we force the symbol Af to be linked into B?

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  • Castle Windsor: Reuse resolved component in OnCreate, UsingFactoryMethod or DynamicParameters

    - by shovavnik
    I'm trying to execute an action on a resolved component before it is returned as a dependency to the application. For example, with this graph: public class Foo : IFoo { } public class Bar { IFoo _foo; IBaz _baz; public Bar(IFoo foo, IBaz baz) { _foo = foo; _baz = baz; } } When I create an instance of IFoo, I want the container to instantiate Bar and pass the already-resolved IFoo to it, along with any other dependencies it requires. So when I call: var foo = container.Resolve<IFoo>(); The container should automatically call: container.Resolve<Bar>(); // should pass foo and instantiate IBaz I've tried using OnCreate, DynamicParameters and UsingFactoryMethod, but the problem they all share is that they don't hold an explicit reference to the component: DynamicParameters is called before IFoo is instantiated. OnCreate is called after, but the delegate doesn't pass the instance. UsingFactoryMethod doesn't help because I need to register these components with TService and TComponent. Ideally, I'd like a registration to look something like this: container.Register<IFoo, Foo>((kernel, foo) => kernel.Resolve<Bar>(new { foo })); Note that IFoo and Bar are registered with the transient life style, which means that the already-resolved instance has to be passed to Bar - it can't be "re-resolved". Is this possible? Am I missing something?

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  • Travelling Visual Studio developers

    - by Graphain
    Hi, I am about to travel to Europe (I'm Australian but imagine this is a similar circumstance for US users and simply flipped for European users). However, there is the slim possibility I will need to do some Visual Studio work while I'm travelling. As I see it I have three options: Leave a desktop PC on at home, access remotely via net cafes. Carry a laptop with me on the trip, upload files as required using public wifi. Option 2 but instead buy cheap light netbook that is miraculously capable of running VS. Does anyone have any experience or advice to shed on any of these options? For reference, this existing post suggests that VS remotely for short distances is okay, but over longer distances could be more problematic. I've used VS via RDP to a US server before and it was pretty laggy but for small changes I could get by. Concerns I have that you may have some experience with: Weight of luggage (ideally like to travel light) Security of laptop (imagine it'll be too heavy to carry around all the time so have to leave it at hotel/hostel etc. and hope for the best) Security of data (don't want someone stealing RDP access to my home PC) Security of FTP (don't want someone stealing FTP passwords over wireless)

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  • [C#] Three System.Drawing methods manifest slow drawing or flickery: Solutions? or Other Options?

    - by Luke Mcneice
    Hi all, I am doing a little graphing via the System.Drawing and im having a few problems. I'm holding data in a Queue and i'm drawing(graphing) out that data onto three picture boxes this method fills the picture box then scrolls the graph across. so not to draw on top of the previous drawings (and graduly looking messier) i found 2 solutions to draw the graph. Call plot.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR) before the draw loop [block commented] although this causes a flicker to appear from the time it takes to do the actual drawing loop. call plot.DrawLine(channelPen[5], j, 140, j, 0); just before each drawline [commented] although this causes the drawing to start ok then slow down very quickly to a crawl as if a wait command had been placed before the draw command. Here is the Code for reference: /*plotx.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR) ploty.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR) plotz.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR)*/ for (int j = 1; j < 599; j++) { if (j > RealTimeBuffer.Count - 1) break; QueueEntity past = RealTimeBuffer.ElementAt(j - 1); QueueEntity current = RealTimeBuffer.ElementAt(j); if (j == 1) { //plotx.DrawLine(channelPen[5], 0, 140, 0, 0); //ploty.DrawLine(channelPen[5], 0, 140, 0, 0); //plotz.DrawLine(channelPen[5], 0, 140, 0, 0); } //plotx.DrawLine(channelPen[5], j, 140, j, 0); plotx.DrawLine(channelPen[0], j - 1, (((past.accdata.X - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64), j, (((current.accdata.X - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64)); //ploty.DrawLine(channelPen[5], j, 140, j, 0); ploty.DrawLine(channelPen[1], j - 1, (((past.accdata.Y - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64), j, (((current.accdata.Y - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64)); //plotz.DrawLine(markerPen, j, 140, j, 0); plotz.DrawLine(channelPen[2], j - 1, (((past.accdata.Z - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 94), j, (((current.accdata.Z - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 94)); } Is there any tricks to avoid these overheads? If not would there be any other/better solutions?

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  • What does it mean to pass a &variable to a function? E.g., string& insert ( size_t pos1, const strin

    - by Bob Montgomery
    I understand passing a pointer, and returning a pointer: char * strcat ( char * destination, const char * source ); You're passing a variable that contains the address to a char; returning the same. But what does it mean to pass something using the reference operator? Or to return it? string& insert ( size_t pos1, const string& str ); I mean, I understand what actually happens, I just don't understand the notation. Why isn't the notation this instead: string * insert ( size_t pos1, const string * str ); //made up I presume it has something to do with passing/returning the instance of a class, but what? Is this syntax valid; if not why not and if so what does it mean? char & strcat ( char & destination, const char & source ); //made up (all of the function declarations, except the last made-up two, are from http://www.cplusplus.com )

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  • Webkit browsers rendering CSS different than Mozilla Firefox...Why??

    - by JAG2007
    I'm styling a form that was already marked up (made some markup changes), and I normally work in Firefox to style so I can use firebug and the web developer toolbar. On this project, I noticed that my styles are displaying quite differently for one particular area (several elements) in webkit based browsers Chrome and Safari, than in Firefox (we won't even get into Internet Explorer, although it is siding with the Firefox display). I can't figure out though why the styles are displaying so differently. Normally there is some rule that I'm neglecting that Firefox just takes for granted, and the others need it specified. But here I'm not getting why it's displaying this way. In particular I'm referring to the bottom area of the form where users can enter their contact info, then submit the form. I'll attach screen shots for reference as to the discrepancy. Here's the URL so feel free to check it out on your own. Although be advised that this is a production page (already released) so if you try out the form, you WILL BE added to CURE's contact database. http://www.helpcurenow.org/survey2010 Here's the screen shots: Firefox (the way I intend it to look) Chrome, and then Safari - strange change to submit button As a bonus, if anybody wants to help me with figuring out why on earth IE7 wants to not show the background behind the questions only, and how to fix that I would be much obliged! Thanks very much.

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  • Maven + SSDM Build and Runtime Environment Automation

    - by Randy
    Preface: My Company, like most, has several run-time environments and several release versions which themselves are composed of different versions of various jars. For example, let us consider release versions 1.1, 1.2, and 1.3 of Software X, which may be deployed to a developer computer, testing, or production. Software-x-1.1 is itself composed of jarA-0.9.1 and jarB-0.7.5, but software-x-1.3 is composed of jarA-1.7.31 and jarB-0.8.1. Currently we use Spring's PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer to configure run-time variables (such as database credentials), however, properties also change with release versions. We also use Maven 2 POM version 4 to specify which versions of our code need to be used. We place the version numbers of our jars as properties within profiles (dev,test,prod) inside of the parent pom and then reference those version numbers in all project poms. As of right now, we have no way to specify which project versions pertain to a given release other than the most current one. Moreover, we deploy our run-time configurations to the SSDM pickup which then configures and creates the services defined by the built versions of our software. -- Questions: Is there any procedure/tool we can use to build our product by merely providing the run-time environment and version number? IE "build 1.1 dev"? Is there anyway we can store the required jar versions for each release build? We are currently versioning all files, including the parent pom, but merely versioning the parent pom does not record which release version is pertinent to that parent pom. What else can we do to further automate the process of builds? For example, if we could manage run-time configurations within the parent pom that would be a step in the right direction, but that seems like a violation of scope. Any tool outside of our framework is inconceivable at this point, but not in the far future. Summary: How can we automate our build process to the fullest extent without being error prone?

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  • JVM to ignore certificate name mismatch

    - by Heavy Bytes
    I know there were a lot of questions/answers about how to ignore SSL error in the code. On our dev region dev.domain.tld we have configured a app server over SSL. The certificate that is displayed is for somedev.domain.tld. There is no way to change the certificate, it will always be a domain mismatch. So when I deploy a web-service to https://dev.domain.tld and try to connect/call my webservice I get an exception: Caused by: java.security.cert.CertificateException: No name matching dev.domain.tld found And I have the somedev.domain.tld CERT in my trust store. Now, I saw a lot of samples how to change that in the code (using a Trust Manager that accepts all domains), but how do I specify to the JVM to ignore the domain mismatch when connecting to the server? Is there a -Djavax.net.ssl argument or something? Thank you! UPDATE: Or, since I am using Spring-WS, is there a way to set some property in Spring for that? (WebServiceTemplate) UPDATE I guess I'll have to do use something from Spring Security: http://static.springsource.org/spring-ws/sites/1.5/reference/html/security.html

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  • How to Object Array to List

    - by Peter Black
    (C#) I have 2 classes. 1 is called Employee. The other is my "main". I am trying to take a list and assign each value in list to an array of Employee object. //Inside "Main" class int counter = NameList.Count; Employee[] employee = new Employee[counter]; for (int i = 0; i <= counter; i++) { employee[i].Name = NameList[i]; employee[i].EmpNumber = EmpNumList[i]; employee[i].DateOfHire = DOHList[i]; employee[i].Salary = SalaryList[i]; employee[i].JobDescription = JobDescList[i]; employee[i].Department = DeptList[i]; } This returns the error: An unhandled exception of type 'System.NullReferenceException' occurred in Pgm4.exe Additional information: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. I think this means that I am not calling the list properly. Any help would be much appreciated. Thank you.

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  • how does MySQL implement the "group by"?

    - by user188916
    I read from the MySQL Reference Manual and find that when it can take use of index,it just do index scan,other it will create tmp tables and do things like filesort. And I also read from other article that the "Group By" result will sort by group by columns by default,if "order by null" clause added,it won't don filesort. The difference can be found from the "explain ..." clause. so my problem is:what is the difference between "group by" clause that with "order by null" and which doesn't have? I try to use profiling to see what mysql do on the background,and only see result like: result for group clause without order by null: |preparing | 0.000016 | | Creating tmp table | 0.000048 | | executing | 0.000009 | | Copying to tmp table | 0.000109 | **| Sorting result | 0.000023 |** | Sending data | 0.000027 | result for clause with "order by null": preparing | 0.000016 | | Creating tmp table | 0.000052 | | executing | 0.000009 | | Copying to tmp table | 0.000114 | | Sending data | 0.000028 | So I guess what MySQL do when the "order by null" added,it does not use filesort algorithm,maybe when it creates the tmp table,it uses index as well,and then use the index to do group by operation,when completed,it just read result from the table rows and does not sort the result. But my original opinion is that MySQL can use quicksort to sort the items and then do group by,so the result will be sorted as well. Any opinion appreciated,thanks.

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  • How can I accelerate the generation of the an MD5 Checksum within vb.net?

    - by Richard
    I'm working with some very large files residing on P2 (Panasonic) cards. Part of the process we employ is to first generate a checksum of the file we are going to copy, then copy the file, then run a checksum on the file to confirm that it copied OK. The problem is, is that files are large (70 GB+) and take a long time to complete. It's an issue since we will eventually be dealing with thousands of these files. I would like to find a faster way to generate the checksum other than using the System.Security.Cryptography.MD5CryptoServiceProvider I don't care if this means using a specialized hardware card, provided it works and is not to ungodly expensive. I would prefer to have a method of encoding that provided some feedback as to how far the process has gone along so I can display it like I do now. The application is written in vb.net. I would prefer to be able to use it as component, library, reference within my application, but I'm willing to call an outside application if there is enough improvement in the speed of generating the checksum. Needless to say, the checksum must be consistent and correct. :-) Thank you in advance for your time and efforts, Richard

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