Search Results

Search found 12194 results on 488 pages for 'reference counting'.

Page 407/488 | < Previous Page | 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413 414  | Next Page >

  • C#; On casting to the SAME class that came from another assembly

    - by G. Stoynev
    For complete separation/decoupling, I've implemented a DAL in an assebly that is simply being copied over via post-build event to the website BIN folder. The website then on Application Start loads that assembly via System.Reflection.Assembly.LoadFile. Again, using reflection, I construct a couple of instances from classes in that assembly. I then store a reference to these instances in the session (HttpContext.Current.Items) Later, when I try to get the object stored in the session, I am not able to cast them to their own types (was trying interfaces initially, but for debugging tried to cast to THEIR OWN TYPES), getting this error: [A]DAL_QSYSCamper.NHibernateSessionBuilder cannot be cast to [B] DAL_QSYSCamper.NHibernateSessionBuilder. Type A originates from 'DAL_QSYSCamper, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' in the context 'Default' at location 'C:\Users\dull.anomal\AppData\Local\Temp\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\ad6e8bff\70fa2384\assembly\dl3\aaf7a5b0\84f01b09_b10acb01\DAL_QSYSCamper.DLL'. Type B originates from 'DAL_QSYSCamper, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' in the context 'LoadNeither' at location 'C:\Users\dull.anomal\Documents\Projects\QSYS\Deleteme\UI\MVCClient\bin\DAL_QSYSCa mper.DLL'. This is happening while debugging in VS - VS manages to stop into the source DAL project even though I've loaded from assembly and the project is not refferenced by the website project (they're both in the solution). I do understand the error, but I don't understand how and why the assembly is being used/loaded from two locations - I only load it once from the file and there's no referrence to the project. Should mention that I also use Windsor for DI. The object that tries to extract the object from the session is A) from a class from that DAL assembly; B) is injected into a website class by Windsor. I will work on adding some sample code to this question, but wanted to put it out in case it's obvious what I do wrong.

    Read the article

  • Haskell Cons Operator (:)

    - by Carson Myers
    I am really new to Haskell (Actually I saw "Real World Haskell" from O'Reilly and thought "hmm, I think I'll learn functional programming" yesterday) and I am wondering: I can use the construct operator to add an item to the beginning of a list: 1 : [2,3] [1,2,3] I tried making an example data type I found in the book and then playing with it: --in a file data BillingInfo = CreditCard Int String String | CashOnDelivery | Invoice Int deriving (Show) --in ghci $ let order_list = [Invoice 2345] $ order_list [Invoice 2345] $ let order_list = CashOnDelivery : order_list $ order_list [CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, ...- etc... it just repeats forever, is this because it uses lazy evaluation? -- EDIT -- okay, so it is being pounded into my head that let order_list = CashOnDelivery:order_list doesn't add CashOnDelivery to the original order_list and then set the result to order_list, but instead is recursive and creates an infinite list, forever adding CashOnDelivery to the beginning of itself. Of course now I remember that Haskell is a functional language and I can't change the value of the original order_list, so what should I do for a simple "tack this on to the end (or beginning, whatever) of this list?" Make a function which takes a list and BillingInfo as arguments, and then return a list? -- EDIT 2 -- well, based on all the answers I'm getting and the lack of being able to pass an object by reference and mutate variables (such as I'm used to)... I think that I have just asked this question prematurely and that I really need to delve further into the functional paradigm before I can expect to really understand the answers to my questions... I guess what i was looking for was how to write a function or something, taking a list and an item, and returning a list under the same name so the function could be called more than once, without changing the name every time (as if it was actually a program which would add actual orders to an order list, and the user wouldn't have to think of a new name for the list each time, but rather append an item to the same list).

    Read the article

  • Updating UI objects in windows forms

    - by P a u l
    Pre .net I was using MFC, ON_UPDATE_COMMAND_UI, and the CCmdUI class to update the state of my windows UI. From the older MFC/Win32 reference: Typically, menu items and toolbar buttons have more than one state. For example, a menu item is grayed (dimmed) if it is unavailable in the present context. Menu items can also be checked or unchecked. A toolbar button can also be disabled if unavailable, or it can be checked. Who updates the state of these items as program conditions change? Logically, if a menu item generates a command that is handled by, say, a document, it makes sense to have the document update the menu item. The document probably contains the information on which the update is based. If a command has multiple user-interface objects (perhaps a menu item and a toolbar button), both are routed to the same handler function. This encapsulates your user-interface update code for all of the equivalent user-interface objects in a single place. The framework provides a convenient interface for automatically updating user-interface objects. You can choose to do the updating in some other way, but the interface provided is efficient and easy to use. What is the guidance for .net Windows Forms? I am using an Application.Idle handler in the main form but am not sure this is the best way to do this. About the time I put all my UI updates in the Idle event handler my app started to show some performance problems, and I don't have the metrics to track this down yet. Not sure if it's related.

    Read the article

  • NHibernate many-to-many mapping

    - by Scozzard
    Hi, I am having an issue with many-to-many mapping using NHibernate. Basically I have 2 classes in my object model (Scenario and Skill) mapping to three tables in my database (Scenario, Skill and ScenarioSkill). The ScenarioSkills table just holds the IDs of the SKill and Scenario table (SkillID, ScenarioID). In the object model a Scenario has a couple of general properties and a list of associated skills (IList) that is obtained from the ScenarioSkills table. There is no associated IList of Scenarios for the Skill object. The mapping from Scenario and Skill to ScenarioSkill is a many-to-many relationship: Scenario * --- * ScenarioSkill * --- * Skill I have mapped out the lists as bags as I believe this is the best option to use from what I have read. The mappings are as follows: Within the Scenario class <bag name="Skills" table="ScenarioSkills"> <key column="ScenarioID" foreign-key="FK_ScenarioSkill_ScenarioID"/> <many-to-many class="Domain.Skill, Domain" column="SkillID" /> </bag> And within the Skill class <bag name="Scenarios" table="ScenarioSkills" inverse="true" access="noop" cascade="all"> <key column="SkillID" foreign-key="FK_ScenarioSkill_SkillID" /> <many-to-many class="Domain.Scenario, Domain" column="ScenarioID" /> </bag> Everything works fine, except when I try to delete a skill, it cannot do so as there is a reference constraint on the SkillID column of the ScenarioSkill table. Can anyone help me? I am using NHibernate 2 on an C# asp.net 3.5 web application solution.

    Read the article

  • Why does my simple event handling example not work?

    - by njreed
    I am trying to make a simple event handler. (Note, I'm not trying to implement a full-blown publish/subscribe model; I'm just interested in why my example doesn't work as I think it should) var myObj = (function () { var private = "X"; function triggerEvent(eventName) { if (this[eventName]) { this[eventName](); } } // Setter / Getter function getProp() { return private; } function setProp(value) { private = value; triggerEvent("onPropChange"); } // Public API return { // Events "onPropChange": null, // Fires when prop value is changed // Methods "getProp": getProp, "setProp": setProp }; })(); // Now set event handler myObj.onPropChange = function () { alert("You changed the property!"); }; myObj.setProp("Z"); // --> Nothing happens. Wrong // Why doesn't my alert show? I set the onPropChange property of my object to a simpler handler function but it is not being fired. I have debugged this and it seems that in triggerEvent the variable this is referencing the global window object. I thought it should reference myObj (which is what I need). Can someone explain the error in my thinking and how I correct this? Help much appreciated. jsFiddle here

    Read the article

  • Do I need to Salt and Hash a randomly generated token?

    - by wag2639
    I'm using Adam Griffiths's Authentication Library for CodeIgniter and I'm tweaking the usermodel. I came across a generate function that he uses to generate tokens. His preferred approach is to reference a value from random.org but I considered that superfluous. I'm using his fall back approach of randomly generating a 20 character long string: $length = 20; $characters = '0123456789abcdefghijklmnopqrstuvwxyzABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ'; $token = ''; for ($i = 0; $i < $length; $i++) { $token .= $characters[mt_rand(0, strlen($characters)-1)]; } He then hashes this token using a salt (I'm combing code from different functions) sha1($this->CI->config->item('encryption_key').$str); I was wondering if theres any reason to to run the token through the salted hash? I've read that simply randomly generating strings was a naive way of making random passwords but is the sh1 hash and salt necessary? Note: I got my encryption_key from https://www.grc.com/passwords.htm (63 random alpha-numeric)

    Read the article

  • transaction handling in dataset based insert/update in c#

    - by user3703611
    I am trying to insert bulk records in a sql server database table using dataset. But i am unable to do transaction handling. Please help me to apply transaction handling in below code. I am using adapter.UpdateCommand.Transaction = trans; but this line give me an error of Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Code: string ConnectionString = "server=localhost\\sqlexpress;database=WindowsApp;Integrated Security=SSPI;"; SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(ConnectionString); conn.Open(); SqlTransaction trans = conn.BeginTransaction(IsolationLevel.Serializable); SqlDataAdapter adapter = new SqlDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM Test ORDER BY Id", conn); SqlCommandBuilder builder = new SqlCommandBuilder(adapter); adapter.UpdateCommand.Transaction = trans; // Create a dataset object DataSet ds = new DataSet("TestSet"); adapter.Fill(ds, "Test"); // Create a data table object and add a new row DataTable TestTable = ds.Tables["Test"]; for (int i=1;i<=50;i++) { DataRow row = TestTable.NewRow(); row["Id"] = i; TestTable .Rows.Add(row); } // Update data adapter adapter.Update(ds, "Test"); trans.Commit(); conn.Close();

    Read the article

  • wordpress php > div issue

    - by Philip Bateman
    Thanks in advance for you help Ive been doing this as a lovejob for friends and now im getting quotes of several hundred dollars for minor homepage variation and I'm not sure if its valid. I'm not a programmer myself, just trying hard :) Via the CafePress press75 theme, I'm trying to go from 1 / 2 / 3 column home layout, to 1-2 merged and 3, push the 2nd column data to the right and have the 1st column span as a 16:9 gallery (nextgengallery plugin installed). Is this really a complex thing from a coding perspective? The current guy talking to me is saying its going to cost $700 or 800 AUD to alter, which is rough when the template cost $85.. From this http://shocolate.com.au.previewdns.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/shocolatecurrent.jpg to this 'url+Shocolatelooklikethis.jpg' I was able to get the sidebar removed by taking out ‘‘ near the bottom of home.css.. Just can’t get the middle data to flow over it? This would be ideal as a result, as the system puts the latest selected blog post on the homepage, so if we can get rid of the sidebar div and have the text appear where it was, that would be ideal. Removing the sidebar from the bottom of home.php and setting the thumbnail width to say 450 gives me the result im after EXCEPT the text doesn’t fill where the sidebar is, it wraps underneath. Reference 'shocolate.com.au.previewdns.com' for current site Thank you!!! Phil (Melbourne)

    Read the article

  • Does "delegate" mean a type or an object?

    - by Michal Czardybon
    Reading from MSDN: "A delegate is a type that references a method. Once a delegate is assigned a method, it behaves exactly like that method." Does then "delegate" mean a type or an object?! ...It cannot be both. It seems to me that the single word is used in two different meanings: a type containing a reference to a method of some specified signature, an object of that type, which can be actually called like a method. I would prefer a more precise vocabulary and use "delegate type" for the first case. I have been recently reading a lot about events and delegates and that ambiguity was making me confused many times. Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the first meaning: "Custom event delegates are needed only when an event generates event data" "A delegate declaration defines a class that is derived from the class System.Delegate" Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the second meaning: "specify a delegate that will be called upon the occurrence of some event" "Delegates are objects that refer to methods. They are sometimes described as type-safe function pointers" What do you think? Why did people from Microsoft introduced this ambiguity? Am I the only person to have conceptual problems with different notions being referenced with the same word.

    Read the article

  • Mouse management in JavaScript games

    - by Jakob
    Im using JavaScript, the HTML5 canvas-element and WebGL to make a simple 3D-game in first person view for fun. Ideally, I would like to control my movement by using the keyboard to move and the mouse to look around, like you usually do in FPS-games. As you probably understand, there are some limits to this in the browser, since the mouse cant be captured: When using the onmousemove event, no further movement will be detected when the mouse pointer reaches the border of my screen (which means that I wont be able to run in a circle for example) Seeing the mouse move across the screen is not the end of the world, but it is a little annoying From what I know, it's impossible to hide the mouse as well as setting it's position in JavaScript. Hence, my question is this: If we cant to those things, what can we do in order to get close to the desktop gaming experience when it comes to the mouse in the browser? And I mean right now, using current APIs. Not "what could be changed in some standard to make life easier". Also, I realize that I could use the keyboard to look around, but then we're back in 1995 when Quake were actually played like that. And of course I know that it would be easier to write a desktop application or use Flash at least, but Im trying to push JavaScript's limits here. Apart from those things, what are your suggestions? Any kind of reference, existing game, crazy idea, hack or even browser specific solution would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • QT NOOB: Add action handler for multiple objects of same type.

    - by what
    I have a simple QT application with 10 radio buttons with names radio_1 through radio_10. It is a ui called Selector, and is part of a class called TimeSelector In my header file for this design, i have this: //! [1] class TimeSelector : public QWidget { Q_OBJECT public: TimeSelector(QWidget *parent = 0); private slots: //void on_inputSpinBox1_valueChanged(int value); //void on_inputSpinBox2_valueChanged(int value); private: Ui::Selector ui; }; //! [1] the commented out void_on_inputSpinBox1_valueChanged(int value) is from the tutorial for the simple calculator. I know i can do: void on_radio_1_valueChanged(int value); but I would need 10 functions. I want to be able to make one function that works for everything, and lets me pass in maybe a name of the radio button that called it, or a reference to the radio button so i can work with it and determine who it was. I am very new to QT but this seems like it should be very basic and doable, thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to put a pre-existing sqlite file into <Application_Home>/Library/?

    - by Byron Cox
    My app uses Core Data. I have run the app in the simulator which has successfully created and populated the corresponding sqlite file. I now want to get this pre-existing sqlite file on to an actual device and be part of my app. I have located the simulator generated sqlite file at /Library/Application Support/iPhone Simulator/6.0/Applications/identifier/Documents/myapp.sqlite and dragged it into Xcode. This has added it to my application bundle but not in an appropriate directory (with the consequence that the sqlite file can be read but not written to). From reading about the file system I believe that the best place to put the sqlite file would be in a custom directory 'Database' under Application_Home/Library/. I don't seem to be able to do this within Xcode and despite searching I am unable to figure out how to do the following: (1) Create a sub-directory called 'Database' in Application_Home/Library/ ? (2) Transfer the sqlite file to my newly created 'Database' directory ? Many thanks to @Daij-Djan of his answer below. One other question: the path to the sqlite file will be used by the persistent store coordinator. Now depending on the size of the sqlite file it may take a while to copy or move. How can you ensure that the example code provided by @Daij-Djan has executed and finished before the persistent store coordinator tries to reference the sqlite file? Thanks for any help in advance.

    Read the article

  • how can access public properties of MasterPage from external Class ?

    - by eugeneK
    Why i can't access MasterPage's public property (MessagePlaceholder) from other Class (Errors) ? Error compiler gives me is "Error 1 The type or namespace name 'MyMasterPage' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?)" my master page code behind using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; public partial class MyMasterPage : System.Web.UI.MasterPage { public string MessagePlaceholder { get { return messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml; } set { messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml = value; } } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml = Errors.getMessage(); } } } my Errors Class public static string getMessage() { HttpContext c = HttpContext.Current; string messageType = ""; if (c.Session["errorMessage"] != null) { messageType = "errorMessage"; } else if (c.Session["successMessage"] != null) { messageType = "successMessage"; } if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(messageType)) { StringBuilder userMessageSb = new StringBuilder(); userMessageSb.Append(string.Format("<div id=\"{0}\" title=\"{1}\">{2}</div>", messageType, messageType.Replace("Message",string.Empty), c.Session[messageType])); // fix so message will not re-appear c.Session.Remove(messageType); messageType = userMessageSb.ToString(); } return messageType; } public static void setSuccess(string successMessage, bool isRedirect) { HttpContext.Current.Session["successMessage"] = successMessage; } public static void setError(string errorMessage, bool isRedirect) { HttpContext.Current.Session["errorMessage"] = errorMessage; if (!isRedirect) { ((HttpContext.Current.CurrentHandler as System.Web.UI.Page).Master as MyMasterPage).MessagePlaceholder = getMessage(); } } this is how i set error if (true) { Errors.setError("this is an error demo", false); return; } or with redirect after error if (true) { Errors.setError("yet another error", true); Response.Redirect("~/error.aspx"); }

    Read the article

  • What are the Limitations for Connecting to an Access Query in Excel

    - by thornomad
    I have an Access 2007 database that has a number of tables, some are fairly large (100,000+ records); I have created a union query to pull some of the same types of data from multiple tables into one large query for pivot table manipulation and reporting. For example: SELECT Language FROM Table1 UNION ALL SELECT Language FROM Table2 UNION ALL SELECT Language FROM Table3; This works. I found, quickly, however, that a union query will not show up when connecting to the datasource from Excel 2007. So, I created a second query to reference the union query. Like so: SELECT * FROM [The Above Union Query]; This query works and it, initially, was accessible from Excel. Time passed, I've added more data. Suddenly, when I connect to my Access database from Excel my query referencing the union has disappeared. MS Access shows no signs of an issue (data displays in Access) and my other non-union queries are showing up in Excel 2007 ... but not the one that references the union. What could be going on? Why did it disappear? I noticed if I switch some of the referenced tables in the union query to a smaller table (with less rows) all of sudden the query appears in Excel again. At least, I think that's what the difference is. I really can't put my finger on why some of the union queries won't show up and some will. Am stumped and need some guidance. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Designing a chain of states

    - by devoured elysium
    I want to model a kind of FSM(Finite State Machine). I have a sequence of states (let's say, from StateA to StateZ). This sequence is called a Chain and is implemented internally as a List. I will add states by the order I want them to run. My purpose is to be able to make a sequence of actions in my computer (for example, mouse clicks). (I know this has been done a zillion times). So a state is defined as a: boolean Precondition() <- Checks to see if for this state, some condition is true. For example, if I want to click in the Record button of a program, in this method I would check if the program's process is running or not. If it is, go to the next state in the chain list, otherwise, go to what was defined as the fail state (generally is the first state of them all). IState GetNextState() <- Returns the next state to evaluate. If Precondition() was sucessful, it should yield the next state in the chain otherwise it should yield the fail state. Run() Simply checks the Precondition() and sets the internal data so GetNextState() works as expected. So, a naive approach to this would be something like this: Chain chain = new Chain(); //chain.AddState(new State(Precondition, FailState, NextState) <- Method structure chain.AddState(new State(new WinampIsOpenCondition(), null, new <problem here, I want to referr to a state that still wasn't defined!>); The big problem is that I want to make a reference to a State that at this point still wasn't defined. I could circumvent the problem by using strings when refrering to states and using an internal hashtable, but isn't there a clearer alternative? I could just pass only the pre-condition and failure states in the constructor, having the chain just before execution put in each state the correct next state in a public property but that seems kind of awkward.

    Read the article

  • unexpected behaviour of object stored in web service Session

    - by draconis
    Hi. I'm using Session variables inside a web service to maintain state between successive method calls by an external application called QBWC. I set this up by decorating my web service methods with this attribute: [WebMethod(EnableSession = true)] I'm using the Session variable to store an instance of a custom object called QueueManager. The QueueManager has a property called ChangeQueue which looks like this: [Serializable] public class QueueManager { ... public Queue<QBChange> ChangeQueue { get; set; } ... where QBChange is a custom business object belonging to my web service. Now, every time I get a call to a method in my web service, I use this code to retrieve my QueueManager object and access my queue: QueueManager qm = (QueueManager)Session[ticket]; then I remove an object from the queue, using qm.dequeue() and then I save the modified query manager object (modified because it contains one less object in the queue) back to the Session variable, like so: Session[ticket] = qm; ready for the next web service method call using the same ticket. Now here's the thing: if I comment out this last line //Session[ticket] = qm; , then the web service behaves exactly the same way, reducing the size of the queue between method calls. Now why is that? The web service seems to be updating a class contained in serialized form in a Session variable without being asked to. Why would it do that? When I deserialize my Queuemanager object, does the qm variable hold a reference to the serialized object inside the Session[ticket] variable?? This seems very unlikely.

    Read the article

  • Why does the JSF action tag handler in JSP invoke rendering immediately after creation?

    - by Pentius
    Dear fellows, I read the article "Improving JSF by Dumping JSP" from Hans Bergsten. There I read the following: The JSP container processes the page and invokes the JSF action tag handlers as they are encountered. A JSF tag handler looks for the JSF component it represents in the component tree. If it can't find the component, it creates it and adds it to the component tree. It then asks the component to render itself. and furthermore On the first request, the action creates its component and asks it to render itself. I understand that the immediate rendering after the creation of the component is the problem here (The reference to the input component can't be resolved in the example). That's one point, why JSF doesn't fit with JSP. But it reads as if the action tag handler itself would ask the component to render. Or is it JSP that triggers the rendering directly after the action tag handler created the component. If it is the action tag handler, I don't understand, why this is the fault of JSP. What is different here than from JSF intended? Thanks for your help, I need this for my thesis.

    Read the article

  • Is it legal to take sealed .NET framework class source and extend it?

    - by Giedrius
    To be short, I'm giving very specific example, but I'm interested in general situation. There is a FtpWebRequest class in .NET framework and it is missing some of new FTP operations, like MFCT. It is ok in a sense that this operation is still in draft mode, but it is not ok in a sense, that FtpWebRequest is sealed and there's no other way (at least I don't see it) to extend it with this new operation. Easiest way to do it would be take FtpWebRequest class source from .NET reference sources and extend it, in such way will be kept all the consistence in naming, implementation, etc. Question is how much legal it is? I won't sell this class as a product, I can publish my changes on web - nothing to hide here. If it is not legal, can I take this class source from mono and include in native .net project? Did you had similar case and how you solved it? Update: as long as extension method is offered, I'm pasting source from .NET framework which should show that extension methods are not the solution. So there's a property Method, where you can pass FTP command: public override string Method { get { return m_MethodInfo.Method; } set { if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(value)) { throw new ArgumentException(SR.GetString(SR.net_ftp_invalid_method_name), "value"); } if (InUse) { throw new InvalidOperationException(SR.GetString(SR.net_reqsubmitted)); } try { m_MethodInfo = FtpMethodInfo.GetMethodInfo(value); } catch (ArgumentException) { throw new ArgumentException(SR.GetString(SR.net_ftp_unsupported_method), "value"); } } } As you can see there FtpMethodInfo.GetMethodInfo(value) call in setter, which basically validates value against internal enum static array. Update 2: Checked mono implementation and it is not exact replica of native code + it does not implement some of the things.

    Read the article

  • How to pass data to a C++0x lambda function that will run in a different thread?

    - by Dimitri C.
    In our company we've written a library function to call a function asynchronously in a separate thread. It works using a combination of inheritance and template magic. The client code looks as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, &DemoThread::SomeFunction, stringToPassByValue); Since the introduction of lambda functions I'd like to use it in combination with lambda functions. I'd like to write the following client code: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=]() { const std::string someCopy = stringToPassByValue; }); Now, with the Visual C++ 2010 this code doesn't work. What happens is that the stringToPassByValue is not copied. Instead the "capture by value" feature passes the data by reference. The result is that if the function is executed after stringToPassByValue has gone out of scope, the application crashes as its destructor is called already. So I wonder: is it possible to pass data to a lambda function as a copy? Note: One possible solution would be to modify our framework to pass the data in the lambda parameter declaration list, as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=](const std::string stringPassedByValue) { const std::string someCopy = stringPassedByValue; } , stringToPassByValue); However, this solution is so verbose that our original function pointer solution is both shorter and easier to read. Update: The full implementation of AsyncCall is too big to post here. In short, what happens is that the AsyncCall template function instantiates a template class holding the lambda function. This class is derived from a base class that contains a virtual Execute() function, and upon an AsyncCall() call, the function call class is put on a call queue. A different thread then executes the queued calls by calling the virtual Execute() function, which is polymorphically dispatched to the template class which then executes the lambda function.

    Read the article

  • How slow are bit fields in C++

    - by Shane MacLaughlin
    I have a C++ application that includes a number of structures with manually controlled bit fields, something like #define FLAG1 0x0001 #define FLAG2 0x0002 #define FLAG3 0x0004 class MyClass { ' ' unsigned Flags; int IsFlag1Set() { return Flags & FLAG1; } void SetFlag1Set() { Flags |= FLAG1; } void ResetFlag1() { Flags &= 0xffffffff ^ FLAG1; } ' ' }; For obvious reasons I'd like to change this to use bit fields, something like class MyClass { ' ' struct Flags { unsigned Flag1:1; unsigned Flag2:1; unsigned Flag3:1; }; ' ' }; The one concern I have with making this switch is that I've come across a number of references on this site stating how slow bit fields are in C++. My assumption is that they are still faster than the manual code shown above, but is there any hard reference material covering the speed implications of using bit fields on various platforms, specifically 32bit and 64bit windows. The application deals with huge amounts of data in memory and must be both fast and memory efficient, which could well be why it was written this way in the first place.

    Read the article

  • How to: StructureMap and configuration based on runtime parameters?

    - by user981375
    In a nutshell - I want to be able to instantiate object based on runtime parameters. In this particular case there are only two parameters but the problem is that I'm facing different permutations of these parameters and it gets messy. Here is the situation: I want to get an instance of an object specific to, say, given country and then, say, specific state/province. So, considering the US, there are 50 possible combinations. In reality it's less than that but that's the max. Think of it this way, I want to find out what's the penalty for smoking pot in a given country/state, I pass this information in and I get instantiated object telling me what it is. To the code (for reference only): interface IState { string Penalty { get; } } interface ICountry { IState State { get; set; } string Name { get; } } class BasePenalty : IState { virtual public string Penalty { get { return "Slap on a wrist"; } } } class USA : ICountry { public USA(IState state) { State = state; } public IState State { get; set; } public string Name { get { return "USA"; } } } class Florida: BasePenalty { public override string Penalty { get { return "Public beheading"; } } } // and so on ... I defined other states // which have penalties other than the "Slap on a wrist" How do I configure my container that when given country and state combination it will return the penalty? I tried combinations of profile and contextual binding but that configuration was directly proportional to the number of classes I've created. I have already gone thru trouble of defining different combinations. I'd like to avoid having to do the same during container configuration. I want to inject State into the Country. Also, I'd like to return UsaBasePenalty value in case state is not specified. Is that possible? Perhaps these is something wrong with the design.

    Read the article

  • Core Data object into an NSDictionary with possible nil objects

    - by Chuck
    I have a core data object that has a bunch of optional values. I'm pushing a table view controller and passing it a reference to the object so I can display its contents in a table view. Because I want the table view displayed a specific way, I am storing the values from the core data object into an array of dictionaries then using the array to populate the table view. This works great, and I got editing and saving working properly. (i'm not using a fetched results controller because I don't have anything to sort on) The issue with my current code is that if one of the items in the object is missing, then I end up trying to put nil into the dictionary, which won't work. I'm looking for a clean way to handle this, I could do the following, but I can't help but feeling like there's a better way. *passedEntry is the core data object handed to the view controller when it is pushed, lets say it contains firstName, lastName, and age, all optional. if ([passedEntry firstName] != nil) { [dictionary setObject:[passedEntry firstName] forKey:@"firstName"] } else { [dictionary setObject:@"" forKey:@"firstName"] } And so on. This works, but it feels kludgy, especially if I end up adding more items to the core data object down the road.

    Read the article

  • Linq - reuse expression on child property

    - by user175528
    Not sure if what I am trying is possible or not, but I'd like to reuse a linq expression on an objects parent property. With the given classes: class Parent { int Id { get; set; } IList<Child> Children { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } class Child{ int Id { get; set; } Parent Dad { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } If i then have a helper Expression<Func<Parent,bool> ParentQuery() { Expression<Func<Parent,bool> q = p => p.Name=="foo"; } I then want to use this when querying data out for a child, along the lines of: using(var context=new Entities.Context) { var data=context.Child.Where(c => c.Name=="bar" && c.Dad.Where(ParentQuery)); } I know I can do that on child collections: using(var context=new Entities.Context) { var data=context.Parent.Where(p => p.Name=="foo" && p.Childen.Where(childQuery)); } but cant see any way to do this on a property that isnt a collection. This is just a simplified example, actually the ParentQuery will be more complex and I want to avoid having this repeated in multiple places as rather than just having 2 layers I'll have closer to 5 or 6, but all of them will need to reference the parent query to ensure security.

    Read the article

  • Compilation problem in the standard x86_64 libraries

    - by user350282
    Hi everyone, I am having trouble compiling a program I have written. I have two different files with the same includes but only one generates the following error when compiled with g++ /usr/lib/gcc/x86_64-linux-gnu/4.4.1/../../../../lib/crt1.o: In function `_start': /build/buildd/eglibc-2.10.1/csu/../sysdeps/x86_64/elf/start.S:109: undefined reference to `main' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status The files I am including in my header are as follows: #include <google/sparse_hash_map> using google::sparse_hash_map; #include <ext/hash_map> #include <math.h> #include <iostream> #include <queue> #include <vector> #include <stack> using std::priority_queue; using std::stack; using std::vector; using __gnu_cxx::hash_map; using __gnu_cxx::hash; using namespace std; Searching the internet for those two lines hasn't resulted in anything to help me. I would be very grateful for any advice. Thank you

    Read the article

  • Dictionaries with more than one key per value in Python

    - by nickname
    I am attempting to create a nice interface to access a data set where each value has several possible keys. For example, suppose that I have both a number and a name for each value in the data set. I want to be able to access each value using either the number OR the name. I have considered several possible implementations: Using two separate dictionaries, one for the data values organized by number, and one for the data values organized by name. Simply assigning two keys to the same value in a dictionary. Creating dictionaries mapping each name to the corresponding number, and vice versa Attempting to create a hash function that maps each name to a number, etc. (related to the above) Creating an object to encapsulate all three pieces of data, then using one key to map dictionary keys to the objects and simply searching the dictionary to map the other key to the object. None of these seem ideal. The first seems ugly and unmaintainable. The second also seems fragile. The third/fourth seem plausible, but seem to require either much manual specification or an overly complex implementation. Finally, the fifth loses constant-time performance for one of the lookups. In C/C++, I believe that I would use pointers to reference the same piece of data from different keys. I know that the problem is rather similar to a database lookup problem by a non-key column, however, I would like (if possible), to maintain the approximate O(1) performance of Python dictionaries. What is the most Pythonic way to achieve this data structure?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413 414  | Next Page >