Search Results

Search found 25391 results on 1016 pages for 'update notification'.

Page 404/1016 | < Previous Page | 400 401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410 411  | Next Page >

  • Logic: Best way to sample & count bytes of a 100MB+ file

    - by Jami
    Let's say I have this 170mb file (roughly 180 million bytes). What I need to do is to create a table that lists: all 4096 byte combinations found [column 'bytes'], and the number of times each byte combination appeared in it [column 'occurrences'] Assume two things: I can save data very fast, but I can update my saved data very slow. How should I sample the file and save the needed information? Here're some suggestions that are (extremely) slow: Go through each 4096 byte combinations in the file, save each data, but search the table first for existing combinations and update it's values. this is unbelievably slow Go through each 4096 byte combinations in the file, save until 1 million rows of data in a temporary table. Go through that table and fix the entries (combine repeating byte combinations), then copy to the big table. Repeat going through another 1 million rows of data and repeat the process. this is faster by a bit, but still unbelievably slow This is kind of like taking the statistics of the file. NOTE: I know that sampling the file can generate tons of data (around 22Gb from experience), and I know that any solution posted would take a bit of time to finish. I need the most efficient saving process

    Read the article

  • WordPress update_post_meta values. Delete when empty or just test for ""?

    - by Scott B
    My function below, will take the values from my custom meta fields (after a post has been edited, and save or publish has been clicked) and update or insert the posted meta values. However, if the user leaves this field blank, I believe I want to delete the meta altogether (so I can test for its presence and display accordingly vs just checking for ""). For example, one of my meta options gives the user the ability to add a Custom title to their post, which when present, will populate the page's tag. However, if the field is left empty, I want to default the tag to the_title(), which is simply the Post title used to identify the page/post. Since I'm not deleting the meta on save, its always present after the first time a user enters something in there, get_post_meta($post-ID,'MyCustomTitle', true) is always true. Further, they cannot blank it out by clearing the title field and hitting publish. What am I missing in the save in order to clear the value to "" when the user clears the field? if ($_POST['MyCustomTitle']) { update_custom_meta($postID, $_POST['MyCustomTitle'], 'MyCustomTitle'); } function update_custom_meta($postID, $newvalue, $field_name) { // To create new meta if(!get_post_meta($postID, $field_name)){ add_post_meta($postID, $field_name, $newvalue); }else{ // or to update existing meta update_post_meta($postID, $field_name, $newvalue); } }

    Read the article

  • iTunes Connect uploading issue

    - by CindySeattle
    Too bad that iTunes Connect changed its behavior recently. I'm providing an update to an existing app. I submitted new binary using the Loader without problem on the first try. Then I discovered that different from before, one has to reject the binaries in order to change screenshots. Too bad that the update is in the status of "In Review". Well, I have to rejected my binaries and begin to upload new screenshots, because I don't want to display screenshots of previous version. The new screen shots are uploaded but I'm stuck in "Developer rejected" status. Meaning I cannot upload the binaries and not able to change screenshots from that time on. The following error will appear when click Save Changes in either situations. "There was an error saving changes. Please try again later or contact iTunes Connect Support at [email protected]." I checked the source of the error page and think it's this error id="lcBoxWrapperHeaderTextUpdaterContainer" action="/WebObjects/iTunesConnect.woa/wo/7.0.0.9.7.7.1.1.1.1" errorId="ajaxContainerError" I have reported iTune Connect via the "Contact us" link on this issue but not get any response back for 2 days already. Very disappointing. Did anybody experience similar issue? How did you resolve this?

    Read the article

  • DataTrigger not reevaluating after property changes

    - by frozen
    I have a listbox which has its itemssource (this is done in the code behind on as the window is created) databound to an observable collection. The List box then has the following data template assigned against the items: usercontrol.xaml ... <ListBox x:Name="communicatorListPhoneControls" ItemContainerStyle="{StaticResource templateForCalls}"/> ... app.xaml ... <Style x:Key="templateForCalls" TargetType="{x:Type ListBoxItem}"> <Setter Property="ContentTemplate" Value="{StaticResource templateRinging}"/> <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=hasBeenAnswered}" Value="True"> <Setter Property="ContentTemplate" Value="{StaticResource templateAnswered}"/> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> ... When the observable collection is updated with an object, this appears in the listbox with the correct initial datatemplate, however when the "hasBeenAnswered" property is set to true (when debugging i can see the collection is correct) the datatrigger does not re-evaluate and then update the listbox to use the correct data template. I have implemented the INotifyPropertyChanged Event in my object, and if in the template i bind to a value, i can see the value update. Its just that the datatrigger will not re-evaluate and change to the correct template. I know the datatrigger binding is correct because if i close the window and open it again, it will correctly apply the second datatemplate, because the "hasBeenAnswered" is set to True.

    Read the article

  • Why can't I create an abstract constructor on an abstract C# class?

    - by Anthony D
    I am creating an abstract class. I want each of my derived classes to be forced to implement a specific signature of constructor. As such, I did what I would have done has I wanted to force them to implement a method, I made an abstract one. public abstract class A { abstract A(int a, int b); } However I get a message saying the abstract modifier is invalid on this item. My goal was to force some code like this. public class B : A { public B(int a, int b) : base(a, b) { //Some other awesome code. } } This is all C# .NET code. Can anyone help me out? Update 1 I wanted to add some things. What I ended up with was this. private A() { } protected A(int a, int b) { //Code } That does what some folks are saying, default is private, and the class needs to implement a constructor. However that doesn't FORCE a constructor with the signature A(int a, int b). public abstract class A { protected abstract A(int a, int b) { } } Update 2 I should be clear, to work around this I made my default constructor private, and my other constructor protected. I am not really looking for a way to make my code work. I took care of that. I am looking to understand why C# does not let you do this.

    Read the article

  • How to change the picture of CustomButtonField on click event?

    - by Ujjal boruah Vinod
    I have posted this question previously but the answer is not appropiate. The solution provided just change the picture when the custombutton has focus and unfocus. Suppose in my application I need to change the picture if the user clicks on the customButton, n i m doing this by calling the same screen (ie UiApplication.getUiApplication().pushScreen(new Screen2(b));) . Screen2 is the screen which holds the customButton. On the click evevt i m pushing the same screen by passing aint variable pic_status that determines which picture to be drawn in the CustomButton in the new screen. Is there any way to update the picture in the CustomButtonField on click event without pushing the same Screen again and again. //code in Screen2 public void fieldChanged(Field field, int context) { if(field == bf1) { if(pic_status == 0) { pic_status=1; } UiApplication.getUiApplication().pushScreen(new Screen2(pic_status)); } //code in CustomButtonField CustomButtonField(String label,int pic_status,long style) { super(style); this.label = label; this.labelHeight = getFont().getHeight(); this.labelWidth = getFont().getAdvance(label); this.notice = s; if(pic_status ==0) { currentPicture1 = onPicture; currentPicture2 = onPicture; } if(pic_status ==1) { currentPicture1 = clickPicture; currentPicture2 = onPicture; } if( pic_status==2 ) { currentPicture1 = onPicture; currentPicture2 = clickPicture; } } I need a way to update the customButtonField text and picture on the buttonClick event not on focus/unfocus event without pushing the same Screen again and again. If my above description of problem is not satisfactory, plz add a comment n i can give more details explanation of my problem?

    Read the article

  • md5_file() not working with IP addresses?

    - by Rob
    Here is my code relating to the question: $theurl = trim($_POST['url']); $md5file = md5_file($theurl); if ($md5file != '96a0cec80eb773687ca28840ecc67ca1') { echo 'Hash doesn\'t match. Incorrect file. Reupload it and try again'; When I run this script, it doesn't even output an error. It just stops. It loads for a bit, and then it just stops. Further down the script I implement it again, and it fails here, too: while($row=mysql_fetch_array($execquery, MYSQL_ASSOC)){ $hash = @md5_file($row['url']); $url = $row['url']; mysql_query("UPDATE urls SET hash='" . $hash . "' WHERE url='" . $url . "'") or die("MYSQL is indeed gay: ".mysql_error()); if ($hash != '96a0cec80eb773687ca28840ecc67ca1'){ $status = 'down'; }else{ $status = 'up'; } mysql_query("UPDATE urls SET status='" . $status . "' WHERE url='" . $url . "'") or die("MYSQL is indeed gay: ".mysql_error()); } And it checks all the URL's just fine, until it gets to one with an IP instead of a domain, such as: http://188.72.215.195/config.php In which, again, the script then just loads for a bit, and then stops. Any help would be much appreciated, if you need any more information just ask.

    Read the article

  • how to compare two tables fields name with another value in mysql?

    - by I Like PHP
    I have two tables table_school school_open_time|school_close_time|school_day 8:00 AM | 9:00PM | Monday 10:00 AM | 7:00PM | Wednesday table_college college_open_time|college_close_time|college_day 10:00 AM | 8:00PM | Monday 10:00 AM | 9:00PM | Tuesday 10:00 AM | 5:00PM | Wednesday Now I want to select school_open_time school_close time, college_open_time and college_close_time according to today (means college_day=school_day=today), and also if there is no row for a specific day in any of one table then it display blank field ( LEFT JOIN , I think I can use). Please suggest me best and optimized query for this. UPDATE: if there is no open time and close time for school then college_open_time and college_close_time has to be returned( not to be filled in database,just return) as school_open_time and school_close_time. and there always must be college_open_time and college_close_time for a given day MORE UPDATE: i m using below query SELECT college_open_time,college_close_time ,school_open_time, school_close_time FROM tbl_college LEFT JOIN tbl_school ON school_owner_id=college_owner_id WHERE college_owner_id='".$_session['user_id']."' AND college_day='".date('l',time())."'"; it return single row (left hand having some value and right hand having blank value) when there is no row of a given day in table_school, BUT display seven rows with same value on left hand side(college_open_time, college_close_time) and 6 blank row on right hand side (school_open_time and school_close_time) i need only one row when both table have a row of a given day but using above query take only first row of corresponding table_school where school_owner_id is 50(let), it not see the condition that school_day name should be given day

    Read the article

  • Spring MVC - Set an actionURL parameter with Javascript

    - by jeffl8n
    Is it possible to dynamically set a Spring MVC portlet:actionURL portlet:param using javascript? I have tried with the following code, but the id value always comes across as null to the controller. I have verified that setting the portlet:param manually passes the value correctly: <portlet:param name="id" value="2" /> I have also verified the value in the javascript is being set correctly and is not null. (Note: I've changed the variable names, etc. from the original code to simplify it and obfuscate it since it is my employer's code.) JSP: <portlet:actionURL var="modifyURL"> <portlet:param name="do" value="modify" /> <portlet:param name="id" value="${model.id}" /> </portlet:actionURL> ... <form:form action="${modifyURL}" id="modifyForm" modelAttribute="model"> <form:hidden path="id" id="id" /> </form:form> Javascript called when the update URL is clicked: function update() { document.forms[0]["id"].value = selectedId; document.forms[0].submit(); } Controller: @RequestMapping(params = {"do=modify"}) public void modify(@ModelAttribute("model") Model model, @RequestParam(value = "id", required=true) Long id, ActionRequest request, ActionResponse response, SessionStatus sessionStatus, ModelMap modelMap) { ....

    Read the article

  • Allowing Xform controls for optional XML elements

    - by Cam
    Hi, In designing an XForm interface to an XML database (using eXist and XSLTForms), I'd like to include an input control for an optional element. The XML data records already exist and while some contain the optional element, others don't. To update a record, I'm using the existing XML record as the model instance. The problem is that the form control is not displayed when the optional element is not present, which is logical, but presents a problem when a user wants to add data to the optional element. To be more explicit, here's an example data record, data.xml: <a> <b>content</b> </a> with RNC schema: start = element a { element b { text }, element notes { text }? } XForms model: <xf:model> <xf:instance xmlns="" src="data.xml"/> <xf:submission id="save" method="post" action="update.xq" /> </xf:model> And control: <xf:input ref="/a/notes"> <xf:label>Notes (optional): </xf:label> </xf:input> The problem is that the 'Notes' input control is simply not displayed. An obvious solution is to add a trigger button to allow the user to insert the element if needed, but it is preferable to just have the input control appear, and be empty. My question is: is there some subtle combination of lesser-know attributes/binds/multiple instances/xpath expressions that will cause the control to always be displayed? Thanks

    Read the article

  • GridView edit problem If primary key is editable (design problem)

    - by Nassign
    I would like to ask about the design of table based on it's editability in a Grid View. Let me explain. For example, I have a table named ProductCustomerRel. Method 1 CustomerCode varchar PK ProductCode varchar PK StoreCode varchar PK Quantity int Note text So the combination of the CustomerCode, StoreCode and ProductCode must be unique. The record is displayed on a gridview. The requirement is that you can edit the customer, product and storecode but when the data is saved, the PK constraint must still persist. The problem here is it would be natural for a grid to be able to edit the 3 primary key, you can only achieve the update operation of the grid view by first deleting the row and then inserting the row with the updated data. An alternative to this is to just update the table and add a SeqNo, and just enforce the unique constraint of the 3 columns when inserting and updating in the grid view. Method 2 SeqNo int PK CustomerCode varchar ProductCode varchar StoreCode varchar Quantity int Note text My question is which of the two method is better? or is there another way to do this?

    Read the article

  • JBOSS 5 + EJB3 = Boot blocked!

    - by Luigi 1982
    Hi at All... I'm very angry and this compromises my capacity to find a solution... One day my jboss 5.0 during the boot stop at Adding notification listener for logging mbean "jboss.system:service=Logging,type=Log4jService" FOREVER!!! I'm try ever solution find on Stackoverflow. The only good is to run the jboss by prompt and connect at 8787 with eclipse to debug the app.. But I want to back at the normal use.. Thanks in advice..

    Read the article

  • How can I dynamically call the named route in a :partial in rails?

    - by Angela
    I have the following partial. It can be called from three different times in a view as follows: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => email} %> Second time: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => call} %> Third time: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => letter} %> In each instance, call, email, letter refer to a specific instance of a Model Call, Email, or Letter. Here is what I tried to do and conceptually what I'd like to do: assign the route based on the class name that has been passed to the :event from the :partial. What I did was create what the actual url should be. The 'text' of it is correct, but doesn't seem to recognize it as a named route. <% url = "skip_contact_#{event.class.name.tableize.singularize}_url" % <%= link_to_remote "Skip #{url} Remote", :url = skip_contact_email_url(contact_event, event), :update = "update-area-#{contact_event.id}-#{event.id}" % ' My challenge: skip_contact_email_url only works when the event refers to an email. How can I dynamically define skip_contact_email_url to be skip_contact_letter_url if the local variable is letter? Even better, how can I have a single named route that would do the appropriate action?

    Read the article

  • Response time increasing (worsening) over time with consistent load

    - by NJ
    Ok. I know I don't have a lot of information. That is, essentially, the reason for my question. I am building a game using Flash/Flex and Rails on the back-end. Communication between the two is via WebORB. Here is what is happening. When I start the client an operation calls the server every 60 seconds (not much, right?) which results in two database SELECTS and an UPDATE and a resulting response to the client. This repeats every 60 seconds. I deployed a test version on heroku and NewRelic's RPM told me that response time degraded over time. One client with one task every 60 seconds. Over several hours the response time drifted from 150ms to over 900ms in response time. I have been able to reproduce this in my development environment (my Macbook Pro) so it isn't a problem on Heroku's side. I am not doing anything sophisticated (by design) in the server app. An action gets called, gets some data from the database, performs an AR update and then returns a response. No caching, etc. Any thoughts? Anyone? I'd really appreciate it.

    Read the article

  • Cannot reach reach jQuery (in parent document ) from IFRAME

    - by Michael Joyner
    I have written a backup program for SugarCRM. My program sets a iframe to src=BACKUP.PHP My backup program sends updates to parent window with: echo "<script type='text/javascript'>parent.document.getElementById('file_size').value='".fileSize2human(filesize($_SESSION['archive_file_name']))."';parent.document.getElementById('file_count').value=".$_SESSION['archive_file_count'].";parent.document.getElementById('description').innerHTML += '".$log_entry."\\r\\n';parent.document.getElementById('description').scrollTop = parent.document.getElementById('description').scrollHeight;</script>"; echo str_repeat( ' ', 4096); flush(); ob_flush(); I have added a JQUERY UI PROGRESS BAR and I need to know how I update the progress bar on the parent window. I tried this: $percent_complete = $_SESSION['archive_file_count'] / $_SESSION['archive_total_files']; echo "<script type='text/javascript'>parent.document.jquery('#progressbar').animate_progressbar($percent_complete); </script>"; ......... and get this error in browser. Uncaught TypeError: Object [object HTMLDocument] has no method 'jquery' HOW CAN I UPDATE THE PROGRESS BAR IN PARENT DOCUMENT FROM THE IFRAME?

    Read the article

  • Xml updating with linq not working when quering

    - by user1734230
    I have problem i'm trying to update a specific part of the XML with the linq query but it doesn't work. So i an xml file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <DesignConfiguration> <Design name="CSF_Packages"> <SourceFolder>C:\CSF_Packages</SourceFolder> <DestinationFolder>C:\Documents and Settings\xxx</DestinationFolder> <CopyLookups>True</CopyLookups> <CopyImages>False</CopyImages> <ImageSourceFolder>None</ImageSourceFolder> <ImageDesinationFolder>None</ImageDesinationFolder> </Design> </DesignConfiguration> I want to select the part where the part where there is Design name="somethning" and get the descendants and then update the descendants value that means this part: <SourceFolder>C:\CSF_Packages</SourceFolder> <DestinationFolder>C:\Documents and Settings\xxx</DestinationFolder> <CopyLookups>True</CopyLookups> <CopyImages>False</CopyImages> <ImageSourceFolder>None</ImageSourceFolder> <ImageDesinationFolder>None</ImageDesinationFolder> I have this code: XDocument configXml = XDocument.Load(configXMLFileName); var updateData = configXml.Descendants("DesignConfiguration").Elements().Where(el => el.Name == "Design" && el.Attribute("name").Value.Equals("AFP_GRAFIKA")).FirstOrDefault(); configXml.Save(configXMLFileName); I'm getting the null data in the updateData varibale. When I'm trying the Descendat's function through QuickWatch it also returns a null value. When I'm checking the configXML variable it has data that is my whole xml. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • copy rows with special condition

    - by pooria_googooli
    I have a table with a lot of columns. For example I have a table with these columns : ID,Fname,Lname,Tel,Mob,Email,Job,Code,Company,...... ID column is auto number column. I want to copy all rows in this table to this table and change the company column value to 12 in this copied row. I don't want to write name all of the columns because I have a lot of table with a lot of columns. I tried this code but I had this error : declare @c int; declare @i int; select * into CmDet from CmDet; select @C= count(id) from CmDet; while @i < @C begin UPDATE CmDet SET company =12 WHERE company=11 set @i += 1 end error : Msg 2714, Level 16, State 6, Line 3 There is already an object named 'CmDet' in the database. I changed the code to this declare @c int declare @i int insert into CmDet select * from CmDet; select @C= count(id) from CmDet; while @i < @C begin UPDATE CmDet SET company =12 WHERE company=11 set @i += 1 end and I had this error : Msg 8101, Level 16, State 1, Line 3 An explicit value for the identity column in table 'CmDet' can only be specified when a column list is used and IDENTITY_INSERT is ON. What should I do ?

    Read the article

  • PHP - Calling function inside another class -> function

    - by Kolind
    I'm trying to do this: class database { function editProvider($post) { $sql = "UPDATE tbl SET "; foreach($post as $key => $val): if($key != "providerId") { $val = formValidate($val); $sqlE[] = "`$key`='$val'"; } endforeach; $sqlE = implode(",", $sqlE); $where = ' WHERE `id` = \''.$post['id'].'\''; $sql = $sql . $sqlE . $where; $query = mysql_query($sql); if($query){ return true; } } // }//end class And then use this function * INSIDE of another class *: function formValidate($string){ $string = trim($string); $string = mysql_real_escape_string($string); return $string; } // .. on $val. Why doesn't this work? if I write in a field of the form, it's not escaping anything at all. How can that be? * UPDATE * handler.php: if(isset($_GET['do'])){ if($_GET['do'] == "addLogin") { $addLogin = $db->addLogin($_POST); } if($_GET['do'] == "addProvider") { $addProvider = $db->addProvider($_POST); } if($_GET['do'] == "editProfile") { $editProfile = $db->editProfile($_POST); } if($_GET['do'] == "editProvider") { $editProvider = $db->editProvider($_POST); } } //end if isset get do ** The editProvider function works fine except for this :-) **

    Read the article

  • How to select Distinct records from SQL without a primary key

    - by Satheesh
    I need to show a Notification on user login if there is any unread messages.So if multiple users send(5 messages each) while the user is in offline these messages should be shown on login.Means have to show the last messages from each user. I use joining to find records. In this scenario Message from User is not a primary key. This is my query SELECT UserMessageConversations.MessageFrom, UserMessageConversations.MessageFromUserName,UserMessages.MessageTo, UserMessageConversations.IsGroupChat, UserMessageConversations.IsLocationChat, UserMessageConversations.Message, UserMessages.UserGroupID,UserMessages.LocationID FROM UserMessageConversations LEFT OUTER JOIN UserMessages ON UserMessageConversations.UserMessageID = UserMessages.UserMessageID ![enter image description here][1]Where UserMessageConversations.MessageTo=743 AND UserMessageConversations.ReadFlag=0 This is the output obtained from above query. MessageFrom -582 appears twice. I need only one record of this User. How is it possible

    Read the article

  • One-to-many Associations Empty Columns Issue (Ext on Rails)

    - by Joe
    I'm playing with rewriting part of a web application in Rails + Ext. However, I'm having trouble getting an associated models' name to display in the grid view. I've been able to successfully convert several models and arrange the views nicely using tabs and Ext's layout helpers. However, I'm in the middle of setting up an association -- I've followed along with Jon Barket's tutorial on how to do this using Ext -- and I've made all the Rails and JS changes suggested (with appropriate name changes for my models,) the result being that the combo box is now being correctly populated with the names of the associated models, and changes are actually written correctly to database, BUT the data doesn't show up in the column, it's just empty. However, the correct data is there in the 'detail' view. Really just wondering if anyone else ran into this, or had any thoughts on what could be happening. Definitely willing to post code if requested; just note that (AFAIK) my changes follow the tutorial pretty closely. Thanks in advance! UPDATE: Alright, slight progress - kind of. I can get the associated model id # displaying properly -- just by modifying the column model slightly. But I can't get the virtual attribute displayed in the main table (in Jon's example it's country_name.) It still goes blank when I change the data source for that column from dataIndex: 'model[associated_model_id]' to dataIndex: 'virtual_attributes[associated_model_name]' ANOTHER UPDATE: Bump. Has NOBODY here tried integrating Ext with Rails?

    Read the article

  • How to reduce the time of clang_complete search through boost

    - by kirill_igum
    I like using clang with vim. The one problem that I always have is that whenever I include boost, clang goes through boost library every time I put "." after a an object name. It takes 5-10 seconds. Since I don't make changes to boost headers, is there a way to cache the search through boost? If not, is there a way to remove boost from the auto-completion search? update (1) in response to answer by adaszko after :let g:clang_use_library = 1 I type a name of a variable. I press ^N. Vim starts to search through boost tree. it auto-completes the variable. i press "." and get the following errors: Error detected while processing function ClangComplete: line 35: Traceback (most recent call last): Press ENTER or type command to continue Error detected while processing function ClangComplete: line 35: File "<string>", line 1, in <module> Press ENTER or type command to continue Error detected while processing function ClangComplete: line 35: NameError: name 'vim' is not defined Press ENTER or type command to continue Error detected while processing function ClangComplete: line 40: E121: Undefined variable: l:res Press ENTER or type command to continue Error detected while processing function ClangComplete: line 40: E15: Invalid expression: l:res Press ENTER or type command to continue Error detected while processing function ClangComplete: line 58: E121: Undefined variable: l:res Press ENTER or type command to continue Error detected while processing function ClangComplete: line 58: E15: Invalid expression: l:res Press ENTER or type command to continue ... and there is no auto-compeltion update (2) not sure if clang_complete should take care of the issue with boost. vim without plugins does search through boost. superuser has an answer to comment out search through boost dirs with set include=^\\s*#\\s*include\ \\(<boost/\\)\\@!

    Read the article

  • Detect if an app was uninstalled

    - by mobilekid
    Is there a way to get a system notification when an app has been uninstalled? I would like to maintain a table of all clients' info currently using my app. However, that seems impossible if there is no way to detect this event. The first solution I can think of is to have an always running service in the background listening for android.intent.action.PACKAGE_REMOVED. But then would that service be killed once the uninstallation process has ended, or would it be stopped just before the process has kicked off? Also even if this is a solution it's has the potential to put off a lot of people when they realise that part of the app is running in the background. Any suggestions? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • JQUERY - how to get updated value after ajax removes data from within it?

    - by Brian
    I have a an element with thumbnails. I allow users to sort their display order (which fires off an update to the DB via ajax). I also allow them to delete images (which, after deletion, fires off a request to update the display order for all remaining images). My problem is with binding or live I think, but I don't know where to apply it. The array fired off upon delete contains ALL the ids for the images that were there on page load. The issue is that after they delete an image the array STILL contains the original ids (including the one that was deleted) so it is obviously not refreshing the value of the element after ajax has removed things from inside it. I need to tell it to go get the refreshed contents... From what I have been reading, this is normal but I don't understand how to tie it into my routine. I need to trigger the mass re-ordering after any deletion. Any ideas gurus? $('a.delimg').click(function(){ var parent = $(this).parent().parent(); var id = $(this).attr('id'); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "../updateImages.php", data: "action=delete&id=" + id, beforeSend: function() { parent.animate({'backgroundColor':'#fb6c6c'},300); $.jnotify("<strong>Deleting This Image & Updating The Image Order</strong>", 5000); }, success: function(data) { parent.slideUp(300,function() { parent.remove(); $("#images ul").sortable(function() { //NEEDS TO GET THE UPDATED CONTENT var order = $(this).sortable("serialize") + '&action=updateRecordsListings'; $.post("../updateImages.php", order, function(theResponse){ $.jnotify("<strong>" + theResponse + "</strong>", 2000); }); }); }); } }); return false; }); Thanks for any help you can be.

    Read the article

  • In jquery Set a delay to fade out or fadeout right away on click

    - by JClu
    I am trying to right a script for a notification popup. I wan't the popup to fade out after X seconds or fadeout when the user clicks on the message. I can get both effects to work individually but when I try to combine them fadeOut works. This is my code so far: function notify(data, type) { switch(type) { case "success": $('#notify').html(data) .removeAttr("style") .addClass('notifySuccess') .click(function() { $("#notify").fadeOut(); }) .delay(5000).fadeOut(); break; case "error": $('#notify').html(data) .removeAttr("style") .addClass('notifyFailure') .click(function() { $("#notify").fadeOut(); }) .delay(5000).fadeOut(); break; } }

    Read the article

  • A very interesting MYSQL problem (related to indexing, million records, algorithm.)

    - by terence410
    This problem is pretty hard to describe and therefore difficult to search the answer. I hope some expert could share you opinions on that. I have a table with around 1 million of records. The table structure is similar to something like this: items{ uid (primary key, bigint, 15) updated (indexed, int, 11) enabled (indexed, tinyint, 1) } The scenario is like this. I have to select all of the records everyday and do some processing. It takes around 3 second to handle each item. I have written a PHP script to fetch 200 items each time using the following. select * from items where updated unix_timestamp(now()) - 86400 and enabled = 1 limit 200; I will then update the "updated" field of the selected items to make sure that it wont' be selected again within one day. The selected query is something like that. update items set updated = unix_timestamp(now()) where uid in (1,2,3,4,...); Then, the PHP will continue to run and process the data which doesn't require any MYSQL connection anymore. Since I have million records and each record take 3 seconds to process, it's definitely impossible to do it sequentially. Therefore, I will execute the PHP in every 10 seconds. However, as time goes by and the table growth, the select getting much slower. Sometimes, it take more than 100 seconds to run! Do you guys have any suggestion how may I solve this problem?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 400 401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410 411  | Next Page >