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  • The question about the basics of LINQ to SQL working

    - by Alex
    I just started learning LINQ to SQL, and so far I'm impressed with the easy of use and good performance. I used to think that when doing LINQ queries like from Customer in DB.Customers where Customer.Age > 30 select Customer Get all customers from the database ("SELECT * FROM Customers"), move them to the Customers array and then make a search in that Array using .NET methods. This is very inefficient, what if there are hundreds of thousands of customers in the database? Making such big SELECT queries would kill the web application. Now after experiencing how actually fast LINQ to SQL is, I start to suspect that when doing that query I just wrote, LINQ somehow converts it to a SQL Query string SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Age > 30 And only when necessary it will run the query. So my question is: am I right? And when is the query actually run? The reason why I'm asking is not only because I want to understand how it works in order to build good optimized applications, but because I came across the following problem. I have 2 tables, one of them is Books, the other has information on how many books were sold on certain days. My goal is to select books that had at least 50 sales/day in past 10 days. It's done with this simple query: from Book in DB.Books where (from Sale in DB.Sales where Sale.SalesAmount >= 50 and Sale.DateOfSale >= DateTime.Now.AddDays(-10) select Sale.BookID).Contains(Book.ID) select Book The point is, I have to use the checking part in several queries and I decided to create an array with IDs of all popular books: var popularBooksIDs = from Sale in DB.Sales where Sale.SalesAmount >= 50 and Sale.DateOfSale >= DateTime.Now.AddDays(-10) select Sale.BookID; BUT when I try to do the query now: from Book in DB.Books where popularBooksIDs.Contains(Book.ID) select Book It doesn't work! That's why I think that we can't use thins kinds of shortcuts in LINQ to SQL queries, like we can't use them in real SQL. We have to create straightforward queries, am I right?

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  • I want tell the VC++ Compiler to compile all code. Can it be done?

    - by KGB
    I am using VS2005 VC++ for unmanaged C++. I have VSTS and am trying to use the code coverage tool to accomplish two things with regards to unit tests: See how much of my referenced code under test is getting executed See how many methods of my code under test (if any) are not unit tested at all Setting up the VSTS code coverage tool (see the link text) and accomplishing task #1 was straightforward. However #2 has been a surprising challenge for me. Here is my test code. class CodeCoverageTarget { public: std::string ThisMethodRuns() { return "Running"; } std::string ThisMethodDoesNotRun() { return "Not Running"; } }; #include <iostream> #include "CodeCoverageTarget.h" using namespace std; int main() { CodeCoverageTarget cct; cout<<cct.ThisMethodRuns()<<endl; } When both methods are defined within the class as above the compiler automatically eliminates the ThisMethodDoesNotRun() from the obj file. If I move it's definition outside the class then it is included in the obj file and the code coverage tool shows it has not been exercised at all. Under most circumstances I want the compiler to do this elimination for me but for the code coverage tool it defeats a significant portion of the value (e.g. finding untested methods). I have tried a number of things to tell the compiler to stop being smart for me and compile everything but I am stumped. It would be nice if the code coverage tool compensated for this (I suppose by scanning the source and matching it up with the linker output) but I didn't find anything to suggest it has a special mode to be turned on. Am I totally missing something simple here or is this not possible with the VC++ compiler + VSTS code coverage tool? Thanks in advance, KGB

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  • array loop not complete

    - by user217582
    Whenever the cursor move over the note, it would call getCollision() function to store the name of the sprite. Can store more than one sprite in array but the normalNote() function failed to work correctly? When I click a button which called normalNote(), it would only loop once (one note was redraw) before the pop. After the pop, it should have continue to loop until the rest of the notes from getChildbyname is redraw. Wonder if there any missing code? private function getCollision(x:int, pt:int):void { for(var i:int=pt;i<tickArray.length;i++) { if(typeArray[i]=="eighth") { var getCurrentNote:String = "note"+i; var child:Sprite = c.getChildByName(getCurrentNote) as Sprite; drawEighthUp(child,"-","-",0xff0000); tempNote.push(getCurrentNote); } } } private function normalNote():void { for(var iii:int=0;iii<tempNote.length;iii++) { var child:Sprite = c.getChildByName(tempNote[iii]) as Sprite; trace("tt",tempNote.length); trace("iii",iii); var asd:String = tempNote[iii].toString(); var idx:int = int(asd.substr(4)); if(typeArray[idx]=="eighth") { drawEighthUp(child,"-","-",0x000000); tempNote.pop(); } } }

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  • Rewarding iOS app beta testers with in app purchase?

    - by Partridge
    My iOS app is going to be free, but with additional functionality enabled via in app purchase. Currently beta testers are doing a great job finding bugs and I want to reward them for their hard work. I think the least I can do is give them a full version of the app so that they don't have to buy the functionality themselves. However, I'm not sure what the best way to do this is. There do not appear to be promo codes for in app purchase so I can't just email out promo codes. I have all the tester device UDIDs so when the app launches I could grab the device UDID and compare it to an internal list of 'approved' UDIDs. Is this what other developers do? My concerns: The in app purchase content would not be tied to their iTunes account, so if beta testers move to a new device they would not be able to enable the content unless I released a new build in the app store with their new UDID. So they may have to buy it eventually anyway. Having an internal list leaves a hole for hackers to modify the list and add themselves to it. What would you do?

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  • What are Sharepoint(MOSS 2007) Developement/Deployment best practices.

    - by Satish
    We are deploying sharepoint MOSS 2007 at our work. I'm trying to come up with a sharepoint development and deployment methodology. We have Dev/QA/Prod environments and I need a way, preferably automated to deploy changes from Dev to QA and from there to prod. We are creating site collections web parts etc. Some of it is done directly within sharepoint, some through Sharepoint designer or visual studio. I'm looking for a way to extract this and deploy it to other enviornments. I tried stsadm backup/restore import/export etc but they all move the data along with it as well. I just need the structure deployed. Content deployment paths and jobs does the same thing as well. We use MSBuild & Curisecontrol.net for other .net projects to automate build/deployment process. I'm looking for something similar with sharepoint if possible. What are your best practices for this? Since my team is learning we don't have a defined process and we are open to change our development process if needed.

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  • Entity Framework + MySQL - Why is the performance so terrible?

    - by Cyril Gupta
    When I decided to use an OR/M (Entity Framework for MySQL this time) for my new project I was hoping it would save me time, but I seem to have failed it (for the second time now). Take this simple SQL Query SELECT * FROM POST ORDER BY addedOn DESC LIMIT 0, 50 It executes and gives me results in less than a second as it should (the table has about 60,000 rows). Here's the equivalent LINQ To Entities query that I wrote for this var q = (from p in db.post orderby p.addedOn descending select p).Take(50); var q1 = q.ToList(); //This is where the query is fetched and timed out But this query never even executes it times out ALWAYS (without orderby it takes 5 seconds to run)! My timeout is set to 12 seconds so you can imagine it is taking much more than that. Why is this happening? Is there a way I can see what is the actual SQL Query that Entity Framework is sending to the db? Should I give up on EF+MySQL and move to standard SQL before I lose all eternity trying to make it work? I've recalibrated my indexes, tried eager loading (which actually makes it fail even without the orderby clause) Please help, I am about to give up OR/M for MySQL as a lost cause.

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  • jQuery resizable() dynamic maxWidth option

    - by Vitaliy Isikov
    I have 3 columns that are resizable. When one is made wider, the one to it's left is made smaller. Essentially there are only 2 handles. Left col and Mid col. So when Mid col is made thinner, Right col expands accordingly. All three of them are contained with a 900px parent div, so the sum of all three is always 900. They have max and min widths set statically. My issue is that if you take the left handle and move it all the way to the right you're still able to use the right handle and expand the mid col past the edge of the parent div. I thought of a way to solve that issue by writing up a function that checks the widths of the columns and then subtracts left and right columns from the parent div width, I called it mWid. This leaves me with the number I want to set as the maxWidth for Mid col. Now the issue is that mWid is not gettings updated for here "maxWidth: mWid" Here is what the function for the right handle looks like: $(function() { $("#midResizable").resizable({ handles: 'e', containment: '#container', maxWidth: mWid, // gets set once, but doesn't update! WHY? minWidth: 195, resize: function(event, ui) { contWidth = $('#container').width() newWidth = $(this).width() leftWidth = $('#leftResizable').width() rightWidth = $('#rightResizable').width() $("#rightResizable").css("width", (contWidth-15)-(newWidth)-(leftWidth)+"px"); checkWid() } }); }); function checkWid() { rightWidth = $('#rightResizable').width() leftWidth = $('#leftResizable').width() contWidth = $('#container').width() mWid = (contWidth-15)-(rightWidth)-(leftWidth) }

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  • In threads, WaitForMultipleObjects never returns if set to INFINITE

    - by AKN
    Let say I have three thread handles HandleList[0] = hThread1; HandleList[1] = hThread2; HandleList[2] = hThread3; /*All the above are of type HANDLE*/ Before closing the application, I want the thread to get its task done. So I want to make app wait till thread completes. So I do, WaitForMultipleObjects(3, HandleList, TRUE, INFINITE ); By this I'm able to make the thread, complete its task. But control never move to next line after the call to WaitForMultileObjects irrespective of all thread completing its task. If I use, some seconds instead of INFINITE, it comes to next line after that many secs, irrspective of whether thread completes its task or not. WaitForMultipleObjects(3, HandleList, TRUE, 10000 ); My problem here is, I'm can't go for seconds, as I may not be sure whether the threads will complete its task with the given time. To list my problem in simple words, I want all my thread to finish the task, before I close my app. How can I achieve it using WaitForMultipleObjects API?

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  • ReWriteRule is redirecting rather rewriting

    - by James Doc
    At the moment I have two machines that I do web development on; an iMac for work at the office and a MacBook for when I have to work on the move. They both running OS X 10.6 have the same version of PHP, Apache, etc running on them. Both computers have the same files of the website, including the .htaccess file (see below). On the MacBook the URLs are rewritten nicely, masking the URL they are pointing to (eg site/page/page-name), however on the iMac they simply redirect to the page (eg site/index.php?method=page&value=page-name) which is making switching back and forth between machines a bit of a pain! I'm sure it must be a config setting somewhere, but I can't for the life of me find it. Has anyone got a remedy? Many thanks. I'm fairly convinced there is a much nice way of writing this htaccess file without loosing access several key folders as well! Options +FollowSymlinks RewriteEngine on RewriteBase /In%20Progress/Vila%20Maninga/ RewriteRule ^page/([a-z|0-9_&;=-]+) index.php?method=page&value=$1 [NC] RewriteRule ^tag/([a-z|0-9_]+) index.php?method=tag&value=$1 [NC] RewriteRule ^search/([a-z|0-9_"]+) index.php?method=search&value=$1 [NC] RewriteRule ^modpage/([con0-9-]+) index.php?method=modpage&value=$1 [NC] RewriteRule ^login index.php?method=login [NC] RewriteRule ^logout index.php?method=logout [NC] RewriteRule ^useraccounts index.php?method=useraccounts [NC]

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  • How can I solve the Log Pile wooden puzzle with a computer program?

    - by craig1410
    Can anyone suggest how to solve the Log Pile wooden puzzle using a computer program? See here to visualise the puzzle: http://www.puzzlethis.co.uk/products/madcow/the_log_pile.htm The picture only shows some of the pieces. The full set of 10 pieces are configured as follows with 1 representing a peg, -1 representing a hole and 0 representing neither a peg nor a hole. -1,1,0,-1,0 1,0,1,0,0 1,-1,1,0,0 -1,-1,0,0,-1 -1,1,0,1,0 0,1,0,0,1 1,0,-1,0,-1 0,-1,0,1,0 0,0,-1,1,-1 1,0,-1,0,0 The pieces can be interlocked in two layers of 5 pieces each with the top layer at 90 degrees to the bottom layer as shown in the above link. I have already created a solution to this problem myself using Java but I feel that it was a clumsy solution and I am interested to see some more sophisticated solutions. Feel free to either suggest a general approach or to provide a working program in the language of your choice. My approach was to use the numeric notation above to create an array of "Logs". I then used a combination/permutation generator to try all possible arrangements of the Logs until a solution was found where all the intersections equated to zero (ie. Peg to Hole, Hole to Peg or Blank to Blank). I used some speed-ups to detect the first failed intersection for a given permutation and move on to the next permutation. I hope you find this as interesting as I have. Thanks, Craig.

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  • Delphi fast large bitmap creation (without clearing)

    - by Ritsaert Hornstra
    When using the TBitmap wrapper for a GDI bitmap from the unit Graphics I noticed it will always clear out the bitmap (using a PatBlt call) when setting up a bitmap with SetSize( w, h ). When I copy in the bits later on (see routine below) it seems ScanLine is the fastest possibility and not SetDIBits. function ToBitmap: TBitmap; var i, N, x: Integer; S, D: PAnsiChar; begin Result := TBitmap.Create(); Result.PixelFormat := pf32bit; Result.SetSize( width, height ); S := Src; D := Result.ScanLine[ 0 ]; x := Integer( Result.ScanLine[ 1 ] ) - Integer( D ); N := width * sizeof( longword ); for i := 0 to height - 1 do begin Move( S^, D^, N ); Inc( S, N ); Inc( D, x ); end; end; The bitmaps I need to work with are quite large (150MB of RGB memory). With these iomages it takes 150ms to simply create an empty bitmap and a further 140ms to overwrite it's contents. Is there a way of initializing a TBitmap with the correct size WITHOUT initializing the pixels itself and leaving the memory of the pixels uninitialized (eg dirty)? Or is there another way to do such a thing. I know we could work on the pixels in place but this still leaves the 150ms of unnessesary initializtion of the pixels.

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  • WPF tree data binding model & repository

    - by Am
    Hi, I have a well defined tree repository. Where I can rename items, move them up, down, etc. Add new and delete. The data is stored in a table as follows: Index Parent Label Left Right 1 0 root 1 14 2 1 food 2 7 3 2 cake 3 4 4 2 pie 5 6 5 1 flowers 8 13 6 5 roses 9 10 7 5 violets 11 12 Representing the following tree: (1) root (14) (2) food (7) (8) flowers (13) (3) cake (4) (5) pie (6) (9) roeses (10) (11) violets (12) or root food cake pie flowers roses violets Now, my problem is how to represent this in a bindable way, so that a TreeView can handle all the possible data changes? Renaming is easy, all I need is to make the label an updatble field. But what if a user moves flowers above food? I can make the relevant data changes, but they cause a complete data change to all other items in the tree. And all the examples I found of bindable hierarchies are good for non static trees.. So my current (and bad) solution is to reload the displayed tree after relocation change. Any direction will be good. Thanks

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  • Actionscript Enterframe Movement

    - by David
    I am trying to make accelerated movement, but I am running into a problem that, for the life of me, I cannot understand. My class definition: public class Player extends MovieClip { private var stageRef:Stage; private var key:KeyObject; private var acceleration:int = .5; private var curSpeed:int = 0; public function Player(stageRef:Stage) { this.stageRef = stageRef; addEventListener(Event.ENTER_FRAME, enterFrame); key = new KeyObject(stageRef); } public function enterFrame(e:Event) : void { if(key.isDown(key.RIGHT)) { x += 5; } } } This works to move my position in the x direction at a constant rate. However, if I change enterFrame to public function enterFrame(e:Event) : void { if(key.isDown(key.RIGHT)) { x += acceleration; } } No movement occurs. Is there something going on in the event I do not understand? Why is it that I can have x increased by a constant value but not a constant value as defined in a variable in the class? Is it a scope issue?

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  • Why are changes to classes ignored after dom changes?

    - by Lg102
    I have a price grid that uses relative positioning to move a field around, beneath a box with: overflow: hidden;. In this is field, there are absolute-positioned boxes containing prices. When this box is hovered, the matching values above and left of the will change color. In order to achieve this, a class is toggled using jQuery. This initially works. However, after the grid is moved, the class change doesn't affect the block above the grid anymore. In the Chrome console, i can see the class being added, but it's css-styling isn't applied. No other styles for the element have changed. I am 100% sure there is no other style-rule influencing the element, it just stops responding to the change in class after the DOM has been altered. Can i 'refresh' the DOM somehow? Edit: I've tried to get the relevant code only: Adding the cell in the first place: $("#price_dates_cells").append("<div id='"+weekday[theBeginDate.getDay()]+"-"+theBeginDate.getDate()+"-"+(theBeginDate.getMonth()-1)+"' class='datecell' style='left: "+( Math.floor( difference / ( 3600 * 24 * 1000) ) * ( cellwidth ) )+"px'>"+weekday[theBeginDate.getDay()]+"<br>"+theBeginDate.getDate()+" "+yearmonth[theBeginDate.getMonth()]+"</div>"); Toggle the class: var str_element = "#"+weekday[Bdate.getDay()]+"-"+Bdate.getDate()+"-"+(Bdate.getMonth()-1); $(str_element).toggleClass("red"); and the movement that seems to cause the problem: $('#price_grid').animate({"top": (( ( horizontalMovement ) * cellheight)) }, 'fast', 'linear');

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  • How can I prevent text displacement for some foreign language fonts?

    - by weltraumpirat
    I have a multilingual project (currently 13 languages), which uses many different font variations of "Helvetica Neue", mostly bold, condensed and regular cuts from the LinoType Pro font set ( which includes western european characters) and the same for cyrillic. We will probably add chinese and japanese variations in the future. I have set up the project to use different CSS stylesheets and separately load the fonts for each version, depending on which language the user selects, so I can have different line heights, kerning and/or font sizes to make everything keep the original look, even if the fonts look nothing alike. All of this works well, except for one problem: For some reason, all cyrillic letters seem to be displaced. They appear 2-3 pixels below the correct base line, and actually protrude across the textfield's bottom border, even when the field is set to autosize. When I use textfield.getCharBoundaries(), all values seem to be correct, even though they obviously aren't rendered correctly. To make everything look neat, I could of course manually move all problematic textfields up or down according to language and font size, but I was wondering if there was some way to prevent or at least detect this kind of displacement in order to automatically handle the adjustments - the Flash Player should have some sort of information on how things are rendered, shouldn't it? Have any of you had similar problems? Or better yet: a solution?

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  • Is there a way to load an existing connection string for Linq to SQL from an app.config file?

    - by Brian Surowiec
    I'm running into a really annoying problem with my Linq to SQL project. When I add everything in under the web project everything goes as expected and I can tell it to use my existing connection string stored in the web.config file and the Linq code pulls directly from the ConfigurationManager. This all turns ugly once I move the code into its own project. I’ve created an app.config file, put the connection string in there as it was in the web.config but when I try to add another table in the IDE keeps forcing me to either hardcode the connection string or creates a Settings file and puts it in there, which then adds a new entry into the app.config file with a new name. Is there a way keep my Linq code in its own project yet still refer back to my config file without the IDE continuously hardcoding the connection string or creating the Settings file? I’m converting part of my DAL over to use Linq to SQL so I’d like to use the existing connection string that our old code is using as well as keep the value in a common location, and one spot, instead of in a number of spots. Manually changing the mode to WebSettings instead of AppSettings works untill I try to add a new table, then it goes back to hardcoding the value or recreating the Settings file. I also tried to switch the project type to be a web project and then rename my app.config to web.config and then everything works as I’d like it to. I’m just not sure if there are any downfalls to keeping this as a web project since it really isn't one. The project only contains the Linq to SQL code and an implementation of my repository classes. My project layout looks like this Website -connectionString.config -web.config (refers to connectionString.config) Middle Tier -Business Logic -Repository Interfaces -etc. DAL -Linq to SQL code -Existing SPROC code -connectionString.config (linked from the web poject) -app.config (refers to connectionString.config)

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  • Can I use encrypt web.config with a custom protection provider who's assembly is not in the GAC?

    - by James
    I have written a custom protected configuration provider for my web.config. When I try to encrypt my web.config with it I get the following error from aspnet_iisreg aspnet_regiis.exe -pef appSettings . -prov CustomProvider (This is running in my MSBuild) Could not load file or assembly 'MyCustomProviderNamespace' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. After checking with the Fusion log, I confirm it is checking both the GAC, and 'C:/WINNT/Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/' (the location of aspnet_iisreg). But it cannot find the provider. I do not want to move my component into the GAC, I want to leave the custom assembly in my ApplicationBase to copy around to various servers without having to pull/push from the GAC. Here is my provider configuration in the web.config. <configProtectedData> <providers> <add name="CustomProvider" type="MyCustomProviderNamespace.MyCustomProviderClass, MyCustomProviderNamespace" /> </providers> </configProtectedData> Has anyone got any ideas?

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  • Creating a HTTP handler for IIS that transparently forwards request to different port?

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I have a public web server with the following software installed: IIS7 on port 80 Subversion over apache on port 81 TeamCity over apache on port 82 Unfortunately, both Subversion and TeamCity comes with their own web server installations, and they work flawlessly, so I don't really want to try to move them all to run under IIS, if that is even possible. However, I was looking at IIS and I noticed the HTTP redirect part, and I was wondering... Would it be possible for me to create a HTTP handler, and install it on a sub-domain under IIS7, so that all requests to, say, http://svn.vkarlsen.no/anything/here is passed to my HTTP handler, which then subsequently creates a request to http://localhost:81/anything/here, retrieves the data, and passes it on to the original requestee? In other words, I would like IIS to handle transparent forwards to port 81 and 82, without using the redirection features. For instance, Subversion doesn't like HTTP redirect and just says that the repository has been moved, and I need to relocate my working copy. That's not what I want. If anyone thinks this can be done, does anyone have any links to topics I need to read up on? I think I can manage the actual request parts, even with authentication, but I have no idea how to create a HTTP handler. Also bear in mind that I need to handle sub-paths and documents beneath the top-level domain, so http://svn.vkarlsen.no/whatever/here needs to be handled by a single handler, I cannot create copies of the handler for all sub-directories since paths are created from time to time.

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  • Run Jmol applet using apache server

    - by user1144004
    I am a newbie in using apache and jmol. I am trying to run a jmol applet in python using apache server. Because of strict folder arrangement restrictions in jmol (html and model files should be present inside jmol folder), I had to move the default htdocs and cgi-bin folder inside jmol folder by editing the "httd.conf" file. Now the new location of htdocs folder is "Apache2.2/jmol/htdocs" and of cgi-bin folder is "Apache2.2/jmol/cgi-bin". Now I've put my "start.html" file in the htdocs folder which has the jmol applet tag. It takes "CA150.XYZ" file which is also placed in the same folder. On running this "start.html" file through apache server, nothing happens. It even doesn't give any error, it just shows a blank page. But if I try to run "start.html" without apache server, jmol applet do get executed and runs successfully. What am I doing wrong? Any idea? Here is my "start.html" file <head> <title>Simple example</title> <script src="../Jmol.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <form> <script type="text/javascript"> jmolInitialize("../"); jmolApplet(200,"load CA150.XYZ"); </script> </form> </body>

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  • How to Set up Virtual Static Subdomain

    - by Chip D
    Given current rewrite rules at http://www.example.com/: Options +FollowSymlinks +Includes RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www\.example\.com [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^$ RewriteRule ^/?(.*) http://www.example.com/$1 [L,R,NE] # Remove all "index.html"s. RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} \ /(.+/)?index\.html(\?.*)?\ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.+/)?index\.html$ /%1 [R=301,L] # Remove all "index.php"s. RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} \ /(.+/)?index\.php(\?.*)?\ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.+/)?index\.php$ /%1 [R=301,L] I'm attempting to serve some site assets (.png|.ico|.jpg|.gif|.css|.js) from a static subdomain like http://static.example.com which my Apache 1.3 shared host (GoDaddy) has mapped to a subdirectory for file management (http://www.example.com/static/). Currently these assets live in same-site subdirectories such as images/, js/, css/, etc. (1) Something...maybe the "+www" rewrite rule?...is not letting me access the subdomain. Is this likely caused by my rewrite rules above, or do I need to set up DNS changes with the host to enable access to the subdirectory, in addition to changing the rewrite rules? (2) Do I have to move those assets to that subdirectory and change all references sitewide? Would that perform the fastest? (3) Or can .htaccess make this much easier? (4) Should my first rewrite rule above include L,R=301,NE instead of [L,R,NE]?

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  • IndexOutOfRangeException when a stream is a multiple of the buffer size

    - by dnord
    I don't have a lot of experience with streams and buffers, but I'm having to do it for a project, and I'm stuck on an exception being thrown when the stream I'm reading is a multiple of the buffer size I've chosen. Let me show you: My code starts by reading bufferSize (100, let's say) bytes from the stream: numberOfBytesRead = DataReader.GetBytes(0, index, output, 0, bufferSize); Then, I loop through a while loop: while (numberOfBytesRead == bufferSize) { BufferWriter.Write(output); BufferWriter.Flush(); index += bufferSize; numberOfBytesRead = DataReader.GetBytes(0, index, output, 0, bufferSize); } ... and, once we get to a non-bufferSize read, we know we've hit the end of the stream and can move on. But if the bufferSize is 100, and the stream is 200, we'll read positions 0-99, 100-199, and then the attempt to read 200-299 errors out. I'd like it if it returned 0, but it throws an error. What I'm doing to handle that is, well, a try-catch: catch (System.IndexOutOfRangeException) numberOfBytesRead = 0; ...which ends the loop, and successfully finishes the thing, but we all know I don't want to control code flow with error handling. Is there a better (more standard?) way to handle stream reading when the stream length is unknown? This seems like a small wrinkle in a fairly reasonable strategy for reading streams, but I just don't know if I've got it wrong or what. The specifics of this (which I've cleaned up a little bit for posting) are a MySqlDataReader hitting a LARGEBLOB column. It's working whenever the buffer is larger than the number of returned bytes, or when the number of returned bytes is not a multiple of bufferSize. Because we don't, in that case, throw an IndexOutOfRangeException.

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  • Conditionaly strip the last line from a text file

    - by fraXis
    Hello, I posted this yesterday on SO, and I received an answer that works great, but I need to change it around and I don't know how. Here is my original message: I need to strip the last line from a text file. I know how to open and save text files in C#, but how would I strip the last line of the text file? The text file will always be different sizes (some have 80 lines, some have 20). Can someone please show me how to do this? Here is the code that someone gave me to do this (which works fine) //Delete the last line from the file. This line could be 8174, 10000, or anything. This is from SO string tempfile = @"C:\junk_temp.txt"; using (StreamReader reader2 = new StreamReader(newfilename)) { using (StreamWriter writer2 = new StreamWriter(tempfile)) { string line = reader2.ReadLine(); while (!reader2.EndOfStream) { writer2.WriteLine(line); line = reader2.ReadLine(); } // by reading ahead, will not write last line to file } } File.Delete(newfilename); File.Move(tempfile, newfilename); File.Delete(tempfile); How would I change this to only delete the last line of the text file if it is a 4 or 5 digit string (such as 8001 or 99999). If it is anything other than that, such as a %, then I don't want to delete the last line. Can someone please modify the above code to do this for me? Thanks so much.

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  • Slider with buttons. How to improve?

    - by Kalinin
    I need to make slider. I have content (which should shift horizontally) and two buttons - "right" and "left". If you press the button and hold it, the content starts to move (in the appropriate direction). If you not hold the button, then the movement stops. This behavior is copies the behavior of usual window scrollbar. I wrote code: var animateTime = 1, offsetStep = 5; //event handling for buttons "left", "right" $('.bttR, .bttL') .mousedown(function() { scrollContent.data('loop', true).loopingAnimation($(this)); }) .bind("mouseup mouseout", function(){ scrollContent.data('loop', false); }); $.fn.loopingAnimation = function(el){ if(this.data('loop') == true){ var leftOffsetStr; leftOffsetInt = parseInt(this.css('marginLeft').slice(0, -2)); if(el.attr('class') == 'bttR') leftOffsetStr = (leftOffsetInt - offsetStep).toString() + 'px'; else if(el.attr('class') == 'bttL') leftOffsetStr = (leftOffsetInt + offsetStep).toString() + 'px'; this.animate({marginLeft: leftOffsetStr}, animateTime, function(){ $(this).loopingAnimation(el); }) } return this; } But it does have a few things that I do not like: Always call the function animation (loopingAnimation) - I think that this is an extra load (not good). When moving content he "twitches and trembling" - (it's not pretty). How can I solve this problem more elegantly and without the drawbacks of my code?

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  • What data stucture should I use for BigInt class

    - by user1086004
    I would like to implement a BigInt class which will be able to handle really big numbers. I want only to add and multiply numbers, however the class should also handle negative numbers. I wanted to represent the number as a string, but there is a big overhead with converting string to int and back for adding. I want to implement addition as on the high school, add corresponding order and if the result is bigger than 10, add the carry to next order. Then I thought that it would be better to handle it as a array of unsigned long long int and keep the sign separated by bool. With this I'm afraid of size of the int, as C++ standard as far as I know guarantees only that int < float < double. Correct me if I'm wrong. So when I reach some number I should move in array forward and start adding number to the next array position. Is there any data structure that is appropriate or better for this? Thanks in advance.

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  • Java program using a class from a JAR file

    - by Myn
    Hi guys, I'll try to phrase this as best I can. I have a program which has an API-like functionality - it uses reflection to dynamically call methods from within a class. In this instance: Server.java public static void main(String[] args) { Class<?> clazz = Class.forName("DiHandler"); StHandler out = (StHandler) clazz; out.read(); DiHandler.java // implements StHandler import edu.ds.*; public void read() { Ds aType = new Ds(); aType = "134"; } So DiHandler has a method read() which can contain anything, it doesn't matter to Server.java after compile time. My problem is: DiHandler.java uses the class Ds from a JAR file. When I'm working on DiHandler.java in Eclipse (in a separate project from the project Server.java is in) I can add this JAR without a problem. But when I move DiHandler.class, after it's compiled, to be used by Server.class, how can it still use the JAR file? I hope this makes some sense, I suppose another way to phrase it would be how can I allow DiHandler to call on a class from the JAR without editing the classpath? Thanks very much in advance and sorry for any confusion or poor phrasing, I can only offer thanks and the customary offer of a pint for any assistance. M

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