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• What options to parse a DTD using PHP

  - by Chadwick

  I need to parse DTDs using PHP and am hoping there's a simple library to help out. Each DTD has numerous <!ENTITY... and <!-- Comment... elements, which I need to act upon. Note that I do not need to validate anything against these DTDs, simply parse them as data files themselves. A few options I've looked at: James Clarke's SD, which is an option of last resort, but I'd like to avoid the complexity of building/installing/configuring code external to PHP. I'm not sure it's even possible in my situation. PEAR has an XML_DTD_Parser, which requires installing/configuring PEAR and a number of pear modules, which I'm also not sure is possible, and would rather avoid. Has anyone used it with success? PHP XML Classes has the class_path_parser, which another site suggested, but it fails to read ENTITY elements. It appears to be using PHP's built in XML parsing capabilities, which use EXPAT. PHP's DOMDocument will validate against a DTD, so must be able to read them, though I don't see how to get at the DTD parser directly at first glance.

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• Working with mongodb from Java

  - by demas

  I have launch mongodb server: [[email protected]][~]% mongod --dbpatmongod --dbpath /home/demas/temp/ Mon Apr 19 09:44:18 Mongo DB : starting : pid = 4538 port = 27017 dbpath = /home/demas/temp/ master = 0 slave = 0 32-bit ** NOTE: when using MongoDB 32 bit, you are limited to about 2 gigabytes of data ** see http://blog.mongodb.org/post/137788967/32-bit-limitations for more Mon Apr 19 09:44:18 db version v1.4.0, pdfile version 4.5 Mon Apr 19 09:44:18 git version: nogitversion Mon Apr 19 09:44:18 sys info: Linux arch.local.net 2.6.33-ARCH #1 SMP PREEMPT Mon Apr 5 05:57:38 UTC 2010 i686 BOOST_LIB_VERSION=1_41 Mon Apr 19 09:44:18 waiting for connections on port 27017 Mon Apr 19 09:44:18 web admin interface listening on port 28017 I have created documents by console client: [[email protected]][~]% mongo MongoDB shell version: 1.4.0 url: test connecting to: test type "help" for help > db.some.find(); { "_id" : ObjectId("4bcbef3c3be43e9b7e04ef3d"), "name" : "mongo" } { "_id" : ObjectId("4bcbef423be43e9b7e04ef3e"), "x" : 3 } Now I am trying to work with MongoDb from Java: import com.mongodb.*; import java.net.UnknownHostException; public class test1 { public static void main(String[] args) { System.out.println("Start"); try { Mongo m = new Mongo("localhost", 27017); DB db = m.getDB("test"); DBCollection coll = db.getCollection("some"); coll.insert(makeDocument(10, "James", "male")); System.out.println("Finish"); } catch (UnknownHostException ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } catch (MongoException ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } public static BasicDBObject makeDocument(int id, String name, String gender) { BasicDBObject doc = new BasicDBObject(); doc.put("id", id); doc.put("name", name); doc.put("gender", gender); return doc; } } But execution stops on line coll.insert(): [[email protected]][~/dev/study/java/mongodb]% javac test1.java [[email protected]][~/dev/study/java/mongodb]% java test1 Start There are not messages from mogodb server regarding accepted connection. Why?

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• Dealing with Time Zones

  - by RavIncredible

  Hi All, I need some guidance with one of my project requirements, I am developing an application which has to deal with various time zones. Scenario: User 1 is from India, so his time zone would be GMT+05:30 User 2 is from UK, so his time zone would be GMT+01:00 If the User 1 sends a message to User 2, I want to show the Message Sent/Received Time as per the user’s time zone. For example User 1 sends a message at 6:30 Indian time, when User 2 would view the message it would show as 2:00 UK time. Here goes my question, whenever I save the message should I convert it to GMT+00, so all my base times stamps are the same and then later when I display the message, I convert it back to User specific time zone. Would this be complex? Is this the best way of doing this? I like to get views for both saving and displaying, also when I should do the time conversion from optimization point of view. I would need do deal with any/all timezones. I am developing this application with PHP and MySQL and I am aware of timezone conversion method come with both PHP and MySQL. I am just trying to figure out the best way of doing this. Look forward to have all valuable suggestions. Note : As of now I am not much worried with day/light savings. Thanks Ravi

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• WCF and ASP.NET - Server.Execute throwing object reference not set to an instance of an object

  - by user208662

  Hello, I have an ASP.NET page that calls to a WCF service. This WCF service uses a BackgroundWorker to asynchronously create an ASP.NET page on my server. Oddly, when I execute the WCF Service [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.WrappedRequest, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] public void PostRequest(string comments) { // Do stuff // If everything went o.k. asynchronously render a page on the server. I do not want to // block the caller while this is occurring. BackgroundWorker myWorker = new BackgroundWorker(); myWorker.DoWork += new DoWorkEventHandler(myWorker_DoWork); myWorker.RunWorkerAsync(HttpContext.Current); } private void myWorker_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { // Set the current context so we can render the page via Server.Execute HttpContext context = (HttpContext)(e.Argument); HttpContext.Current = context; // Retrieve the url to the page string applicationPath = context.Request.ApplicationPath; string sourceUrl = applicationPath + "/log.aspx"; string targetDirectory = currentContext.Server.MapPath("/logs/"); // Execute the other page and load its contents using (StringWriter stringWriter = new StringWriter()) { // Write the contents out to the target url // NOTE: THIS IS WHERE MY ERROR OCCURS currentContext.Server.Execute(sourceUrl, stringWriter); // Prepare to write out the result of the log targetPath = targetDirectory + "/" + DateTime.Now.ToShortDateString() + ".aspx"; using (StreamWriter streamWriter = new StreamWriter(targetPath, false)) { // Write out the content to the file sb.Append(stringWriter.ToString()); streamWriter.Write(sb.ToString()); } } } Oddly, when the currentContext.Server.Execute method is executed, it throws an "object reference not set to an instance of an object" error. The reason this is so strange is because I can look at the currentContext properties in the watch window. In addition, Server is not null. Because of this, I have no idea where this error is coming from. Can someone point me in the correct direction of what the cause of this could be? Thank you!

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• Django Threaded Commenting System

  - by Yasin Ozel

  (and sorry for my english) I am learning Python and Django. Now, my challange is developing threaded generic comment system. There is two models, Post and Comment. -Post can be commented. -Comment can be commented. (endless/threaded) -Should not be a n+1 query problem in system. (No matter how many comments, should not increase the number of queries) My current models are like this: class Post(models.Model): title = models.CharField(max_length=100) content = models.TextField() child = generic.GenericRelation( 'Comment', content_type_field='parent_content_type', object_id_field='parent_object_id' ) class Comment(models.Model): content = models.TextField() child = generic.GenericRelation( 'self', content_type_field='parent_content_type', object_id_field='parent_object_id' ) parent_content_type = models.ForeignKey(ContentType) parent_object_id = models.PositiveIntegerField() parent = generic.GenericForeignKey( "parent_content_type", "parent_object_id") Are my models right? And how can i get all comment (with hierarchy) of post, without n+1 query problem? Note: I know mttp and other modules but I want to learn this system. Edit: I run "Post.objects.all().prefetch_related("child").get(pk=1)" command and this gave me post and its child comment. But when I wanna get child command of child command a new query is running. I can change command to ...prefetch_related("child__child__child...")... then still a new query running for every depth of child-parent relationship. Is there anyone who has idea about resolve this problem?

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• ADO/SQL Server: What is the error code for "timeout expired"?

  - by Ian Boyd

  i'm trying to trap a "timeout expired" error from ADO. When a timeout happens, ADO returns: Number: 0x80040E31 (DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED in oledberr.h) SQLState: HYT00 NativeError: 0 The NativeError of zero makes sense, since the timeout is not a function of the database engine (i.e. SQL Server), but of ADO's internal timeout mechanism. The Number (i.e. the COM hresult) looks useful, but the definition of DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED in oledberr.h says: Execution stopped because a resource limit was reached. No results were returned. This error could apply to things besides "timeout expired" (some potentially server-side), such as a governor that limits: CPU usage I/O reads/writes network bandwidth and stops a query. The final useful piece is SQLState, which is a database-independent error code system. Unfortunately the only reference for SQLState error codes i can find have no mention of HYT00. What to do? What do do? Note: i can't trust 0x80040E31 (DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED) to mean "timeout expired", anymore than i could trust 0x80004005 (E_UNSPECIFIED_ERROR) to mean "Transaction was deadlocked on lock resources with another process and has been chosen as the deadlock victim". My pseudo-question becomes: does anyone have documentation on what the SQLState "HYT000" means? And my real question still remains: How can i specifically trap an ADO timeout expired exception thrown by ADO? Gotta love the questions where the developer is trying to "do the right thing", but nobody knows how to do the right thing. Also gotta love how googling for DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED and this question is #9, with MSDN nowhere to be found. Update 3 From the OLEdb ICommand.Execute reference: DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED Execution has been aborted because a resource limit has been reached. For example, a query timed out. No results have been returned. "For example", meaning not an exhaustive list.

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• mod_rewrite with question marks and ampersands (with PHP)

  - by Chris

  I have a PHP-based web app that I'm trying to apply Apache's mod_rewrite to. Original URLs are of the form: http://example.com/index.php?page=home&x=5 And I'd like to transform these into: http://example.com/home?x=5 Note that while rewriting the page name, I'm also effectively "moving" the question mark. When I try to do this, Apache happily performs this translation: RewriteRule ^/([a-z]+)\?(.+)$ /index.php?page=$1&$2 [NC,L] But it messes up the $_GET variables in PHP. For example, a call to http://example.com/home?x=88 yields only one $_GET variable (page => home). Where did x => 88 go? However, when I change my rule to use an ampersand rather than a question mark: RewriteRule ^/([a-z]+)&(.+)$ /index.php?page=$1&$2 [NC,L] a call like http://example.com/home&x=88 will work just as I'd expect it to (i.e. both the page and x $_GET variables are set appropriately). The difference is minimal I know, but I'd like my URL variables to "start" with a question mark, if it's possible. I'm sure this reflects my own misunderstanding of how mod_rewrite redirects interact with PHP, but it seems like I should be able to do this (one way or another). Thanks in advance! Cheers, -Chris

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• What's the false operator in C# good for?

  - by Jakub Šturc

  There are two weird operators in C#: the true operator the false operator If I understand this right these operators can be used in types which I want to use instead of a boolean expression and where I don't want to provide an implicit conversion to bool. Let's say I have a following class: public class MyType { public readonly int Value; public MyType(int value) { Value = value; } public static bool operator true (MyType mt) { return mt.Value > 0; } public static bool operator false (MyType mt) { return mt.Value < 0; } } So I can write the following code: MyType mTrue = new MyType(100); MyType mFalse = new MyType(-100); MyType mDontKnow = new MyType(0); if (mTrue) { // Do something. } while (mFalse) { // Do something else. } do { // Another code comes here. } while (mDontKnow) However for all the examples above only the true operator is executed. So what's the false operator in C# good for? Note: More examples can be found here, here and here.

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• Question about the Cloneable interface and the exception that should be thrown

  - by Nazgulled

  Hi, The Java documentation says: A class implements the Cloneable interface to indicate to the Object.clone() method that it is legal for that method to make a field-for-field copy of instances of that class. Invoking Object's clone method on an instance that does not implement the Cloneable interface results in the exception CloneNotSupportedException being thrown. By convention, classes that implement this interface should override Object.clone (which is protected) with a public method. See Object.clone() for details on overriding this method. Note that this interface does not contain the clone method. Therefore, it is not possible to clone an object merely by virtue of the fact that it implements this interface. Even if the clone method is invoked reflectively, there is no guarantee that it will succeed. And I have this UserProfile class: public class UserProfile implements Cloneable { private String name; private int ssn; private String address; public UserProfile(String name, int ssn, String address) { this.name = name; this.ssn = ssn; this.address = address; } public UserProfile(UserProfile user) { this.name = user.getName(); this.ssn = user.getSSN(); this.address = user.getAddress(); } // get methods here... @Override public UserProfile clone() { return new UserProfile(this); } } And for testing porpuses, I do this in main(): UserProfile up1 = new UserProfile("User", 123, "Street"); UserProfile up2 = up1.clone(); So far, no problems compiling/running. Now, per my understanding of the documentation, removing implements Cloneable from the UserProfile class should throw an exception in up1.clone() call, but it doesn't. I've read around here that the Cloneable interface is broken but I don't really know what that means. Am I missing something?

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• how to place last div into right top corner of partent div? (css)

  - by Radek

  can I somehow using css place the block2 in right top corner of block1? Note that block2 must be the (very) last inside html code of block1 or it could be placed after block1. I cannot make it the first element in block1 <html> <head> <style type="text/css"> .block1 {color:red;width:100px;border:1px solid green;} .block2 {color:blue;width:70px;border:2px solid black;position:relative;} </style> </head> <body> <div class='block1'> <p>text</p> <p>text2</p> <div class='block2'>block2</DIV> </div> </body> </html>

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• What is the best way to get an audio file duration in Android?

  - by Gilead

  Hi! I'm using a SoundPool [ 1 ] to play audio clips in my app. All is fine but I need to know when the clip playback has finished. At the moment I track it in my app by obtaining the duration of each clip using a MediaPlayer [ 2 ] instance. That works fine but it looks wasteful to load each file twice, just to get the duration. I could roughly calculate the duration myself knowing the length of the file (available from the AssetFileDescriptor [ 3 ]) but I'd still need to know the sample rate and the number of channels. I see two potential solutions to that problem: Figuring out when a clip has finished playing (doesn't seem to be possible with SoundClip). Having a class which could load just the header of an audio file and give me the sample rate/number of channels (and, ideally, the sample count to get the exact duration). Any suggestions? Thanks, Max The code I'm using at the moment (works fine but is rather heavy for the purpose): String[] fileNames = ... MediaPlayer mp = new MediaPlayer(); for (String fileName : fileNames) { AssetFileDescriptor d = context.getAssets().openFd(fileName); mp.reset(); mp.setDataSource(d.getFileDescriptor(), d.getStartOffset(), d.getLength()); mp.prepare(); int duration = mp.getDuration(); // ... } On a side note, this question has already been asked [ 4 ] but got no answers.

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• Design Decision - Scaling out web based application's architecture

  - by Vadi

  This question is about design decision. I am currently working on a web project that will have 40K users to start with and in couple of month expected to grow 50M users (not concurrent users though). I would like to have a architecture that can be scaled out easily without much effort. In order to explain, I would like to use a trivial scenario. Lets say, User entities and services such as CreateUser, AuthenticateUser etc., are a simple method calls for the Page Controllers. But once the traffic increases, for example, authenticating user (or such services related to user entities) has to be moved out to a different internal server to spread the load. But at the same time using RPC calls over the network when the user count is 40K would become overkill. My proposal was to use IPC initially and when we need to scale out we can interally switch to TCP based RPC calls so that it can easily scale out. For example, I am referring to System.IO.Pipes.NamedPipeStreamServer to start with and move on to a TcpListener later on. If we have proper design that can encapsulate above said approach, it would easy for us to scale out services into multiple network servers but at the same time avoid network calls when the user count is small. Is this is a best approach? Any suggestions would be great .. Note: The database scaling is definetly the second phase optimization so we have already made architectural design in place to easily partition data when traffic increases. The primary bottleneck would be application servers over the time period.

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• PHP4: Send XML over HTTPS/POST via cURL?

  - by starmonkey

  I wrote a class/function to send xml over https via PHP4/cURL, just wondering if this is the correct approach, or if there's a better one. Note that PHP5 is not an option at present. /** * Send XML via http(s) post * * curl --header "Content-Type: text/xml" --data "<?xml version="1.0"?>...." http://www.foo.com/ * */ function sendXmlOverPost($url, $xml) { $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); // For xml, change the content-type. curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, Array("Content-Type: text/xml")); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $xml); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); // ask for results to be returned if(CurlHelper::checkHttpsURL($url)) { curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, 0); } // Send to remote and return data to caller. $result = curl_exec($ch); curl_close($ch); return $result; } cheers!

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• How does the overall view hierarchy change when using UIKit view manipulations?

  - by executor21

  I've been trying to figure out what happens in the view hierarchy when methods like pushViewController:animated, presentModalViewController:animated, and tab switches in UITabBarViewController are used, as well as UIAlertView and UIActionSheet. (Side note: I'm doing this because I need to know whether a specific UIView of my creation is visible on screen when I do not know anything about how it or its superview may have been added to the view hierarchy. If someone knows a good way to determine this, I'd welcome the knowledge.) To figure it out, I've been logging out the hierarchy of [[UIApplication sharedApplication] keyWindow] subviews in different circumstances. Is the following correct: When a new viewController is pushed onto the stack of a UINavigationController, the old viewController's view is no longer in the view hierarchy. That is, only the top view controller's view is a subview of UINavigationController's view (according to logs, it's actually several private classes such as UILayoutContainerView). Are the views of view controllers below the top controller of the stack actually removed from the window? A very similar thing happens when a new viewController is presented via presentModalViewController:animated. The new viewController's view is the only subview of the kew window. Is this correct? The easiest thing to understand: a UIAlertView creates its own window and makes it key. The strangest thing I encountered: a UIActionSheet is shown via showInView: method, the actionSheet isn't in the view hierarchy at all. It's not a subview of the view passed as an argument to showInView:, it isn't added as a subview of the key window, and it doesn't create its own window. How does it appear, then? I haven't tried this yet, so I'd like to know what happens in the keyWindow hierarchy when tabs in a UITabBarController are switched. Is the view of the selected UIViewController moved to the top, or does it work like with pushViewController:animated and presentModalViewController:animated, where only the displayed view is in the window hierarchy?

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• Open a buffer as a vertical split in VIM

  - by alfredodeza

  If you are editing a file in VIM and then you need to open an existing buffer (e.g. from your buffer list: :buffers) how can you open it in a vertical split? I know that you already can open it with a normal split like: :sbuffer N Wehere N is the buffer number you want, however, the above opens that N buffer horizontally, not vertically. I'm also aware that you can change the window placement after opening and have a Vertical Split like so: Ctrl-W H Ctrl-W L Which will vertically split the window to the right or the left. It seems to me that if there is a sbuffer there should be a vsbuffer but that doesn't exist (not that I am aware of) Also, please note that I am not looking for a plugin to solve this question. I know about a wealth of plugins that will allow you to do this. I am sure I might be missing something that is already there. EDIT: In the best spirit of collaboration, I have created a simple Function with a Mapping if someone else stumbles across this issue and do not want to install a plugin: Function: " Vertical Split Buffer Function function VerticalSplitBuffer(buffer) execute "vert belowright sb" a:buffer endfunction Mapping: " Vertical Split Buffer Mapping command -nargs=1 Vbuffer call VerticalSplitBuffer(<f-args>) This accomplishes the task of opening a buffer in a right split, so for buffer 1, you would call it like: :Vbuffer 1

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• HTML Agility Pack

  - by Harikrishna

  I have html tables in one webpage like <table border=1> <tr><td>sno</td><td>sname</td></tr> <tr><td>111</td><td>abcde</td></tr> <tr><td>213</td><td>ejkll</td></tr> </table> <table border=1> <tr><td>adress</td><td>phoneno</td><td>note</td></tr> <tr><td>asdlkj</td><td>121510</td><td>none</td></tr> <tr><td>asdlkj</td><td>214545</td><td>none</td></tr> </table> Now from this webpage using html agility pack I want to extract the data of the column address and phone no only. It means for that I have find first in which table there is column address and phoneno.After finding that table I want to extract the data of that column address and phoneno what should I do ? I can get the table. But after that what should I do don't understand.

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• Simple code to expire Drupal cookie?

  - by user310594

  With a single click this simple script will do a multi-logout of: Moodle Elgg 2 MyBB's and (not) Drupal. <?php setcookie( 'Elgg', '', -3600, '/', '.domain.com', false, false); setcookie( 'http_auth_ext_complete', '1', -3600, '/d/', '.domain.com', false, false); // setcookie( 'http_auth_ext_complete', '1', -3600, '/d/', 'domain.com', false, false); setcookie( 'mybbuser', '', -3600, '/', '.domain.com', false, false); setcookie( 'mybbuser', '', -3600, '/bb/', '.domain.com', false, false); // unset all 3 Moodle cookies, the lazy way if (isset($_SERVER['HTTP_COOKIE'])) { $cookies = explode(';', $_SERVER['HTTP_COOKIE']); foreach($cookies as $cookie) { $parts = explode('=', $cookie); $name = trim($parts[0]); setcookie($name, '', time()-1000); setcookie($name, '', time()-1000, '/'); } } ?> This works on four sites but the Drupal cookie won't quit. How can I do the same with Drupal? Note: Drupal uses 'host' instead of 'domain', neither with or without the '.' works so far. Thank you.

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• jQuery aspx error function always called, even with apparently valid return data

  - by M Katz

  I am making an ajax call using jQuery (jquery-1.5.2.min.js). The server receives the call. fiddler shows the response text coming back apparently correct. But back in javascript my error: function is called instead of my success: function, and the data of the parameters to the error function don't give much clue as to the problem. Here's the function where I make the initial call: function SelectCBGAtClickedPoint() { $.ajax( { type: "GET", dataType: "text", url: "http://localhost/ajax/SelectCBGAtPoint/1/2", success: function( msg ) { alert( "success: " + msg ); }, error: function( jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown ) { alert( "error: " + jqXHR + textStatus + errorThrown ); } } ); } Here's the function where I handle the call in my cherrypy server code: def ajax( ajax, *args ): with lock: print "ajax request received: " + str( args ) cherrypy.response.headers[ "Content-Type" ] = "application/text" return "{ x: 0 }" Cherrypy is an odd beast, and I was thinking the problem must lie there. But as I say, I see both the query go out and the response come back in Fiddler. Here is what Fiddler shows as the raw view of the response: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Mon, 11 Apr 2011 17:49:25 GMT Content-Length: 8 Content-Type: application/text Server: CherryPy/3.2.0 { x: 0 } Looks good, but then back in javascript, I get into the error: function, with the following values for the parameters (as shown in firebug): errorThrown = "" jqXHR = Object { readyState=0, status=0, statusText="error"} statusText = "error" I don't know where that word "error" is coming from. That string does not appear anywhere in my cherrypy server code. Note that even though I'm returning a JSON string I've set the send and receive types to "text" for now, just to simplify in order to isolate the problem. Any ideas why I'm getting this "error" reply, even when errorThrown is empty? Could it be that I haven't properly "initialized" either jQuery or jQuery.ajax?

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• Java - Custom PropertyEditorSupport to display units

  - by I82Much

  All, I'm trying to make the properties of my node have Units associated with the measure. ( I am using the JScience.org implementation of JSR 275) So for instance, public class Robot extends AbstractNode { // in kg float vehicleMass; @Override public Sheet createSheet() { Sheet s = Sheet.createDefault(); Sheet.Set set = s.createPropertiesSet(); try { PropertySupport.Reflection vehicleMassField = new PropertySupport.Reflection(this, float.class, "vehicleMass"); vehicleMassField.setValue("units", SI.KILOGRAMS); vehicleMassField.setName("vehicleMass"); set.put(vehicleMassField); PropertyEditorManager.registerEditor(float.class, UnitInPlaceEditor.class); } catch (NoSuchMethodException ex) { Exceptions.printStackTrace(ex); } s.put(set); return s; } } I want my UnitInPlaceEditor to append the units to the end of the string representation of the number, and when the field is clicked (enters edit mode) for the units to disappear and just the number becomes selected for editing. I can make the units appear, but I cannot get the units to disappear when the field enters editing mode. public class UnitsInplaceEditor extends PropertyEditorSupport implements ExPropertyEditor { private PropertyEnv pe; @Override public String getAsText() { // Append the unit by retrieving the stored value } @Override public void setAsText(String s) { // strip off the unit, parse out the number } public void attachEnv(PropertyEnv pe) { this.pe = pe; } } Here's a screenshot of the display - I like it like this.. but here's the value being edited; note the unit stays there. Basically I want one value (string) to be displayed in the field when the field is NOT being edited, and a different to be displayed when user starts editing the field. Barring that, I'd like to put a constant jlabel for the units (uneditable) to the right of the text field. Anyone know how to do this?

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• Test Views in ASP.NET MVC2 (ala RSpec)

  - by Dmitriy Nagirnyak

  Hi, I am really missing heavily the ability to test Views independently of controllers. The way RSpec does it. What I want to do is to perform assertions on the rendered view (where no controller is involved!). In order to do so I should provide required Model, ViewData and maybe some details from HttpContextBase (when will we get rid of HttpContext!). So far I have not found anything that allows doing it. Also it might heavily depend on the ViewEngine being used. List of things that views might contain are: Partial views (may be nested deeply). Master pages (or similar in other view engines). Html helpers generating links and other elements. Generally almost anything in a range of common sense :) . Also please note that I am not talking about client-side testing and thus Selenium is just not related to it at all. It is just plain .NET testing. So are there any options to actually do the testing of views? Thanks, Dmitriy.

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• Analyzing Windows crash dumps generated on XP/32 machines with Win7/64 ?

  - by Martin

  We have a problem with analyzing our Windows crash-dumps that were created on customer Windows XP/32 boxes on our development machines. Many of our development machines are now Win7/64 boxes, but it appears that the crash-dumps generated under Windows XP cannot full resolve their binary dependency, thereby leading to warnings when displaying the call stacks in Visual Studio (2005). For example, the msvcr80.dll cannot be resolved when loaded from a Win7 machine when the dump was generated on Windows XP: On XP, the WinSxS path appears to be C:\WINDOWS\WinSxS\x86_Microsoft.VC80.CRT_1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b_8.0.50727.4053_x-ww_e6967989\msvcr80.dll -- on Win7, the WinSxS path to the same DLL version seems to be: x86_microsoft.vc80.crt_1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b_8.0.50727.4053_none_d08d7da0442a985d (I got this info from a forum thread on codeguru that link to an msdn article.) Visual Studio (2005) can now no longer correctly resolve the binaries for the crash-dump. How can I get Visual Studio to resolve all the correct binaries for my dump file? Note: I have already correctly set up the symbol server. The public symbols for most system DLLs (kernel32.dll, etc) and our symbols of our own DLLs are correctly loaded. It is just that the symbols of DLLs that reside in the WinSxS folder are not loaded, because it appears that Vista/7 uses a different path scheme for these DLLs than XP does and therefore Visual Studio cannot find the dll (not the pdb) on the local dev machine and so cannot load the corresponding symbols for the dump file.

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• iPhone Twitter Integration: Validating login.

  - by Mr. McPepperNuts

  The following code posts to twitter: NSString *compoundLoginString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://%@:%@@twitter.com/statuses/update.xml",extractedUsername, extractedPassword]; NSMutableURLRequest *request = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL: [NSURL URLWithString:compoundLoginString] cachePolicy:NSURLRequestUseProtocolCachePolicy timeoutInterval:20.0]; // The text to post NSString *msg = tweetText; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [request setHTTPBody:[[NSString stringWithFormat:@"status=%@", msg] dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]]; NSURLResponse *response; NSError *error; if ([NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&response error:&error] != nil){ [self postSuccessfulAlert]; }else{ [self postNotSuccessfulAlert]; } I am curious as to how I could check if the username and password is correct before proceeding to the above piece of code. I found the following code in a tutorial, but am unsure how I would implement or call this function. - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveAuthenticationChallenge:(NSURLAuthenticationChallenge *)challenge { if ([challenge previousFailureCount] == 0) { NSURLCredential *newCredential; newCredential=[NSURLCredential credentialWithUser:[self username] password:[self password] persistence:NSURLCredentialPersistenceNone]; [[challenge sender] useCredential:newCredential forAuthenticationChallenge:challenge]; } else { [[challenge sender] cancelAuthenticationChallenge:challenge]; // inform the user that the user name and password // in the preferences are incorrect NSLog(@"Invalid Username or Password"); } } Any ideas? Please note, I have taken snippets of code from both of the following tutorials. http://iphonedevelopertips.com/networking/post-to-a-twitter-account-from-the-iphone.html and http://icodeblog.com/2009/07/09/integrating-twitter-into-your-applications/

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• How can I round money values to the nearest $5.00 interval?

  - by Frank Developer

  I have an Informix-SQL based Pawnshop app which calculates an estimate of how much money should be loaned to a customer, based on the weight and purity of gold. The minimum the pawnshop lends is $5.00. The pawnshop employee will typically lend amounts which either ends with a 5 or 0. examples: 10, 15, 20, 100, 110, 125, etc. They do this so as to not run into shortage problems with $1.00 bills. So, if for example my system calculates the loan should be: $12.49, then round it to $10, $12.50 to $15.00, $13.00 to $15.00, $17.50 to $20.00, and so on!..The employee can always override the rounded amount if necessary. Is it possible to accomplish this within the instructions section of a perform screen or would I have to write a cfunc and call it from within perform?.. Are there any C library functions which perform interval rounding of money values?.. On another note, I think the U.S. Government should discontinue the use of pennies so that businesses can round amounts to the nearest nickel, it would save so much time and weight in our pockets!

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• Linq duplicate removal with a twist

  - by Danthar

  I got a list that contains al the status items of each order. The problem that i have is that i need to remove all the items of which the status - logdate combination is not the highest. e.g var inputs = new List<StatusItem>(); //note that the 3th id is simply a modifier that adds that amount of secs //to the current datetime, to make testing easier inputs.Add(new StatusItem(123, 30, 1)); inputs.Add(new StatusItem(123, 40, 2)); inputs.Add(new StatusItem(123, 50, 3)); inputs.Add(new StatusItem(123, 40, 4)); inputs.Add(new StatusItem(123, 50, 5)); inputs.Add(new StatusItem(100, 20, 6)); inputs.Add(new StatusItem(100, 30, 7)); inputs.Add(new StatusItem(100, 20, 8)); inputs.Add(new StatusItem(100, 30, 9)); inputs.Add(new StatusItem(100, 40, 10)); inputs.Add(new StatusItem(100, 50, 11)); inputs.Add(new StatusItem(100, 40, 12)); var l = from i in inputs group i by i.internalId into cg select from s in cg group s by s.statusId into sg select sg.OrderByDescending(n => n.date).First() ; This creates a list that returnes me the following: order 123 status 30 date 4/9/2010 6:44:21 PM order 123 status 40 date 4/9/2010 6:44:24 PM order 123 status 50 date 4/9/2010 6:44:25 PM order 100 status 20 date 4/9/2010 6:44:28 PM order 100 status 30 date 4/9/2010 6:44:29 PM order 100 status 40 date 4/9/2010 6:44:32 PM order 100 status 50 date 4/9/2010 6:44:31 PM This is ALMOST correct. However that last line which has status 50 needs to be filtered out as well because it was overruled by status 40 in the historylist. U can tell by the fact that its date is lower then the "last" status-item with the status 40. I was hoping someone could give me some pointers because im stuck.

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• Register filetype with the browser?

  - by Lord.Quackstar

  In Android, I am trying to make it so that the user downloads a font from the browser, and I am able to view the font when downloaded. After multiple issues, I still have one lingering one: Registering the filetype with the browser. When trying to download with the Emulator (2.1-u1), I get "Cannot download. The content is not supported on this phone". Okay, so maybe its my manifest file. Updated with this: <activity android:name=".MainActivity" android:label="MainActivity"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN"/> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER"/> <catagory android:name="android.intent.category.BROWSABLE"/> <data android:scheme="http"/> <data android:scheme="https"/> <data android:scheme="ftp"/> <data android:host="*"/> <data android:mimeType="*/*"/> <data android:pathPattern=".*zip"/> </intent-filter> </activity> Went back to the browser, and fails again. Restart the Emulator, still fails. Note that I got this format from posts here. Any suggestions on what to do?

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