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  • Base class deleted before subclass during python __del__ processing

    - by Oddthinking
    Context I am aware that if I ask a question about Python destructors, the standard argument will be to use contexts instead. Let me start by explaining why I am not doing that. I am writing a subclass to logging.Handler. When an instance is closed, it posts a sentinel value to a Queue.Queue. If it doesn't, a second thread will be left running forever, waiting for Queue.Queue.get() to complete. I am writing this with other developers in mind, so I don't want a failure to call close() on a handler object to cause the program to hang. Therefore, I am adding a check in __del__() to ensure the object was closed properly. I understand circular references may cause it to fail in some circumstances. There's not a lot I can do about that. Problem Here is some simple example code: explicit_delete = True class Base: def __del__(self): print "Base class cleaning up." class Sub(Base): def __del__(self): print "Sub-class cleaning up." Base.__del__(self) x = Sub() if explicit_delete: del x print "End of thread" When I run this I get, as expected: Sub-class cleaning up. Base class cleaning up. End of thread If I set explicit_delete to False in the first line, I get: End of thread Sub-class cleaning up. Exception AttributeError: "'NoneType' object has no attribute '__del__'" in <bound method Sub.__del__ of <__main__.Sub instance at 0x00F0B698>> ignored It seems the definition of Base is removed before the x._del_() is called. The Python Documentation on _del_() warns that the subclass needs to call the base-class to get a clean deletion, but here that appears to be impossible. Can you see where I made a bad step?

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  • Define a swig interface file for generation of wrapper to every type from some header file

    - by Dmitriy Matveev
    Hi! We're using some C library in our Java project. Several years ago some other developer which has retired few years ago (as always) has created all the wrappers for us. The wrappers were generated by the swig, but the interface file is lost now. The basic idea of library and the wrappers for it is following: There only one function which returns pointer to some complex object. And there are wrapper for that function. The complex object is a tree-like structure with dozens of node kinds and types (C structures) used to represent them. There are hundreds of wrappers for every field of every type and we're trying to use them all. The library was updated some time ago and now there are some new data we unaware of which yet, but would like to use. This data is contained in some of the objects indirectly contained or referenced from the object created by the function we call (Some new fields and types were added). I know that I shouldn't make any changes to the wrappers by hand and should rather modify the interface, but as I already wrote it's missing. For now I only want to generate wrappers some few types which are added/changed and them to our old wrappers, but later I want to start creation of interface file which will define "what and how should be wrapped". All the definitions necessary for us are defined in single header file. Is it possible to tell swig to generate wrappers for every type in this header? If so, how can I write such interface file?

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  • BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly alternative to avoid ambiguous properties of derived classes

    - by JoeBilly
    I'am looking for a solution to access 'flatten' (lowest) properties values of a class and its derived via reflection by property names. ie access either Property1 or Property2 from the ClassB or ClassC type : public class ClassA { public virtual object Property1 { get; set; } public object Property2 { get; set; } } public class ClassB : ClassA { public override object Property1 { get; set; } } public class ClassC : ClassB { } Using simple reflection works until you have virtual properties that are overrired (ie Property1 from ClassB). Then you get a AmbiguousMatchException because the searcher don't know if you want the property of the main class or the derived. Using BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly avoid the AmbiguousMatchException but unoverrided virtual properties or derived classes properties are ommited (ie Property2 from ClassB). Is there an alternative to this poor workaround : // Get the main class property with the specified propertyName PropertyInfo propertyInfo = _type.GetProperty(propertyName, BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.Static); // If not found, get the property wherever it is if (propertyInfo == null) propertyInfo = _type.GetProperty(propertyName); Furthermore, this workaround not resolve the reflection of 2nd level properties : getting Property1 from ClassC and AmbiguousMatchException is back. My thoughts : I have no choice except loop... Erk... ?? I'am open to Emit, Lambda (is the Expression.Call can handle this?) even DLR solution. Thanks !

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  • MPMoviePlayerController problem at start

    - by Infinity
    Hello guys! I have a problem with MPMoviePlayerController, because when I start it in fullscreen it exists, but the song is still playing. I added the MPMoviePlayerDidExitFullscreenNotification notification and it says that when the video starts playin it exists the full screen. Here's my code: _multimediaPlayer = [[MPMoviePlayerController alloc] init]; _multimediaPlayer.controlStyle = MPMovieControlStyleDefault; _multimediaPlayer.initialPlaybackTime = 0; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(videoPlayBackDidFinish:) name:MPMoviePlayerPlaybackDidFinishNotification object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(videoPlayerDidExitFullscreen:) name:MPMoviePlayerDidExitFullscreenNotification object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(videoPlayerPlaybackStateChanged:) name:MPMoviePlayerPlaybackStateDidChangeNotification object:nil]; NSString *path = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@/mag_%d/%@", [FMUtils documentsFolderPathWithFile:nil], _magID, _pageObject.fileName]; if ([FMUtils fileExistsAtPath:path]) { _multimediaPlayer.contentURL = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:path]; } else { _multimediaPlayer.contentURL = [NSURL URLWithString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@%@", self.dataURL, _pageObject.fileName]]; } CGSize objectViewSize = self.frame.size; _multimediaPlayer.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, objectViewSize.width, objectViewSize.height); [self addSubview:_multimediaPlayer.view]; if (_pageObject.blink) { [_multimediaPlayer setFullscreen:YES animated:YES]; } [_multimediaPlayer play]; Most of the time it happens when the video is not downloaded and it needs to stream it. Do you have any idea why is this happen?

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  • using the ASP.NET Caching API via method annotations in C#

    - by craigmoliver
    In C#, is it possible to decorate a method with an annotation to populate the cache object with the return value of the method? Currently I'm using the following class to cache data objects: public class SiteCache { // 7 days + 6 hours (offset to avoid repeats peak time) private const int KeepForHours = 174; public static void Set(string cacheKey, Object o) { if (o != null) HttpContext.Current.Cache.Insert(cacheKey, o, null, DateTime.Now.AddHours(KeepForHours), TimeSpan.Zero); } public static object Get(string cacheKey) { return HttpContext.Current.Cache[cacheKey]; } public static void Clear(string sKey) { HttpContext.Current.Cache.Remove(sKey); } public static void Clear() { foreach (DictionaryEntry item in HttpContext.Current.Cache) { Clear(item.Key.ToString()); } } } In methods I want to cache I do this: [DataObjectMethod(DataObjectMethodType.Select)] public static SiteSettingsInfo SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(string Name) { var ck = string.Format("SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name-Name_{0}-", Name.ToLower()); var dt = (DataTable)SiteCache.Get(ck); if (dt == null) { dt = new DataTable(); dt.Load(ModelProvider.SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(Name)); SiteCache.Set(ck, dt); } var info = new SiteSettingsInfo(); foreach (DataRowView dr in dt.DefaultView) info = SiteSettingsInfo_Load(dr); return info; } Is it possible to separate those concerns like so: (notice the new annotation) [CacheReturnValue] [DataObjectMethod(DataObjectMethodType.Select)] public static SiteSettingsInfo SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(string Name) { var dt = new DataTable(); dt.Load(ModelProvider.SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(Name)); var info = new SiteSettingsInfo(); foreach (DataRowView dr in dt.DefaultView) info = SiteSettingsInfo_Load(dr); return info; }

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  • [C#] How to use delegate to perform callback between caller and web service helper class?

    - by codemonkie
    I have 2 classes A and B, where they belongs to the same namespace but resides in seperate files namely a.cs and b.cs, where class B essentially is a helper wrapping a web service call as follow: public class A { public A() // constructor { protected static B b = new B(); } private void processResult1(string result) { // come here when result is successful } private void processResult2(string result) { // come here when result is failed } static void main() { b.DoJobHelper(...); } } public class B { private com.nowhere.somewebservice ws; public B() { this.ws = new com.nowhere.somewebservice(); ws.JobCompleted += new JobCompletedEventHandler(OnCompleted); } void OnCompleted(object sender, JobCompletedEventArgs e) { string s; Guid taskID = (Guid)e.UserState; switch (s) { case "Success": // Call processResult1(); break; case "Failed": // Call processResult2(); break; default: break; } } public void DoJobHelper() { Object userState = Guid.NewGuid(); ws.DoJob(..., userState); } } (1) I have seen texts on the net on using delegates for callbacks but failed to apply that to my case. All I want to do is to call the appropriate processResult() method upon OnCompleted() event, but dunno how to and where to declare the delegate: public delegate void CallBack(string s); (2) There is a sender object passed in to OnCompleted() but never used, did I miss anything there? Or how can I make good use of sender? Any helps appreciated.

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  • faster way to change xml to array(grails to flex)

    - by Anthony Umpad
    I have a large xml passed from grails to flex. When flex receives the xml, it converts the xml into an associative array object. Given the large xml file, it takes too long to complete the loop, is there any way in flex to make conversion faster? Below is my sample code. <xml> <car> <model>Vios</model> <type>Sedan</type> <color>Blue</color> </car> <car> <model>Camry</model> <type>Luxury</type> <color>Black</color> </car> </xml> *converted to the flex associative array below.* [Vios].type = Sedan .color = Blue [Camry].type = Luxury .color = Black *Below is a code I used in flex to convert the xml to the associative array object* var tempXML=xml.children() var tempArray:Array= new Array() for(var i:int=0;i<tempXML.length();i++) { tempArray[tempXML[i].@model]= new Object(); tempArray[tempXML[i].@model].color = tempXML[i][email protected](); tempArray[tempXML[i].@model].type = tempXML[i][email protected](); }

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  • C# How to commit a TextBox?

    - by Jake
    Hi, In a form, I have a TextBox Binding an Object on its member property "Title". Along with it is a "Save" button to test the binding. Seems like the underlying object property does not get updated unless the textbox loses focus. But there no form.ActiveControl.Blur() for use. Besides, this does not seem like a sound hack. Anyway to do this better? Thanks. EDIT: Sorry for not being clear. My question is in the title: "How to commit a TextBox". I use the term "commit" from the DataGridView commit and BindingSource commit. And it's in WinForms. (Have never worked with WPF, so it didn't occur to me. Sorry). The actual scenario I have is I have a bunch of TextBox binded to property of a single Object. The user enters values in all the TextBox and when the user clicks save (toolbar button), the last TextBox is still in focus (or in editing mode) hence the save will not capture the last value in the last textbox. I want to find the correct way to "commit" the textbox value just before saving. Thanks.

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  • Combining properties made available via webservices profile service aspnet

    - by Adam
    I really wasn't sure what the title for my question could be, so sorry if it's a bit vague. I'm working on an application that uses client application services for authentication/profile management etc. In web.config for my website, I have the following profile properties like this: <properties> <add name="FirstName" type="string" defaultValue="" customProviderData="FirstName;nvarchar"/> ... Basic things like first name, last name etc. I'm exposing properties for my client app like this: <system.web.extensions> <scripting> <webServices> <authenticationService enabled="true" requireSSL="false"/> <profileService enabled="true" readAccessProperties="UserProfile" writeAccessProperties="UserProfile"/> <roleService enabled="true"/> </webServices> </scripting> </system.web.extensions> What I'm wondering is whether it's possible to bundle all the individual profile properties into a single object for client apps to utilize? I originally had all my profile data stored as members of a single class (UserProfile) but I broke it all out so that I could use the SqlTableProfileProvider to store each field as individual columns in relevant tables. I know I can create an class with members for each type, I'm just not sure if there's an easy way to create an object with all my property values (other than assigning values to this object whenever I assign to the the standalone properties). I don't think I'm explaining this very well, so I'll try an example. Say in my website profile I have FirstName and LastName as properties. For my client application profileService I want to have one ReadAccessProperty FullName. Is there some way to automatically create FullName from the existing FirstName and LastName properties without having to also have a seperate FullName property (and manually assign data to it whenever I assign data to FirstName and LastName)?

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  • Why put a DAO layer over a persistence layer (like JDO or Hibernate)

    - by Todd Owen
    Data Access Objects (DAOs) are a common design pattern, and recommended by Sun. But the earliest examples of Java DAOs interacted directly with relational databases -- they were, in essence, doing object-relational mapping (ORM). Nowadays, I see DAOs on top of mature ORM frameworks like JDO and Hibernate, and I wonder if that is really a good idea. I am developing a web service using JDO as the persistence layer, and am considering whether or not to introduce DAOs. I foresee a problem when dealing with a particular class which contains a map of other objects: public class Book { // Book description in various languages, indexed by ISO language codes private Map<String,BookDescription> descriptions; } JDO is clever enough to map this to a foreign key constraint between the "BOOKS" and "BOOKDESCRIPTIONS" tables. It transparently loads the BookDescription objects (using lazy loading, I believe), and persists them when the Book object is persisted. If I was to introduce a "data access layer" and write a class like BookDao, and encapsulate all the JDO code within this, then wouldn't this JDO's transparent loading of the child objects be circumventing the data access layer? For consistency, shouldn't all the BookDescription objects be loaded and persisted via some BookDescriptionDao object (or BookDao.loadDescription method)? Yet refactoring in that way would make manipulating the model needlessly complicated. So my question is, what's wrong with calling JDO (or Hibernate, or whatever ORM you fancy) directly in the business layer? Its syntax is already quite concise, and it is datastore-agnostic. What is the advantage, if any, of encapsulating it in Data Access Objects?

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  • AJAX - ASP.NET - Timer delay problem

    - by Julian
    Hi, I'm trying to make an webapplication where you see an Ajax countdown timer. Whenever I push a button the countdown should go back to 30 and keep counting down. Now the problem is whenever I push the button the timer keeps counting down for a second or 2 and most of the time after that the timer keeps standing on 30 for to long. WebForm code: <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text="geen verbinding"></asp:Label> <br /> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" onclick="Button1_Click" Text="Button" /> <br /> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="Timer1" EventName="Tick" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> <asp:Timer ID="Timer1" runat="server" Interval="1000" ontick="Timer1_Tick"> </asp:Timer> </form> Code Behind: static int timer = 30; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Label1.Text = timer.ToString(); } protected void Timer1_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { timer--; } protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { timer = 30; } Hope somebody knows what the problem is and if there is anyway to fix this. Thanks in advance!

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  • Is this a clean way to manage AsyncResults with Generic Methods?

    - by Michael Stum
    I've contributed Async Support to a Project I'm using, but I made a bug which I'm trying to fix. Basically I have this construct: private readonly Dictionary<WaitHandle, object> genericCallbacks = new Dictionary<WaitHandle, object>(); public IAsyncResult BeginExecute<T>(RestRequest request, AsyncCallback callback, object state) where T : new() { var genericCallback = new RequestExecuteCaller<T>(this.Execute<T>); var asyncResult = genericCallback.BeginInvoke(request, callback, state); genericCallbacks[asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle] = genericCallback; return asyncResult; } public RestResponse<T> EndExecute<T>(IAsyncResult asyncResult) where T : new() { var cb = genericCallbacks[asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle] as RequestExecuteCaller<T>; genericCallbacks.Remove(asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle); return cb.EndInvoke(asyncResult); } So I have a generic BeginExecute/EndExecute method pair. As I need to store the delegate that is called on EndExecute somewhere I created a dictionary. I'm unsure about using WaitHandles as keys though, but that seems to be the only safe choice. Does this approach make sense? Are WaitHandles unique or could I have two equal ones? Or should I instead use the State (and wrap any user provided state into my own State value)? Just to add, the class itself is non-generic, only the Begin/EndExecute methods are generic.

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  • In .NET when Aborting Thread, can this piece of code get corrupted?

    - by bosko
    Little intro: In complex multithreaded aplication (enterprise service bus EBS), I need to use Thread.Abort, because this EBS accepts user written modules which communicates with hardware security modules. So if this module gets deadlocked or hardware stops responding - i need to just unload this module and rest of this server aplication must keep runnnig. So there is abort sync mechanism which ensures that code can be aborted only in user section and this section must be marked as AbortAble. If this happen there is possibility that ThreadAbortException will be thrown in this pieace of code: public void StopAbortSection() { var id = Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId; lock (threadIdMap[id]) { .... } } If module is on AbortSection and Aplication decides to abort module, but after this decision but before actual Thread.Abort, module enters NonAbortableSection by calling this method, but lock is actualy taken on that locking object. So lock will block until Abort or abort can be executed before reaching this block by this code. But Object with this method is essential and i need to be sure that this pieace of code is safe to abort in any moment. Probably i have to mention that threadIdMap is Dictionary(int,ManualResetEvent), so locking object is instance of ManualResetEvent. I hope you now understad my question. Sorry for its largeness.

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  • A question on delegates and method parameters

    - by Srinivas Reddy Thatiparthy
    public class Program { delegate void Srini(string param); static void Main(string[] args) { Srini sr = new Srini(PrintHello1); sr += new Srini(PrintHello2); //case 2: sr += new Srini(delegate(string o) { Console.WriteLine(o); }); sr += new Srini(delegate(object o) { Console.WriteLine(o.ToString()); }); //case 4: sr += new Srini(delegate { Console.WriteLine(“This line is accepted,though the method signature is not Comp”); });//case 5 sr("Hello World"); Console.Read(); } static void PrintHello1(string param) { Console.WriteLine(param); } static void PrintHello2(object param) { Console.WriteLine(param); } } Compiler doesn't complain about the case 2(see the comment),well,the reason is straight forward since string inherits from object. ,along the same lines ,Why is it complaining for anonymous method types(see the comment //case 4:) that “Cannot convert anonymous method to delegate type 'DelegateTest.Program.Srini' because the parameter types do not match the delegate parameter types” where as in case of normal method it doesn't ?or am i comparing apples with oranges? Another case is why is it accepting anonymous method without parameters?

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  • Netbean6.8: Cant deploy an app if I have Message Driven Bean

    - by Harry Pham
    I create an Enterprise Application CustomerApp that also generated two projects CustomerApp-ejb and CustomerApp-war. In the CustomerApp-ejb, I create a SessionBean call CustomerSessionBean.java as below. package com.customerapp.ejb; import javax.ejb.Stateless; import javax.ejb.LocalBean; import javax.persistence.EntityManager; import javax.persistence.PersistenceContext; @Stateless @LocalBean public class CustomerSessionBean { @PersistenceContext(unitName = "CustomerApp-ejbPU") private EntityManager em; public void persist(Object object) { em.persist(object); } } Now I can deploy CustomerApp-war just fine. But as soon as I create a Message Driven Bean, I cant deploy CustomerApp-war anymore. When I create NotificationBean.java (message driven bean), In the project destination option, I click add, and have NotificationQueue for the Destination Name and Destination Type is Queue. Below are the code package com.customerapp.mdb; import javax.ejb.ActivationConfigProperty; import javax.ejb.MessageDriven; import javax.jms.Message; import javax.jms.MessageListener; @MessageDriven(mappedName = "jms/NotificationQueue", activationConfig = { @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "acknowledgeMode", propertyValue = "Auto-acknowledge"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destinationType", propertyValue = "javax.jms.Queue") }) public class NotificationBean implements MessageListener { public NotificationBean() { } public void onMessage(Message message) { } } If I remove the @MessageDriven annotation, then I can deploy the project. Any idea why and how to fix it?

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  • Javascript: I can get the text of a selection, now how do I get the text outside the selection?

    - by DavidR
    I have a bit of code that returns the text of a selection and I can assign that string to a variable, but now all I need are two variables, one for the text before the selection and one for the text after the selection. Here is the code for getting the selection: function findSelection(){ //returns the selection object. var userSelection; if (window.getSelection) {userSelection = window.getSelection();} // Mozilla Selection object. else if (document.selection){userSelection = document.selection.createRange();} //gets Microsoft Text Range, should be second b/c Opera has poor support for it. if (userSelection.text){return userSelection.text} //for Microsoft Objects. else {return userSelection} //For Mozilla Objects. } Then I find the anchorOffset and focusOffset to find the caret positions. I tried using these to modify a range object, like this: var range = document.createRange(); range.setStart(textdiv,0); range.setEnd(textdiv,5); Where textdiv is a variable holding the last div the user clicked on. The problem is firefox just gives me a "Security error" code: "1000" at the line range.setStart(textdiv,0);. Is there an easier way to go about doing this? I really just need the text and nothing more.

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  • Flash/Flex sending XML to Rails App

    - by bdicasa
    I'm trying to send some XML to a rails app in Flex. I'm using the URLRequest and URLLoader objects. However, I'm having trouble determining how to send the XML and _method parameter to the rails app using these flash objects. Below is how I'm currently trying to achieve this. var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest(); request.method = URLRequestMethod.POST; request.data = new Object(); request.data.xml = Blog.xml.toXMLString(); request.contentType = "text/xml"; var loader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, saveCompleteHandler); var saveUrl:String = ""; saveUrl = BASE_URL; if (Blog.isNewBlog) { // Set the rails REST method. request.data._method = "POST"; saveUrl += "blogs.xml"; } else { // Set the rails REST method. request.data._method = "PUT"; saveUrl += "blogs/" + Blog.id.toString() + ".xml"; } request.url = saveUrl; //trace(request.data.toString()); loader.load(request); However the only data that is getting sent to the server is [Object object]. If some one could let me know where I'm going wrong I'd greatly appreciate it. Thanks.

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  • If I select from an IQueryable then the Include is lost

    - by Connor Murphy
    The include does not work after I perform a select on the IQueryable query. Is there a way arround this? My query is public IQueryable<Network> GetAllNetworks() { var query = (from n in _db.NetworkSet .Include("NetworkContacts.Contact") .Include("NetworkContacts.Contact.RelationshipSource.Target") .Include("NetworkContacts.Contact.RelationshipSource.Source") select (n)); return query;; } I then try to populate mya ViewModel in my WebUI layer using the following code var projectedNetworks = from n in GetAllNetworks() select new NetworkViewModel { Name = n.Name, Contacts = from contact in networkList .SelectMany(nc => nc.NetworkContacts) .Where(nc => nc.Member == true) .Where(nc => nc.NetworkId == n.ID) .Select(c => c.Contact) select contact, }; return projectedNetworks; The problem now occurs in my newly createdNetworkViewModel The Contacts object does include any loaded data for RelationshipSource.Target or RelationshipSource.Source The data should is there when run from the original Repository IQueryable object. However the related include data does not seem to get transferred into the new Contacts collection that is created from this IQueryable using the Select New {} code above. Is there a way to preserve this Include data when it gets passed into a new object?

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  • sorting filtered data in asp.net listview

    - by user791345
    I've created a listview that's filled up with a list of guitars from the database on page load like so: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection(WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["GuitarsLTDBConnectionString"].ToString()); SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("SELECT * FROM Guitars", con); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd.CommandText, con); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); da.Fill(dt); lvGuitars.DataSource = dt; lvGuitars.DataBind(); } The following code filters that list of guitars by a certain Make when the user checks the checkbox corresponding to that make protected void chkOrgs_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { DataTable dt = (DataTable)lvGuitars.DataSource; DataView dv = new DataView(dt); if (chkOrgs.SelectedValue == "Gibson") { dv.RowFilter = "Make = 'Gibson' OR Make='Fender'"; } lvGuitars.DataSource = dv.ToTable(); lvGuitars.DataBind(); } Now, what I want to do is be able to sort the latest data that is present within the listview. Meaning, if sort is clicked before filtering, the it should sort all data. If sort is clicked after filtering, it should sort the filtered data. I'm using the following code, which is triggered upon a LinkButton click protected void lnkSortResults_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { DataTable dt = (DataTable)lvGuitars.DataSource; DataView dv = new DataView(dt); dv.Sort = "Make ASC"; lvGuitars.DataSource = dv.ToTable(); lvGuitars.DataBind(); } The problem is that all the data that the listview was loaded with before any filtering is sorted, and not the latest filtered data. How can I change this code so that the latest data available in the listview is the one that's sorted? Thanks

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  • How to use reflection to call a method and pass parameters whose types are unknown at compile time?

    - by MandoMando
    I'd like to call methods of a class dynamically with parameter values that are "parsed" from a string input. For example: I'd like to call the following program with these commands: c:myprog.exe MethodA System.Int32 777 c:myprog.exe MethodA System.float 23.17 c:myprog.exe MethodB System.Int32& 777 c:myprog.exe MethodC System.Int32 777 System.String ThisCanBeDone static void Main(string[] args) { ClassA aa = new ClassA(); System.Type[] types = new Type[args.Length / 2]; object[] ParamArray = new object[types.Length]; for (int i=0; i < types.Length; i++) { types[i] = System.Type.GetType(args[i*2 + 1]); // LINE_X: this will obviously cause runtime error invalid type/casting ParamArray[i] = args[i*2 + 2]; MethodInfo callInfo = aa.GetType().GetMethod(args[0],types); callInfo.Invoke(aa, ParamArray); } // In a non-changeable classlib: public class ClassA { public void MethodA(int i) { Console.Write(i.ToString()); } public void MethodA(float f) { Console.Write(f.ToString()); } public void MethodB(ref int i) { Console.Write(i.ToString()); i++; } public void MethodC(int i, string s) { Console.Write(s + i.ToString()); } public void MethodA(object o) { Console.Write("Argg! Type Trapped!"); } } "LINE_X" in the above code is the sticky part. For one, I have no idea how to assign value to a int or a ref int parameter even after I create it using Activator.CreatInstance or something else. The typeConverter does come to mind, but then that requires an explicit compile type casting as well. Am I looking at CLR with JavaScript glasses or there is way to do this?

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  • Fast, very lightweight algorithm for camera motion detection?

    - by Ertebolle
    I'm working on an augmented reality app for iPhone that involves a very processor-intensive object recognition algorithm (pushing the CPU at 100% it can get through maybe 5 frames per second), and in an effort to both save battery power and make the whole thing less "jittery" I'm trying to come up with a way to only run that object recognizer when the user is actually moving the camera around. My first thought was to simply use the iPhone's accelerometers / gyroscope, but in testing I found that very often people would move the iPhone at a consistent enough attitude and velocity that there wouldn't be any way to tell that it was still in motion. So that left the option of analyzing the actual video feed and detecting movement in that. I got OpenCV working and tried running their pyramidal Lucas-Kanade optical flow algorithm, which works well but seems to be almost as processor-intensive as my object recognizer - I can get it to an acceptable framerate if I lower the depth levels / downsample the image / track fewer points, but then accuracy suffers and it starts to miss some large movements and trigger on small hand-shaking-y ones. So my question is, is there another optical flow algorithm that's faster than Lucas-Kanade if I just want to detect the overall magnitude of camera movement? I don't need to track individual objects, I don't even need to know which direction the camera is moving, all I really need is a way to feed something two frames of video and have it tell me how far apart they are.

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  • KeyUp processed for wrong control

    - by Mikael
    I have made a simple test application for the issue, two winforms each containing a button. The button on the first form opens the other form when clicked. It also subscribes to keyup events. The second form has its button set as "AcceptButton" and in the Clicked event we sleep for 1s and then set DialogResult to true (the sleep is to simulate some processing done) When enter is used to close this second form the KeyUp event of the button on the first form is triggered, even though the key was released well before the second had passed so the second form was still shown and focused. If any key other then enter is pressed in the second form the event is not triggered for the button on the first form. First form: public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); buttonForm2.KeyUp += new KeyEventHandler(cntKeyUp); } void cntKeyUp(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(e.KeyCode.ToString()); } private void buttonForm2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { using (Form2 f = new Form2()) { f.ShowDialog(); } } Second form: private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread.Sleep(1000); this.DialogResult = DialogResult.OK; } Does anyone know why the event is triggered for the button on the non active form and what can be done to stop this from happening?

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  • vb.net documentation and exception question

    - by dcp
    Let's say I have this sub in vb.net: ''' <summary> ''' Validates that <paramref name="value"/> is not <c>null</c>. ''' </summary> ''' ''' <param name="value">The object to validate.</param> ''' ''' <param name="name">The variable name of the object.</param> ''' ''' <exception cref="ArgumentNullException">If <paramref name="value"/> is <c>null</c>.</exception> Sub ValidateNotNull(ByVal value As Object, ByVal name As String) If value Is Nothing Then Throw New ArgumentNullException(name, String.Format("{0} cannot be null.", name)) End If End Sub My question is, is it proper to call this ValidateNotNull (which is what I would call it in C#) or should I stick with VB terminology and call it ValidateNotNothing instead? Also, in my exception, is it proper to say "cannot be null", or would it be better to say "cannot be Nothing"? I sort of like the way I have it, but since this is VB, maybe I should use Nothing. But since the exception itself is called ArgumentNullException, it feels weird to make the message say "cannot be Nothing". Anyway, I guess it's pretty nitkpicky, just wondered what you folks thought.

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  • android:junit running Parameterized testcases.

    - by puneetinderkaur
    Hi, i wan to run a single testcase with different parameters. in java it possible through junit4 and code is like this package com.android.test; import static org.junit.Assert.assertEquals; import java.util.Arrays; import java.util.Collection; import org.junit.Test; import org.junit.runner.RunWith; import org.junit.runners.Parameterized; import org.junit.runners.Parameterized.Parameters; @RunWith(Parameterized.class) public class ParameterizedTestExample { private int number; private int number2; private int result; private functioncall coun; //constructor takes parameters from array public ParameterizedTestExample(int number, int number2, int result1) { this.number = number; this.number2 = number2; this.result = result1; coun = new functioncall(); } //array with parameters @Parameters public static Collection<Object[]> data() { Object[][] data = new Object[][] { { 1, 4, 5 }, { 2, 7, 9 }, { 3, 7, 10 }, { 4, 9, 13 } }; return Arrays.asList(data); } //running our test @Test public void testCounter() { assertEquals("Result add x y", result, coun.calculateSum(this.number, this.number2), 0); } } Now my question is can we Run the same with android testcases where we have deal with context. when i try to run the code using android junit. it gives me error NoClassDefinationFound.

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  • Populate textboxes with XmlNode.Attributes

    - by Doug
    I have Data.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <data> <album> <slide title="Autum Leaves" description="Leaves from the fall of 1986" source="images/Autumn Leaves.jpg" thumbnail="images/Autumn Leaves_thumb.jpg" /> <slide title="Creek" description="Creek in Alaska" source="images/Creek.jpg" thumbnail="images/Creek_thumb.jpg" /> </album> </data> I'd like to be able to edit the attributes of each Slide node via GridView (that has a "Select" column added.) And so far I have: protected void GridView1_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { int selectedIndex = GridView1.SelectedIndex; LoadXmlData(selectedIndex); } private void LoadXmlData(int selectedIndex) { XmlDocument xmldoc = new XmlDocument(); xmldoc.Load(MapPath(@"..\photo_gallery\Data.xml")); XmlNodeList nodelist = xmldoc.DocumentElement.ChildNodes; XmlNode xmlnode = nodelist.Item(selectedIndex); titleTextBox.Text = xmlnode.Attributes["title"].InnerText; descriptionTextBox.Text = xmlnode.Attributes["description"].InnerText; sourceTextBox.Text = xmlnode.Attributes["source"].InnerText; thumbTextBox.Text = xmlnode.Attributes["thumbnail"].InnerText; } The code for LoadXmlData is just a guess on my part - I'm new to working with xml in this way. I'd like have the user to slected the row from the gridview, then populate a set of text boxes with each slide attributed for updating back to the Data.xml file. The error I'm getting is Object reference not set to an instance of an object" at the line: titleTextBox.Text = xmlnode.Attributes["@title"].InnerText; so I'm not reaching the attribute "title" of the slide node. Thanks for any ideas you may have.

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