Search Results

Search found 13469 results on 539 pages for 'avoid trouble'.

Page 410/539 | < Previous Page | 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413 414 415 416 417  | Next Page >

  • Making a Delete and Reply button in Jquery

    - by Branko Ostojic
    this is my second post on the website. Of all other sites i tried, this one gave the most accurate and useful information! I'm in a bit of a trouble with buttons, i have a task to make an inbox and to add a "reply" and "delete" button into every instance of the message. I was indeed wandering if there is a better way to do that than forcing the HTML code into the script, because every message is dynamically generated. Any help and/or suggestions would be very appreciated!(The objects are called from a JSON file). $(document).ready(function(){ $.getJSON('public/js/data.json', function(json){ $.each(json.data, function(i, data){ var output = ''; if(data.from.id != '234' && data.from.name != 'Alan Ford'){ $("#inbox").append( output += '<div class="post">'+ '<div class="h1">'+data.from.name+' - '+data.subject+'</div>'+ //this gives the name of the person who sent the message and the subject '<div class="content">'+data.message_formatted+'</div>'+ //The content of the message //buttons should be squeezed left of the date //this gives the date of the message sent '<div class="time">'+data.date_sent_formatted.formatted+'</div>'+ '</div>' ); }}); }); }); var date_sent=convertToDateTime(); function delete_message(id){ console.log('Delete message with id: '+id); } function reply_message(id, sender){ console.log('Message id: '+id); console.log('Reply to: '+sender); } The complete code in the JSFiddle . Just copy/pasted!

    Read the article

  • XmlSerializer construction with same named extra types

    - by NoizWaves
    Hey, I am hitting trouble constructing an XmlSerializer where the extra types contains types with the same Name (but unique Fullname). Below is an example that illustrated my scenario. Type definitions in external assembly I cannot manipulate: public static class Wheel { public enum Status { Stopped, Spinning } } public static class Engine { public enum Status { Idle, Full } } Class I have written and have control over: public class Car { public Wheel.Status WheelStatus; public Engine.Status EngineStatus; public static string Serialize(Car car) { var xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Car), new[] {typeof(Wheel.Status),typeof(Engine.Status)}); var output = new StringBuilder(); using (var sw = new StringWriter(output)) xs.Serialize(sw, car); return output.ToString(); } } The XmlSerializer constructor throws a System.InvalidOperationException with Message "There was an error reflecting type 'Engine.Status'" This exception has an InnerException of type System.InvalidOperationException and with Message "Types 'Wheel.Status' and 'Engine.Status' both use the XML type name, 'Status', from namespace ''. Use XML attributes to specify a unique XML name and/or namespace for the type." Given that I am unable to alter the enum types, how can I construct an XmlSerializer that will serialize Car successfully?

    Read the article

  • Django Admin Running Same Query Thousands of Times for Model

    - by Tom
    Running into an odd . . . loop when trying to view a model in the Django admin. I have three related models (code trimmed for brevity, hopefully I didn't trim something I shouldn't have): class Association(models.Model): somecompany_entity_id = models.CharField(max_length=10, db_index=True) name = models.CharField(max_length=200) def __unicode__(self): return self.name class ResidentialUnit(models.Model): building = models.CharField(max_length=10) app_number = models.CharField(max_length=10) unit_number = models.CharField(max_length=10) unit_description = models.CharField(max_length=100, blank=True) association = models.ForeignKey(Association) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) updated = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) def __unicode__(self): return '%s: %s, Unit %s' % (self.association, self.building, self.unit_number) class Resident(models.Model): unit = models.ForeignKey(ResidentialUnit) type = models.CharField(max_length=20, blank=True, default='') lookup_key = models.CharField(max_length=200) jenark_id = models.CharField(max_length=20, blank=True) user = models.ForeignKey(User) is_association_admin = models.BooleanField(default=False, db_index=True) show_in_contact_list = models.BooleanField(default=False, db_index=True) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) updated = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) _phones = {} home_phone = None work_phone = None cell_phone = None app_number = None account_cache_key = None def __unicode__(self): return '%s' % self.user.get_full_name() It's the last model that's causing the problem. Trying to look at a Resident in the admin takes 10-20 seconds. If I take 'self.association' out of the __unicode__ method for ResidentialUnit, a resident page renders pretty quickly. Looking at it in the debug toolbar, without the association name in ResidentialUnit (which is a foreign key on Resident), the page runs 14 queries. With the association name put back in, it runs a far more impressive 4,872 queries. The strangest part is the extra queries all seem to be looking up the association name. They all come from the same line, the __unicode__ method for ResidentialUnit. Each one is the exact same thing, e.g., SELECT `residents_association`.`id`, `residents_association`.`jenark_entity_id`, `residents_association`.`name` FROM `residents_association` WHERE `residents_association`.`id` = 1096 ORDER BY `residents_association`.`name` ASC I assume I've managed to create a circular reference, but if it were truly circular, it would just die, not run 4000x and then return. Having trouble finding a good Google or StackOverflow result for this.

    Read the article

  • How to format JSON Date?

    - by Mark Struzinski
    I'm taking my first crack at AJAX with jQuery. I'm getting my data onto my page, but I'm having some trouble with the JSON that is returned for Date data types. Basically, I'm getting a string back that looks like this: /Date(1224043200000)/ From a total newbie at JSON - How do I format this to a short date format? Should this be handled somewhere in the jQuery code? I've tried the jQuery.UI.datepicker plugin using $.datepicker.formatDate() wiuth no success. FYI: Here's the solution I came up with using a combination of the answers here: function getMismatch(id) { $.getJSON("Main.aspx?Callback=GetMismatch", { MismatchId: id }, function(result) { $("#AuthMerchId").text(result.AuthorizationMerchantId); $("#SttlMerchId").text(result.SettlementMerchantId); $("#CreateDate").text(formatJSONDate(Date(result.AppendDts))); $("#ExpireDate").text(formatJSONDate(Date(result.ExpiresDts))); $("#LastUpdate").text(formatJSONDate(Date(result.LastUpdateDts))); $("#LastUpdatedBy").text(result.LastUpdateNt); $("#ProcessIn").text(result.ProcessIn); } ); return false; } function formatJSONDate(jsonDate){ var newDate = dateFormat(jsonDate, "mm/dd/yyyy"); return newDate; } This solution got my object from the callback method and displayed the dates on the page properly using the date format library.

    Read the article

  • how to run TimerTask off main UI thread?

    - by huskyd97
    I am having trouble with a TimerTask Interfering with In App Purchasing (Async Tasks). I am weak with Threads, so I believe it is running on the main UI thread, eating up resources. How can I run this outside the UI thread? I have searched, and tried some suggestions using handlers. but seems like I get the same result, app gets really laggy. when I don't run this task (refreshes every 500mS), the activity runs smoothly, and there are no hangs during In app purchases. Your help is appreciated, code snippet below: public class DummyButtonClickerActivity extends Activity { protected Timer timeTicker = new Timer("Ticker"); private Handler timerHandler = new Handler(); protected int timeTickDown = 20; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.mainhd); // start money earned timer handler TimerTask tick = new TimerTask() { public void run() { myTickTask(); } }; timeTicker.scheduleAtFixedRate(tick, 0, 500); // 500 ms each } // End OnCreate protected void myTickTask() { if (timeTickDown == 0) { /// run my code here //total = total + _Rate; timerHandler.post(doUpdateTimeout); } else if(timeTickDown < 0) { // do nothing } timeTickDown--; } private Runnable doUpdateTimeout = new Runnable() { public void run() { updateTimeout(); } }; private void updateTimeout() { // reset tick timeTickDown = 2; // 2* 500ms == once a second } }

    Read the article

  • jQuery Fancy - popup window doesn't fully expand

    - by fmz
    I am using jQuery Fancybox to display a number of Flash videos on a site and I am having trouble with the window not opening fully on the first click in Firefox. It works fine in other browsers. Here is the jQuery: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("a.videoLink").fancybox({ 'titleShow' : false, 'autoscale' : true, 'width' : '820', 'height' : '620', 'transitionIn' : 'elastic', 'transitionOut' : 'elastic' }); }); </script> Here is the html: <tr> <td class="title"><a class="videoLink" href="#video-content30">CPR Lesson 1 Movie</a></td> <td class="time">38:39</td> <td class="video" style="display:none"> <div id="video-content30"> <script type='text/javascript'> var flashvars = { file: 'http://www.stockmarketcpr.com/smsys/link/CPR-Lesson-1-Movie.flv', id: '30' }; var params = { wmode: 'opaque', bgcolor: '#CCCCCC', allowfullscreen: 'true', allowscriptaccess: 'always' }; swfobject.embedSWF('http://www.stockmarketcpr.com/_flash/player.swf', 'player30','800','600', '9.0.0','expressInstall.swf', flashvars, params); </script> <div id="player30"></div> </div> </td> </tr> I end up getting a quarter inch high, full-width window on the first click. The second click plays fine. I would appreciate any assistance. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Deleting object in NSMutableSet Core Data

    - by Luke
    Hi I am having trouble deleting an object in an NSMutableSet using core Data... I am trying to delete a "player" object in the second section of my tableview. I am getting the error Invalid update: invalid number of rows in section 1. The number of rows contained in an existing section after the update (6) must be equal to the number of rows contained in that section before the update (6), plus or minus the number of rows inserted or deleted from that section (0 inserted, 1 deleted) and plus or minus the number of rows moved into or out of that section (0 moved in, 0 moved out Take a look at my code. - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView commitEditingStyle:(UITableViewCellEditingStyle)editingStyle forRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (editingStyle == UITableViewCellEditingStyleDelete) { if (indexPath.section==0){ }else{ Player *p = [self.fetchedResultsController.fetchedObjects objectAtIndex: indexPath.section]; [_team removePlayersObject:p]; [_team.players removeObject:p]; AppDelegate *delegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; _managedObjectContext = delegate.managedObjectContext; [_managedObjectContext deleteObject:p]; [self.tableView deleteRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:indexPath] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationTop]; } } } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { switch(section){ case 0: return 7; case 1: return [self.fetchedResultsController.fetchedObjects count]; } return 0; }

    Read the article

  • Why my jquery function is not firing on Firefox

    - by Cristian Boariu
    I have some trouble with some jquery method (for some checkboxes I want them to fire on checked/unchecked so I can do something then). This method works perfectly on Chrome and IE but not on latest FF. jQuery(function () { jQuery(':checkbox').change(function () { var counter = jQuery('.count').text(); var thisCheck = jQuery(this); if (thisCheck.is(':checked')) { counter++; //apply green color to the selected row jQuery(this).closest('tr').addClass('checked'); } else { counter--; //remove green color to the selected row jQuery(this).closest('tr').removeClass('checked'); } jQuery('.count').html(counter); //enable export button when there are selected emails to be exported if (counter > 0) { jQuery(".exportButton").removeAttr("disabled", ""); } else { jQuery(".exportButton").attr("disabled", "disabled"); } }); }); Basically it's simply not firing...Even with Debug is not catching the first line (function declare nor other lines too). If I move this javascript(without function declare) inside jQuery(document).ready(function ($) { all works nice on Firefox too... Yes, I do use jQuery.noConflict(); before jQuery(document).ready(function ($) { Do you know why this happens?

    Read the article

  • WCF operationcontract with List type unavailable in (Silverlight) client

    - by Dave
    This is the first time I have tried returning a List of data to a Silverlight client, so I'm having trouble getting the client to recognize this operationcontract. All others are fine. I have a method on the server called ReadOwFileData that needs to return a List. ReadOwFileDataCompletedEventArgs shows up in the Object Browser in the client, but not ReadOwFileDataAsync. What I want is similar to the tutorial here. The Dictionary collection type on the client is set to System.Collections.Generic.List. I tried deleting and recreating the service reference. Web.Config on the server is using basicHttpBinding. Here is the operationcontract on the server: [OperationContract] public List<OwFileData> ReadOwFileData(string OrderID) { DataClasses1DataContext db = new DataClasses1DataContext(); var dFileData = (from p in db.OwFileDatas where p.OrderID == OrderID select p).ToList(); List<OwFileData> x = new List<OwFileData>(dFileData); return x; } Incidently, this works fine: [OperationContract] public Customer GetShippingAndContactInfo(string login, string ordernum) { DataClasses1DataContext db = new DataClasses1DataContext(); Customer dInfo = (from p in db.Customers where p.Login == login select p).Single(); return dInfo; } I would like to read this data in the client and place it into an object I created called ObservableCollection. But that obviously can't happen until the client can see the method on the server. I do not know if this is an acceptable start, but this is what is on the client so far. The ReadOwFileDataAsync object is null: void populatefilesReceivedDataSource(string OrderID) { ArtUpload.ServiceReference1.UploadServiceClient client = new ArtUpload.ServiceReference1.UploadServiceClient(); var myList = client.ReadOwFileDataAsync(OrderID); // can I just itterate thru the list instead of 'binding' }

    Read the article

  • Call 32-bit or 64-bit program from bootloader

    - by user1002358
    There seems to be quite a lot of identical information on the Internet about writing the following 3 bootloaders: Infinite loop jmp $ Print a single character Print "Hello World". This is fantastic, and I've gone through these 3 variations with very little trouble. I'd like to write some 32- or 64-bit code in C and compile it, and call that code from the bootloader... basically a bootloader that, for example, sets the computer up to run some simple numerical simulation. I'll start by listing primes, for example, and then maybe some input/output from the user to maybe compute a Fourier transform. I don't know. I haven't found any information on how to do this, but I can already foresee some problems before I even begin. First of all, compiling a C program compiles it into one of several different files, depending on the target. For Windows, it's a PE file. For Linux, it's a .out file. These files are both quite different. In my instance, the target isn't Windows or Linux, it's just whatever I have written in the bootloader. Secondly, where would the actual code reside? The bootloader is exactly 512 bytes, but the program I write in C will certainly compile to something much larger. It will need to sit on my (virtual) hard disk, probably in some sort of file system (which I haven't even defined!) and I will need to load the information from this file into memory before I can even think about executing it. But from my understanding, all this is many, many orders of magnitude more complex than a 12-line "Hello World" bootloader. So my question is: How do I call a large 32- or 64-bit program (written in C/C++) from my 16-bit bootloader.

    Read the article

  • How to import 3rd party libraries

    - by Thahzan Mohomed
    I found some cool android libraries the other day and decided to try some. But I'm having trouble correctly importing the library. This is the URL of the library : https://github.com/dmytrodanylyk/android-process-button I first tried importing the library to eclipse (and move the files in java directory to src directory and set the project as library) and importing the sample to eclipse and set it to use the library project (Properties-Android-Libraries). But it didn't work. The layout files said it failed to instantiate [custom widget class]. The I tried importing the .jar file to libs directory (and update the java build path) but it didn't work either. It showed errors in the java files too. I then tried copying all the java and layout files to the sample project directory and it worked. But I'm guessing that's not the way to work with 3rd party libraries. I first thought it's some error with the library but all the other libraries I tried to import to my projects faced the same problem. Can someone walk me through how to correctly import a 3rd party library to my android project?

    Read the article

  • How can one make a 'passthru' function in C++ using macros or metaprogramming?

    - by Ryan
    So I have a series of global functions, say: foo_f1(int a, int b, char *c); foo_f2(int a); foo_f3(char *a); I want to make a C++ wrapper around these, something like: MyFoo::f1(int a, int b, char* c); MyFoo::f2(int a); MyFoo::f3(char* a); There's about 40 functions like this, 35 of them I just want to pass through to the global function, the other 5 I want to do something different with. Ideally the implementation of MyFoo.cpp would be something like: PASSTHRU( f1, (int a, int b, char *c) ); PASSTHRU( f2, (int a) ); MyFoo::f3(char *a) { //do my own thing here } But I'm having trouble figuring out an elegant way to make the above PASSTHRU macro. What I really need is something like the mythical X getArgs() below: MyFoo::f1(int a, int b, char *c) { X args = getArgs(); args++; //skip past implicit this.. ::f1(args); //pass args to global function } But short of dropping into assembly I can't find a good implementation of getArgs().

    Read the article

  • Set bounds for markers generated by jQuery table loop?

    - by abemonkey
    I have some jQuery code that goes through a table of location results and puts corresponding pins on a map. I am having trouble figuring out how to set the bounds so that when it goes through the loop and generates the markers on the map that it zooms and pans to fit the markers in the view. I've tried implementing code from some similar questions on this site but nothing seems to be working. Please let me know what code I should be using and where the heck I should put it in my script: $(function() { var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(44, 44); var settings = { zoom: 15, center: latlng, disableDefaultUI: false, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), settings); $('tr').each(function(i) { var the_marker = new google.maps.Marker({ title: $(this).find('.views-field-title').text(), map: map, clickable: true, position: new google.maps.LatLng( parseFloat($(this).find('.views-field-latitude').text()), parseFloat($(this).find('.views-field-longitude').text()) ) }); var infowindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow({ content: $(this).find('.views-field-title').text() + $(this).find('.adr').text() }); new google.maps.event.addListener(the_marker, 'click', function() { infowindow.open(map, the_marker); }); }); }); `

    Read the article

  • Setting Cursor property has no effect (C#)

    - by Knarf Navillus
    Hello, I have a class that I've derived from System.Windows.Forms.Panel, and my application has a main form with one of these panels. On the whole, the panel works great! The only thing I'm having trouble with is setting the cursor. Whether I'm setting it to one of the static members of the Cursors class (Default, WaitCursor, etc.) or setting it to a custom cursor that I've loaded from a resource, the end result is the same: it does nothing. I still see the default mouse pointer, no matter what. This line of code is inside a method of my panel-derived class: this.Cursor = Cursors.WaitCursor; I can set a break point there, and see that this line is being hit when I expect it to. I've also created an override for the OnCursorChanged method, and set a breakpoint in there just to see if it's being triggered. I can verify that both breakpoints are being hit when I expect them to. However, the cursor just never changes. There must be something that I'm missing. Does anyone have any ideas? P.S. I also did try setting Current.Cursor as well, however that did not help.

    Read the article

  • selecting text by ignoring inner Elements of div tag javascript

    - by sugar
    <html> <body> <script language="javascript"> function getSelectionHTML() { var div = document.getElementById("myDiv").childNodes; if (document.createRange) { var textNode=div.firstChild; var rangeObj=document.createRange(); rangeObj.setStart(textNode,0); rangeObj.setEnd(textNode,10); selRange.collapse(true); var elem = document.getElementById('myDiv') elem .innerHTML = elem .innerHTML.replace(rangeObj.toString(), '<span style="background-color: lime">'+rangeObj.toString()+'</span>') } } </script> <div id="myDiv"> asdf as<b>dfas df asf asdf sdfjk dvh a sjkh jhcdjkv</b> iof scjahjkv ahsjv hdjk biud fcsvjksdhf k </div> <form name="aform"> <input type="button" value="Get selection" onclick="getSelectionHTML()"> </body> </html> Ok. Let me explain - getSelectionHTML() method is for selection of characters from 0 to 10. I am getting the values by "myDiv" id. but inner bold, italic & other tags are putting me in trouble. In simple words, I just want to make selection of first ten characters (& apply them span tag) which are in "myDiv" tag. What exactly I am missing ? Can anyone help me ? Thanks in advance for sharing your knowledge. Sagar.

    Read the article

  • Reading PDF form field data from Flex 4 ( via php or coldfusion )

    - by Brian Russel Davis
    Been searching web for an answer for this for a MONTH. I am not an expert in Coldfusion. So supposedly this is easy in CF -- but the mark-up confuses the HECK out of me. So here I am. I have managed to import and read a PDF using the CF Proxy for Actionscript: http://forums.adobe.com/thread/754629?tstart=0 --- BUT --- After all my trouble there, the precious form filed information that I was looking for was not there in the PDF info object. GRRRR. So I am back to looking for a way to do this with CFC's or CFM's or PHP. All I want is this: Read the PDF from a Flex app. GET the form field information. WRITE a new PDF with the form field values. I have found so many close but no cigar options ... and I have tried so many that failed. There are so many free PDF this and that out there. But Adobe seems to reserve the real functionality for themselves. All the free options don't seem to have access to the form data? Anyways I am so exhausted with looking for ways to do this. I need help!

    Read the article

  • I've registered my oath about 5 times now, but... (twitteR package R)

    - by user2985989
    I'm attempting to mine twitter data in R, and am having trouble getting started. I created a twitter account, an app in twitter developers, changed the settings to read, write, and access, created my access token, and followed instructions to the letter in registering it: My code: > library(twitteR) > download.file(url="http://curl.haxx.se/ca/cacert.pem", + destfile="cacert.pem") > requestURL <- "https://api.twitter.com/oauth/request_token" > accessURL <- "https://api.twitter.com/oauth/access_token" > authURL <- "https://api.twitter.com/oauth/authorize" > consumerKey <-"my key" #took this part out for privacy's sake > consumerSecret <- "my secret" #this too > twitCred <- OAuthFactory$new(consumerKey=consumerKey, consumerSecret = consumerSecret, requestURL = requestURL, accessURL = accessURL, authURL = authURL) > twitCred$handshake(cainfo="cacert.pem") To enable the connection, please direct your web browser to: https://api.twitter.com/oauth/authorize?oauth_token=zxgHXJkYAB3wQ2IVAeyJjeyid7WK6EGPfouGmlx1c When complete, record the PIN given to you and provide it here: 0010819 > registerTwitterOAuth(twitCred) [1] TRUE > save(list="twitCred", file="twitteR_credentials") And yet, this: > s <- searchTwitter('#United', cainfo="cacert.pem") [1] "Unauthorized" Error in twInterfaceObj$doAPICall(cmd, params, "GET", ...) : Error: Unauthorized I'm about to have a temper tantrum. I'd be extremely grateful if someone could explain to me what is going wrong, or, better yet, how to fix it. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Simulating a 2-level If-Else using RewriteCond

    - by hlissner
    Hi! I'm trying to get my head around RewriteCond, and want to rewrite any requests either to a static html page (if it exists), or to a specific index.php (so long as the requested file doesn't exist). To illustrate the logic: if HTTP_HOST is '(www\.)?mydomain.com' if file exists: "/default/static/{REQUEST_URI}.html", then rewrite .* to /default/static/{REQUEST_URI}.html else if file exists: {REQUEST_FILENAME}, then do not rewrite else rewrite .* to /default/index.php I don't seem to have much trouble doing it when I don't need to test for the HTTP_HOST. Ultimately, this one .htaccess file will be handling requests for several domains. I know I could get around this with vhosts, but I'd like to figure out how to do it this way. Here's where I am at now: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www\.)?mydomain\.com$ [NC] RewriteCond /default/static/%{REQUEST_URI}.html -f RewriteRule . /default/static/%{REQUEST_URI}.html [L,NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule . /default/index.php [L,QSA] I'm not too familiar with some of the other flags, will any of them be of use here (like chain|C, next|N or skip|S)? Thanks in advance! UPDATE: I've managed to do it, but would appreciate alternatives: RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^(.+)/$ /$1 [L] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(domainA|domainB)\.com [NC] RewriteCond %{DOCUMENT_ROOT}/%1/static/%{REQUEST_URI}.html -f RewriteRule (.*)? /%1/static/$1.html [NC,L] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(domainA|domainB)\.com [NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule .* /%1/index.php [L,QSA]

    Read the article

  • calling a function from a set of overloads depending on the dynamic type of an object

    - by Jasper
    I feel like the answer to this question is really simple, but I really am having trouble finding it. So here goes: Suppose you have the following classes: class Base; class Child : public Base; class Displayer { public: Displayer(Base* element); Displayer(Child* element); } Additionally, I have a Base* object which might point to either an instance of the class Base or an instance of the class Child. Now I want to create a Displayer based on the element pointed to by object, however, I want to pick the right version of the constructor. As I currently have it, this would accomplish just that (I am being a bit fuzzy with my C++ here, but I think this the clearest way) object->createDisplayer(); virtual void Base::createDisplayer() { new Displayer(this); } virtual void Child::createDisplayer() { new Displayer(this); } This works, however, there is a problem with this: Base and Child are part of the application system, while Displayer is part of the GUI system. I want to build the GUI system independently of the Application system, so that it is easy to replace the GUI. This means that Base and Child should not know about Displayer. However, I do not know how I can achieve this without letting the Application classes know about the GUI. Am I missing something very obvious or am I trying something that is not possible?

    Read the article

  • Should I put actors in the Domain-Model/Class-Diagram?

    - by devoured elysium
    When designing both the domain-model and class-diagrams I am having some trouble understanding what to put in them. I'll give an example of what I mean: I am doing a vacations scheduler program, that has an Administrator and End-Users. The Administrator does a couple of things like registering End-Users in the program, changing their previleges, etc. The End-User can choose his vacations days, etc. I initially defined an Administrator and End-User as concepts in the domain-model, and later as classes in the class-diagram. In the class-diagram, both classes ended up having a couple of methods like Administrator.RegisterNewUser(); Administrator.UnregisterUser(int id); etc. Only after some time I realised that actually both Administrator and End-User are actors, and maybe I got this design totally wrong. Instead of filling Administrator and End-User classes with methods to do what my Use-Cases request, I could define other classes from the domain to do them, and have controllers handle the Use-Cases(actually, I decided to do one for each Use-Case). I could have a UserDatabase.RegisterNewUser() and UserDatabase.UnregisterUser(int id);, for example, instead of having those methods on the Administrator class. The idea would be to try to think of the whole vacation-scheduler as a "closed-program" that has a set of features and doesn't bother with things such as authentication, that should be internal/protected, being that the only public things I'd let the outside world see would be its controllers. Is this the right approach? Or am I getting this totally wrong? Is it generally bad idea to put Actors in the domain-model/class-diagrams? What are good rules of thumb for this? My lecturer is following Applying UML and Patterns, which I find awful, so I'd like to know where I could look up more info on this described actor-models situation. I'm still a bit confused about all of this, as this new approach is radically different from anything I've done before.

    Read the article

  • Two references to the same domain/entity model

    - by Sbossb
    Problem I want to save the attributes of a model that have changed when a user edits them. Here's what I want to do ... Retrieve edited view model Get domain model and map back updated value Call the update method on repository Get the "old" domain model and compare values of the fields Store the changed values (in JSON) into a table However I am having trouble with step number 4. It seems that the Entity Framework doesn't want to hit the database again to get the model with the old values. It just returns the same entity I have. Attempted Solutions I have tried using the Find() and the SingleOrDefault() methods, but they just return the model I currently have. Example Code private string ArchiveChanges(T updatedEntity) { //Here is the problem! //oldEntity is the same as updatedEntity T oldEntity = DbSet.SingleOrDefault(x => x.ID == updatedEntity.ID); Dictionary<string, object> changed = new Dictionary<string, object>(); foreach (var propertyInfo in typeof(T).GetProperties()) { var property = typeof(T).GetProperty(propertyInfo.Name); //Get the old value and the new value from the models var newValue = property.GetValue(updatedEntity, null); var oldValue = property.GetValue(oldEntity, null); //Check to see if the values are equal if (!object.Equals(newValue, oldValue)) { //Values have changed ... log it changed.Add(propertyInfo.Name, newValue); } } var ser = new System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer(); return ser.Serialize(changed); } public override void Update(T entityToUpdate) { //Do something with this string json = ArchiveChanges(entityToUpdate); entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.Updated = DateTime.Now; entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.UpdatedBy = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; base.Update(entityToUpdate); }

    Read the article

  • Converting IIS Redirect to .htaccess

    - by user1641321
    I am having trouble getting the rewrite to work on an apache server. The end result is so i can make subdomains on the fly just by adding a directory. For example anysubdomain.domain.com will redirect to domain.com/anysubdomain and still appear as anysubdomain.domain.com. Is there anyone out there that convert this for me? <rewrite> <rules> <rule name="Subdomain Redirect" patternSyntax="ECMAScript" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="^(.*)$" /> <conditions trackAllCaptures="true"> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^www\.obdevsite\.com" negate="true" /> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^(.*)\.obdevsite\.com" /> <add input="{REQUEST_URI}" pattern="^(.*)$" /> </conditions> <action type="Rewrite" url="/{C:1}/{C:2}" appendQueryString="false" /> </rule> </rules> </rewrite>

    Read the article

  • Write out to text file using T-SQL

    - by sasfrog
    I am creating a basic data transfer task using TSQL where I am retrieving certain records from one database that are more recent than a given datetime value, and loading them into another database. This will happen periodically throughout the day. It's such a small task that SSIS seems like overkill - I want to just use a scheduled task which runs a .sql file. Where I need guidance is that I need to persist the datetime from the last run of this task, then use this to filter the records next time the task runs. My initial thought is to just store the datetime in a text file, and update (overwrite) it as part of the task each time it runs. I can read the file in without problems using T-SQL, but writing back out has got me stuck. I've seen plenty of examples which make use of a dynamically-built bcp command, which is then executed using xp_cmdshell. Trouble is, security on the server I'm deploying to precludes the use of xp_cmdshell. So, my question is, are there other ways to simply write a datetime value to a file using TSQL, or should I be thinking about a different approach? EDIT: happy to be corrected about SSIS being "overkill"...

    Read the article

  • How do I run an array through an IF statement in rails?

    - by codyvbrown
    I am creating an application that highlights user messages from a stream based on whether or not the user has been 'vouched'. It works fine if it's setup for a single author. For example controller: @vouch = Vouch.last.vouched_user_nickname view: <% Twitter::Search.new(params[:id]).each do |tweet| %> <li> <%= image_tag tweet.profile_image_url %> <% if @vouch.include? tweet.from_user %> <div class="flit_message_containerh"> <u> <a href="http://twitter.com/<%= tweet.from_user %>"> <%= tweet.from_user %></a></u> <%= linkup_mentions(auto_link(h tweet.text)) %> <div class="time_ago"> <%= link_to distance_of_time_in_words_to_now(tweet.created_at) , tweet %> <% else %> <div class="flit_message_container"> <u> <a href="http://twitter.com/<%= tweet.from_user %>"> <%= tweet.from_user %></a></u> <%= linkup_mentions(auto_link(h tweet.text)) %> <div class="time_ago"> <%= link_to distance_of_time_in_words_to_now(tweet.created_at) , tweet %> <% end %> But I'm having trouble doing it for multiple user nicknames. @vouch = Vouch.find(:all, :select => "vouched_user_nickname", :group => 'vouched_user_nickname' ) Any ideas would be greatly appreciated. I'm a rails noob.

    Read the article

  • jQuery - Moving background arrow in menu

    - by B M
    I would expect something like this to be pretty popular in demand but I had much trouble finding a suiting script. I've got a basic menu build like this: <div id="menu"> <ul> <li><a href="#"><img src="images/btn1.png"></a></li> <li><a href="#"><img src="images/btn2.png"></a></li> <li><a href="#"><img src="images/btn3.png"></a></li> </ul> </div> The div #menu has a background image of a small arrow. I want the arrow to move vertically in front of the corresponding menu image when you mouseover/mousemove the whole #menu div. Also when one of the menu images has been clicked the arrow should stay in it's position in front of the corresponding menu image. I started something but I notice it's going downwards, since it's only working when you're at the top of the page. What I have is this: $('#menu').css({backgroundPosition: '5px 10px'}); //Starting position $('#menu').mousemove(function(e){ $('#menu').stop().animate( {backgroundPosition: '5px ' + (e.pageY-60) + ' px'}, {duration:100} ) }).mouseout(function(){ $('#menu').stop().animate( {backgroundPosition: '5px 10px'}, {duration:100} ) }); Please help! ps. I'm using this plugin to move background images smoothly.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413 414 415 416 417  | Next Page >