Search Results

Search found 11313 results on 453 pages for 'ip aliasing'.

Page 411/453 | < Previous Page | 407 408 409 410 411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418  | Next Page >

  • BIND9 Forwarding by view

    - by Triztian
    Hi I think this is a simple issue, I'd like to forward only to certain IPs in the LAN network, for example I have 2 acl lists: acl "office1" { 192.168.1.15; // With internet access }; acl "production" { 192.168.1.101; // No internet access }; I know that there probably should be more efficient ways to restrict internet access, but at the moment this is what I'd like to try.Here's what I've tried in named.conf.local // Inlcude my acl definitions include "/etc/bind/acls.conf"; view "no-internet" { match-clients { production; }; include "/etc/bind/named.conf.default-zones"; zone "localdomain.com" { type master; file "/etc/bind/db.localdomain.com"; }; zone "1.168.192.in-addr.arpa" { type master; file "/etc/bind/db.192.168.1"; }; } view "internet" { match-clients { office1; }; include "/etc/bind/named.conf.default-zones"; forwarders { 201.56.59.14; // Made Up 201.56.59.15; // Made Up }; zone "localdomain.com" { type master; file "/etc/bind/db.localdomain.com"; }; zone "1.168.192.in-addr.arpa" { type master; file "/etc/bind/db.192.168.1"; }; }; As you can see I want a localdomain.com defined for every computer in my network and forward internet access to the computers in the office but not to the ones on the production floor. I've modified my conf file, however the IP in the "no-internet" acl is able to resolve the domains, even though I've rebooted the computer, flushed the DNS using ipconfig /flushdns and set my DNS Server as the only one, why is this still happening? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Asterisk relay between multiple subnets

    - by immoune
    I wonder what's the best way to go when you have phones on multiple networks which are not directly reachable. I have 3 networks 10.3.x.x 10.6.x.x 10.17.x.x My asterisk server resides on the 10.3.0.5 IP. The machines from the 10.6 and 10.17 networks are routed here through VPN tunnels. At this point we don't talk about NAT anywhere on the network just pure routing. Since the 10.3.0.5 PBX has routes back to all the subnet's it has no problem to communicate with softphones/hardphones from these ranges. The problem comes from that Asterisk (as far as I understand) only responsible for the SIP communication part not the Audio/Video transmission which is in P2P fashion done between the devices. So although a client using sipdroid from 10.6.x.x is able to connect to the pbx (10.3.0.5) and dial a bria client on the 10.17.x.x network once the phone rings out and the call establishes no audio will be transmitted simply because it has no way to directly connect there. For this there are multiple solutions described in this text: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee480411%28v=winembedded.60%29.aspx What I would prefer is to keep these networks segregated as they are now. What would be the best solution? Is it possible to actually relay through all the audio/video information through the Asterisk server? That would be the best in my case, I using Astlinux there which has a lot of other parts. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Query specific nameserver for a particular domain upon VPN connect

    - by MT
    Some background: I have a work laptop with Ubuntu 9.10 on it. I have a small network at home where I've been running some basic services (for myself/my family) for 10 some years. In my home network there is a nameserver (Fedora) running Bind 9 with two "views". One view is the "outside" view and it provides name resolution (to the Internet at large) for email, a wiki, and a couple of blogs. The "inside" view provides name resolution (to the internal RFC1918 addresses of theses servers) as well as all the inside hosts, network equipment, ...etc. I connect with an openvpn client to my home network from outside (such as work). What I'd like to be able to do is resolve names on my internal network across this VPN (so I get the RFC1918 "inside" responses) without fully changing my resolver to the DNS server at my hose. For example, if I connect to the VPN from work, I can change my resolver (by editing resolv.conf) to the DNS server at my house (across the VPN) and then successfully resolve all of the inside DNS names on my home network. The issue I have with this is that now I'm no longer able to resolve "inside" names provided by my work's DNS servers (because I'm using my home DNS server). Alternatively, I can connect to the VPN and access my home severs via IP addresses directly, but this is inconvenient and causes issues with Apache name-based hosting (among other things). In the end, the effect I'm trying to achieve is as follows: When I connect to the VPN I automatically start sending DNS requests for *.myhomedomain.com to my home nameserver, but any other requests continue to go the the nameserver I was using before (the one I received on my company LAN via DHCP). When I disconnect the VPN, requests for *.myhomedomain.com go back to the local LAN DNS server (e.g. all requests are going there now). I'm looking for suggestion at to how this can be accomplished.

    Read the article

  • Apache: Setting up local test server with subdomains

    - by RC
    Hi everyone, I have XAMPP running on my desktop machine, and I do all my work on it with no issue. http://localhost ---> points to public_html http://site1.localhost ---> points to site 1 http://site2.localhost ---> points to site 2 http://site3.localhost ---> points to site 3 Entering the above URLs in my web browser on the machine with Apache works great, and I can work on multiple sites within distinct subdomains. But what I want to do now is to transfer Apache and all the files to another Windows 7 machine within the LAN, but still be able to view the subdomains from my main development machine. With a vanilla XAMPP installation on the new hosting machine, entering the IP address of that machine (e.g. 192.168.1.10) into my development computer would send me to the main public_html folder. But how do I set up subdomains such that I can access it externally? For example, http://site1.devmachine Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

  • No access to Windows 2003 admin shares

    - by ARomo
    This is the environment: Several Win 2003 SP 2 servers and several Win XP SP2 & SP3 clients. All in the same LAN. Firewall is disabled everywhere. No recent Windows updates or configuration changes. This is the problem: Since last Thursday, I log on to any other server or workstation as any regular (non-admin) user and I fail to be able to open ADMIN SHARES ONLY (namely \\server1\c$, \\server1\e$ and \\server1\admin$). The error message is: "\server1\c$ is not accessible. You might not have permission to use this network resource. Contact the administrator of this server to find out if you have access permissions. Multiple connections to a server or shared resource by the same user, using more than one user name, are not allowed. Disconnect all previous connections to the server or shared resource and try again." I can, however, open the same shares if I use FQDN or IP address: \\server1.domain.local\c$ \\172.0.0.1\c$ Other shares do not have this issue and I can open them without any issue. Any ideas or suggestion would be truly appreciated. Thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • ASA 5505 VPN setup. VPN works but still unable to reach devices in the inside network.

    - by chickenloop
    I've setup a Remote Access VPN on my Cisco ASA 5505. I'm able to connect to my ASA via my phone or the Cisco client, but I'm unable to reach devices in my inside LAN when connected via VPN. The setup is the following: Inside Network : 10.0.0.0/24 VPN_POOL: 172.16.0.0/24 Outside Network: 192.168.1.0/24 ASA is not the perimeter router, there is another device on the 192.168.1.0/24 network which is connected to my cable provider. Obviously UDP port 500 and 4500 are forwarded to the ASA's outside interface. Everything works perfectly, besides the VPN stuff. Config: interface Vlan1 nameif inside security-level 100 ip address 10.0.0.254 255.255.255.0 interface Vlan2 description Outside Interface nameif outside security-level 0 address 192.168.1.254 255.255.255.0 object network VPNPOOL subnet 172.16.0.0 255.255.255.0 object network INSIDE_LAN subnet 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 Then the exempt NAT rule. nat (inside,outside) source static INSIDE_LAN INSIDE_LAN destination static VPNPOOL VPNPOOL I don't think that the problem is with the VPN config, as I can successfully establish the VPN connection, but just in case I post it here: group-policy ZSOCA_ASA internal group-policy ZSOCA_ASA attributes vpn-tunnel-protocol ikev1 split-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified split-tunnel-network-list value Split-Tunnel default-domain value default.domain.invalid tunnel-group ZSOCA_ASA type remote-access tunnel-group ZSOCA_ASA general-attributes address-pool VPNPOOL default-group-policy ZSOCA_ASA tunnel-group ZSOCA_ASA ipsec-attributes ikev1 pre-shared-key ***** Any ideas are welcome. Regards.

    Read the article

  • IPtables and Remote Desktop with Proxy

    - by Sebastian
    So I setup a windows 2008 web server R2 on VirtualBox. Currently using Bridged Network. I can remote desktop to the machine hosting the VM (10.0.0.183) but cannot remote desktop to the VM itself (10.0.0.195). The remote port on the VM set to 5003. VM setup to accept remote connections (windows side). We also use a proxy for our internet, and I added these rules under NAT. (centOS 5) on our proxy box. -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 3389 -j ACCEPT -A REROUTING -i ppp0 -p tcp --dport 3389 -j REDIRECT --to-port 5003 -A FORWARD -d 10.0.0.195 --dport 5003 -m state --state NEW,ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT I've been trying for hours and hours and just cannot get it to work. I also used freedns so that we can use a domain name to connect too this VM over the internet. (the DNS points to our external IP address). If we don't get this right we will have to purchase a PPoE from an ISP to connect to this VM remotely, but I know that there is an alternative route if I can just get this port forwarding right!

    Read the article

  • Incorrect Internal DNS Resolution

    - by user167016
    I'm having a DNS issue. Server 2008 R2. The first clue was that after being off the network for a month, I could no longer Remote Desktop into my workstation by name, it wouldn't find it. Both via VPN and internally. But if I connect using its IP, that works. Now I notice in the server's Share and Storage Management, in Manage Sessions, it's displaying the incorrect computer name for some users. So I try, for one example: Ping -a 192.168.16.81 Pinging BOBS_COMPUTER.ourdomain.local [192.168.16.81] with 32 bytes of data: - replies all successful Then I try Ping RICHARDS_COMPUTER Pinging RICHARDS_COMPUTER.ourdomain.local [192.168.16.81] with 32 bytes of data: -all replies successful In DHCP, .81 belongs to RICHARDS_COMPUTER I did try flushdns. Not sure if this is related, apologies if it's not, but when I try to connect, I also get prompted: "The identity of the remote computer cannot be verified. Do you want to connect anyway? The remote computer could not be authenticated due to problems with its security certificate. It may be unsafe to proceed.." It then lists the correct name as the name in the certificate from the remote computer, but claims that the certificate is not from a trusted authority. Any thoughts are most appreciated!

    Read the article

  • iptables rules to allow HTTP traffic to one domain only

    - by Zenet
    I need to configure my machine as to allow HTTP traffic to/from serverfault.com only. All other websites, services ports are not accessible. I came up with these iptables rules: #drop everything iptables -P INPUT DROP iptables -P OUTPUT DROP #Now, allow connection to website serverfault.com on port 80 iptables -A OUTPUT -p tcp -d serverfault.com --dport 80 -j ACCEPT iptables -A INPUT -m conntrack --ctstate ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT #allow loopback iptables -I INPUT 1 -i lo -j ACCEPT It doesn't work quite well: After I drop everything, and move on to rule 3: iptables -A OUTPUT -p tcp -d serverfault.com --dport 80 -j ACCEPT I get this error: iptables v1.4.4: host/network `serverfault.com' not found Try `iptables -h' or 'iptables --help' for more information. Do you think it is related to DNS? Should I allow it as well? Or should I just put IP addresses in the rules? Do you think what I'm trying to do could be achieved with simpler rules? How? I would appreciate any help or hints on this. Thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • Can't Ping - Wireless network of home

    - by Naunidh
    Hello, This may seem like other ping problem, but I have tried a lot before posting it here. I have a linksys WRT54G - firmware v8.00.8. I have two laptops one windows vista (192.168.1.99) and Windows Xp (192.168.1.13) connected on WiFi . The Router's IP address is 192.168.1.4, and default gateway is the ADSL modem (192.168.1.1) connected through wire. The problem is that laptops can not ping each other, they can ping the gateway and the linksys router, and both can access internet. Following has been tried (I am pinging from XP machine to Vista): I saw that arp entires for Vista machines were not being populated, so I added static ARP entries. 192.168.1.99 00-19-7e-70-d0-4e static I checked on ethereal that an ICMP packet for MAC address of Vista machine does go out from XP machine towards the Vista machine, but never reaches the Vista machine. So its get eaten by the Router? I added Vista machine to DMZ in my linksys router, so that all the ports are open (In case it was an issue). Firewalls , antivirus etc were turned off, echo was enabled explicitly on vista, file sharing, network discovery were turned on. Network type was set to private. Unchecked everything in Router;s firewall, even though they are only meant for WAN requests. Is there anything else that I should try. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Linux: Three default gateways?

    - by Daniel
    My server has three default gateways, how can that be? Shouldn't there be one default gw? I have three NICs, each attached to a separate subnet: server1:~# route Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 10.5.0.0 * 255.255.255.224 U 0 0 0 eth3 localnet * 255.255.255.224 U 0 0 0 eth0 192.168.8.0 * 255.255.255.192 U 0 0 0 eth1 default 10.5.0.1 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 eth3 default 192.168.8.1 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 eth1 default 10.1.0.1 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 eth0 Sometimes, I can't ping a host on the Internet, sometimes I can. What I want is traffic to the Internet (0.0.0.0) routed through a specific NIC. Can I just add a route for 0.0.0.0 and default gw to one of the eth0-3 interfaces? Will it break my connection? I'm using Debian, here is my /etc/network/interfaces: # This file describes the network interfaces available on your system # and how to activate them. For more information, see interfaces(5). # The loopback network interface auto lo iface lo inet loopback # The primary network interface allow-hotplug eth0 iface eth0 inet static address 10.1.0.4 netmask 255.255.255.224 network 10.1.0.0 broadcast 10.1.0.31 gateway 10.1.0.1 allow-hotplug eth1 iface eth1 inet static address 192.168.8.4 netmask 255.255.255.192 network 192.168.8.0 broadcast 192.168.8.63 gateway 192.168.8.1 allow-hotplug eth3 iface eth3 inet static address 10.5.0.4 netmask 255.255.255.224 network 10.5.0.0 broadcast 10.5.0.31 gateway 10.5.0.1

    Read the article

  • Service redirection on same network

    - by Unode
    I have a network on which I run multiple servers each dedicated to a given service. Because most services run on distinct ports I'm currently looking for a way of unifying "all" services into a single "proxy" machine. The idea is to abstract which machine is being accessed but still allow direct connection if needed/requested. This "proxy" machine has only one network interface which is part of the same network as all the other service providing machines. I've looked into Routing and NAT but I've so far failed to figure out how to make it work. I tried to achieve this using shorewall but couldn't find clear examples. However I'm not entirely sure this is the best/simplest strategy. With that said, what would be the best way of achieving this result? Example case: Proxy IP - Listening port - Send requests to 192.168.0.50 80 192.168.0.1:80 " 22 192.168.0.2:2222 " 3306 192.168.0.3:3000 " 5432 192.168.0.4:5432 " 5222 192.168.0.5:5222 PS: I'm not concerned with the single-point-of-failure nature of the proxy. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Passenger and ServerAlias not cooperating

    - by Pyzo
    I have a ruby application that runs on a server with multiple IP addresses and mutliple vhosts. Here is the configuration of the problematic virtual host: <VirtualHost 10.0.0.10:80> ServerName realname.example.com ServerAlias alias.example.com DocumentRoot /var/www/sites/example/current/public <Directory /var/www/sites/example/current/public> AllowOverride all Options -MultiViews </Directory> ErrorLog /var/log/httpd/example_error_log CustomLog /var/log/httpd/example_access_log common RailsEnv production RackEnv production </VirtualHost> When I pull up realname.example.com the Ruby on Rails application works correctly. On the other hand alias.example.com just gives me Not Found: / I'm fairly certain the correct vhost is getting used because alias.example.com produces a 404 in the correct log file. I've tried adding logging to the Passenger config and it seems to indicate that Passenger is getting the request. Note: I can't redirect alias.example.com to realname.example.com. realname is accessed using a CDN, whereas alias is directly accessed. Anyone have any ideas why this isn't working? I've been banging my head for days and I've got a similar configuration in QA that works as expected.

    Read the article

  • Duplicate forwarded messages in Blackberry when using BIS

    - by Avery Payne
    Our Setup External email arrives at a Postfix server, is scanned, and then forwarded via settings in transport (using the RELAY:[{ip-address}] for a given address) to an Exchange 2007 server. Some users are on Exchange, but a few are still on the Postfix server (they will be moved in the near future). IMAPS is provided for external connections via Dovecot; in-house, IMAP is provided for the Gateway and native MAPI is used for Exchange/Outlook. Blackberries are connected via BIS, which uses Dovecot as a reverse-proxy IMAPS service to connect to Exchange (when the mailbox exists on Exchange, otherwise it connects to the mailbox on the gateway). The Issue We have a user that, when they forward an email on their Outlook client, they get a duplicate of the original message on their Blackberry. When I say duplicate, I mean that they have a copy of the forwarded version of the message (i.e. their version of the message that they obtained hitting the forward button), and a copy of the original message that shows up at the same time. The expected behavior is to just see the forwarded message, not the forwarded message and a 2nd copy of the original message. We've only seen this with Outlook users that also have a Blackberry. Other IMAP clients, such as OS X Mail or Thunderbird, do not exhibit this behavior when connecting to the Exchange server; forwarded messages work as expected. The Questions what is causing this to happen? why does it only affect Outlook/Blackberry setups, and not TBird/Blackberry or OSX-Mail/Blackberry? how do we get it to stop, before people go insane and never forward messages again?

    Read the article

  • using virtual machine like mySql server

    - by ffmm
    i'm developing a java program and i need a database. Now i'm using MAMP and it's pretty easy but i would have a virtual machine (ubuntu server) and i need to connect my java program with this virtual machine using vitualBox. the situation: I installed VirtualBox on my mac and I installed an ubuntu-server machine set "bridge adapter" in the network settings of VB I installed mysql on ubuntu-server and i created a simple database (all work well by ubuntu) doing ifconfig by ubuntu I get the ip: 192.168.1.217 so in the java program i made this function: public static Connection connect(String host, int port, String dbName, String user, String passwd) { Connection dbConnection = null; try { String dbString = null; Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); dbString = "jdbc:mysql://" + host + ":" + port + "/" + dbName; dbConnection = DriverManager.getConnection(dbString, user, passwd); } catch (Exception e) { System.err.println("Failed to connect with the DB"); e.printStackTrace(); } return dbConnection; } and in the main() i use: Connection con = connect(1, "192.168.1.217", 3306, "Ciao", "root", "cocacola"); 3306 was a default value. I don't know if is correct, it works on mamp, but…. how I can find the correct port that I have to use with VB? when I ran the program I get the catch excepion… what's wrong? ps: i have to install apache o something else?

    Read the article

  • Cisco 7206vxr cpu reducing

    - by naimson
    I have a 7206VXR (NPE-G2) . At the rate of 140 kpps i gain 80% of cpu . So i looking for ways how to reduce it? So i want to turn off netflow(but don't want to this,monitoring is highly important for me), but it will give me only 10-20% ? At this moment with 84kpps i have 58% sh processes cpu sorted give me this. PID Runtime(ms) Invoked uSecs 5Sec 1Min 5Min TTY Process 109 163534600 537236763 304 35.38% 32.83% 16.85% 0 IP Input 67 829396 52280 15864 0.15% 0.01% 0.00% 0 Per-minute Jobs 68 5542736 3053476 1815 0.15% 0.18% 0.16% 0 Per-Second Jobs 51 635852 1116315 569 0.07% 0.03% 0.02% 0 Net Background 329 120396 4607274 26 0.07% 0.00% 0.00% 0 EIGRP-IPv4 Hello 105 50508 95032488 0 0.07% 0.05% 0.05% 0 IPAM Manager 6 4068580 476916 8531 0.00% 0.07% 0.05% 0 Check heaps 7 7768 3634 2137 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 Pool Manager 8 0 1 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 DiscardQ Backgro 10 8 708 11 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 WATCH_AFS 5 0 1 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 RO Notify Timers 12 0 2 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 ATM VC Auto Crea 9 0 2 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 Timers 11 0 2 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 ATM AutoVC Perio 13 296 610532 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 IPC Event Notifi 16 0 1 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 IPC Zone Manager 17 3584 2980311 1 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 IPC Periodic Tim 4 0 1 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 EDDRI_MAIN 19 0 1 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 IPC Process leve 20 0 1 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 IPC Seat Manager 21 96 174453 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 IPC Check Queue 14 4 50890 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 IPC Dynamic Cach 3 0 1 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 cpf_process_tpQ 24 756 305371 2 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 IPC Keep Alive M 25 2340 610561 3 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 IPC Loadometer 22 0 1 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 IPC Seat RX Cont 15 0 1 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 IPC Session Serv 18 1620 2980310 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 IPC Deferred Por 29 0 1 0 0.00% 0.00% 0.00% 0 Exception contro sh run(greped): http://pastie.org/5483194 Hardware: c7200p-adventerprisek9-mz.151-4.M1.bin Cisco 7206VXR (NPE-G2) processor (revision A) with 917504K/65536K bytes of memory. Processor board ID 2xxxxxxx MPC7448 CPU at 1666Mhz, Implementation 0, Rev 2.2 6 slot VXR midplane, Version 2.1

    Read the article

  • Tunnell network requests with Windows 7

    - by mark
    I've Windows 7 64bit Pro client in a private LAN behind a Netgear wgr614v7 router. I've also a remote Debian server machine outside. I'd like to tunnel all (or specified ports/protocols) over this outside server, so when I'm on the Windows machine and I request serverfault.com it would not appear from the wgr614v7 public IP but from the server. But it's not only about HTTP traffic, it's basically about everything I'd like to: other TCP ports, even UDP, etc. It must be transparent to the application, e.g. they shouldn't be aware of this. All their requests just appear as being from the server and the tunnel between them takes care about the packets. I'm aware of e.g. Putty and forwarding individual ports or using it as a socks proxy, however not many applications to support this and the support in windows itself looks non-existent to me. I might add it should be something "reasonable" easy to set up. I've heard about PPTP but I'm unsure about it's security implications (by design). Should I go for VPN? There seem to be two common solutions for Linux (OpenSwan and StrongSwan), why would I pick the one over the other? I also fear that setting up a VPN might be quite complex, OTOH maybe it's the only sane way to do the things right? Or is OpenVPN sufficient? I'm seeking for open (source) solutions, what other options to I have or which direction should I head to?

    Read the article

  • Set document root for external subdomain (A Record) via htaccess

    - by 1nsane
    I have a managed server (unable to control apache settings) with the default document root of: /var/www I have a web app running in: /var/www/subdomains/app/webroot I have a dedicated domain managed by the host that has the aforementioned webroot which works perfectly. I would like to allow externally provisioned domains to point to the server/web app via A Record config. If I access the site via IP, it takes me to the index located in /var/www. I would like to configure the .htaccess in my /var/www directory to rewrite requests from the external subdomain to the /var/www/subdomains/app/webroot directory. I've done so using the following rules: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} external\.domain\.com$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /var/www/subdomains/app/webroot/index.php?url=$1 [L,QSA] When accessing external.domain.com, the app loads properly, but the paths to things like CSS files, images, etc. are prefixed with "/subdomains/app/", causing broken links. I've tried changing the RewriteBase (both in /var/www and /var/www/subdomains/app/webroot), as I believe that's what it's designed for - but no luck. Any ideas? FYI the app is built on CakePHP. Thanks

    Read the article

  • SMTP Server setting on Windows 2008 R2

    - by user223298
    I am very very new to this and just trying to configure SMTP virtual server. I have followed a few threads to get it all running, but the mails are not being delivered. What I have done so far - 1) Install SMTP server. 2) SMTP server Properties General Tab - IP address is set to 'All Unassigned'. Access Tab - Authentication is anonymous access. Everything else is left to Default settings. Delivery Tab - Outbound security is anonymous access. In Advance section, entered the domain name in the FQDN field, and localhost in Smart host field. 3) Created an Inbound Rule for SMTP service to allow connections to Port 25. When I try to telnet, everything works up until the point the mail has to be send. Now, the sender's domain is different to the receiver's domain. Not sure if settings have to be changed to allow that? I had set the Relay restrictions on SMTP server, but because I couldn't send the mails, I thought I might as well make it work without the relay first. The error I see while sending the mail is 451 Timeout waiting for client input. I used to get some other error before when I had Relay restrictions on. Can anyone please point me in the right direction? Please let me know if you need more information. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Remote Desktop connection to vista vs. xp

    - by CMP
    I am trying to log into my work computer remotely. I am using Windows 7 on my laptop. I have created a vpn connection to the network, and I am doing a remote desktop connection directly to the ip of my box (192.168.xxx.yyy). If I do a remote connection to a different box, running xp, it goes into remote desktop mode immediately and I see the windows login dialog as I am used to seeing. If I try remoting to my box, which is running vista, I do not see the remote desktop mode, but an additional dialog on my local machine asking for my credentials. It defaults in my local username. It allows me to log in as a different user, but the domain it has is still my local domain, not my work domain, so none of my usernames or passwords work. There doesn't appear to be a way to change the domain. Trying to hit several more boxes, it appears to act differently on xp and vista target machines. I feel like this must be a configuration issue, but I am not sure what the problem is. Any idea on how I can connect?

    Read the article

  • cannot connect to my nginx server from remote machine

    - by margincall
    I thought that it's iptables problem.. but it seems not. I really have no idea about this situation. I'm getting a server hosting(CentOS). I installed Nginx + Django and nginx uses 8080 port. A domain is connected to the server. When I executed "wget [domain]:8080/[app name]/" in the server, it worked. Of course, "wget 127.0.0.1:8080/[app name]/" has no problem. (wget [server ip]:8080/[app name]/, either) However, from other computers, connecting was failed. (message says, no route) I checked my firewall setting. I excuted these commands. iptables -I INPUT -p tcp --dport 8080 -j ACCEPT iptables -I OUTPUT -p tcp --sport 8080 -j ACCEPT iptables -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -m state --state NEW -m tcp -p tcp --dport 8080 -j ACCEPT /etc/init.d/iptables restart I don't really understand all options of commands and I think there were useless commands, but I just tried all googled iptables settings. But still I cannot connect to my server. What should I check, first? I don't know this is important, but add to this post. On 80 port, an apache server is running. It works fine, I can connect to apache from other computers. There is DB connecting issue, (PHP to MySQL) but I think that it is just PHP coding bug. please excuse my low-level English. I'm not native English speaker.. but I tried to explane well as far as possible. Thank you for reading this question.

    Read the article

  • Setting up a server that routes local traffic through vpn, while still being able to access internet directly

    - by Kazuo
    The goal is to setup a local server that routes local traffic through an uncontrolled remote vpn service while still being able to access the internet directly (not tunneled via vpn) and provide services through that direct connection. It is supposed to look like this: http://i.stack.imgur.com/74dGC.png Note: There is another router with modem between the local server and the internet. What is the easiest (best?) way to get this network setup working? I'm planning to setup the connection between the local router and the local server with simple ip forwarding. The problem now is that all the server's traffic is routed through the vpn tunnel as soon as I connect the server's openvpn client to the remote service so there is no direct internet connection available. My first idea was to setup a virtual machine (lxc container or something) and run the vpn client and local networking stuff in the vm. So that the vm receives all the incoming traffic from the local router and tunnels it through the vpn. This, as far as I understand, should not affect the physical server's network connection and should allow it to provide services to the internet. Before I start trying to set this up (I don't have much experience in networking), is there any easier or better way to do this? I would be thankful for every suggestion. Edit: Let's say the interface connected to the internet is eth0 and the interface connected to the local router is eth1. Another idea would be to create a virtual interface eth0:0 and specifiy it as openvpn's local endpoint and then force any traffic coming from eth1 through eth0:0. I'm not sure how I would force the traffic through eth0:0, though (possibly by adding routes).

    Read the article

  • How to securely control access to a backend key server?

    - by andy
    I need to securely encrypt data in my database so that if the database is dumped, hackers are unable to decrypt the data. I'm planning on creating a simple key server on a different machine, and allowing the DB server access to it (restricted by IP address on the key server to permit the DB server). The key server would contain the key required to encrypt/decrypt data. However, if a hacker were able to get a shell on the DB server, they could request the key from the key server and therefore decrypt the data in the database. How could I prevent this (assuming all firewalls are in place, DB is not connected directly to the internet, etc)? i.e. is there some method I could use that could secure a request from the DB server to the key server so that even if a hacker had a shell on the DB server they'd be unable to make those same requests? Signed requests from the DB server could make issuing these requests less trivial - I suppose that'd help increase the amount of time it'd take to compromise the key server, something a hacker probably wouldn't have much of. As far as I can see, if someone can get a shell on the DB server everything's lost anyway. This could be mitigated by using one key per data item in the DB so at least there's not a single "master" key, but multiple keys that the hacker would need to access. What would be a secure method of ensuring requests from the DB server to the key server were authentic and could be trusted?

    Read the article

  • How to stop split tunnelling over cisco VPN (OS X)?

    - by Notre
    I'm using OS X (Snow Leopard) and the built in Cisco IP Sec client to connect to my corporate VPN. Currently, everything works as designed, and desired for most people. However, I would like to be able to funnel all traffic (particularly all web browser traffic) through the VPN. (Note - I'm an end user here, not the network administrator). Is this possible? In searching around, most people are looking to do the opposite; break out the VPN and enable split tunnelling of data. I'd like to avoid the split tunnelling. Is there some setting I can make in my OS X client to make this happen? I ran across a post where routing table changes are made to force split tunnelling: how to force split tunnel routing on mac -> cisco vpn I'm thinking something similar to that might work, but I'm not a networking expert so I'm not sure where to start (or if it is even possible). Thank you! Notre

    Read the article

  • MySQL InnoDB/socket issue on Mac OS X 10.6.4

    - by user55217
    I have an ongoing issue on my Macbook Pro OS X 10.6.4. Intermittently, my MySQL install will not create a socket on startup. Rebooting sometimes, but not always, solves the problem. Deleting the ib* files in /usr/local/mysql/data and then restarting sometimes, but not always, solves the problem. My error logs tell me the following: Plugin InnoDB init function returned error Plugin InnoDB registration as a STORAGE ENGINE failed Can't start server: Bind on TCP/IP port: Address already in use Do you already have another mysqld server running on port: 3306? Aborting It then appears to attempt to start again and generates this error 20 - 30 times: Unable to lock ./ibdata1, error 35 Check that you do not already have another mysqld process using the same InnoDB data or log files Though the socket file is not created, I can connect to my MySQL db directly over localhost. Although, this does not help me from a PHP standpoint. Any thoughts on what I can do to resolve the issue or debug further? I'm at a loss as to where to go from here.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 407 408 409 410 411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418  | Next Page >