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  • Paging & Sorting grids with ASP.Net MVC

    - by Scott Ivey
    I'm new to MVC, and am not following how you'd do paging and sorting on a grid. I'm used to using the asp.Net GridView control with an ObjectDataSource pointed at objects in our business layer - and in that case the ODS handles all of the paging & sorting using the methods that our ORM generates on the objects. I've looked at using the same ORM with MVC - and things work out fine there - i just loop thru the collections to build the table on the page - but without the ODS to handle the paging & sorting, i'm confused as to how I'd handle that. Would I have a separate controller for the paging and sorting? I'm not sure what the best practices are for this scenario, so if someone can point me in the right direction it would be much appreciated. Edit: Ok, so I understand that I need to roll my own - but where do I start? I've created a CustomerController, and a view that displays a table of customers that looks like below - and I want to sort on FirstName or LastName columns. My Model has a Sort() method on it that'll take a string sort expression in the format that would be used by a GridView/ODS pair. Would I create a new Action on my CustomerController called Sort, and put an ActionLink in my header? <table> <tr> <th> First Name </th> <th> Last Name </th> </tr> <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <tr> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.FirstName) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.LastName) %> </td> </tr> <% } %> </table>

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  • C++ game designing & polymorphism question

    - by Kotti
    Hi! I'm trying to implement some sort of 'just-for-me' game engine and the problem's plot goes the following way: Suppose I have some abstract interface for a renderable entity, e.g. IRenderable. And it's declared the following way: interface IRenderable { // (...) // Suppose that Backend is some abstract backend used // for rendering, and it's implementation is not important virtual void Render(Backend& backend) = 0; }; What I'm doing right now is something like declaring different classes like class Ball : public IRenderable { virtual void Render(Backend& backend) { // Rendering implementation, that is specific for // the Ball object // (...) } }; And then everything looks fine. I can easily do something like std::vector<IRenderable*> items, push some items like new Ball() in this vector and then make a call similiar to foreach (IRenderable* in items) { item->Render(backend); } Ok, I guess it is the 'polymorphic' way, but what if I want to have different types of objects in my game and an ability to manipulate their state, where every object can be manipulated via it's own interface? I could do something like struct GameState { Ball ball; Bonus bonus; // (...) }; and then easily change objects state via their own methods, like ball.Move(...) or bonus.Activate(...), where Move(...) is specific for only Ball and Activate(...) - for only Bonus instances. But in this case I lose the opportunity to write foreach IRenderable* simply because I store these balls and bonuses as instances of their derived, not base classes. And in this case the rendering procedure turns into a mess like ball.Render(backend); bonus.Render(backend); // (...) and it is bad because we actually lose our polymorphism this way (no actual need for making Render function virtual, etc. The other approach means invoking downcasting via dynamic_cast or something with typeid to determine the type of object you want to manipulate and this looks even worse to me and this also breaks this 'polymorphic' idea. So, my question is - is there some kind of (probably) alternative approach to what I want to do or can my current pattern be somehow modified so that I would actually store IRenderable* for my game objects (so that I can invoke virtual Render method on each of them) while preserving the ability to easily change the state of these objects? Maybe I'm doing something absolutely wrong from the beginning, if so, please point it out :) Thanks in advance!

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  • SQL Invalid Object Name 'AddressType'

    - by salvationishere
    I am getting the above error in my VS 2008 C# method when I try to invoke the SQL getColumnNames stored procedure from VS. This SP accepts one input parameter, the table name, and works successfully from SSMS. Currently I am selecting the AdventureWorks AddressType table for it to pull the column names from this table. I can see teh AdventureWorks table available in VS from my Server Explorer / Data Connection. And I see both the AddressType table and getColumnNames SP showing in Server Explorer. But I am still getting this error listed above. Here is the C# code snippet I use to execute this: public static DataTable DisplayTableColumns(string tt) { SqlDataReader dr = null; string TableName = tt; string connString = "Data Source=.;AttachDbFilename=\"C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL10.MSSQLSERVER\MSSQL\DATA\AdventureWorks_Data.mdf\";Initial Catalog=AdventureWorks;Integrated Security=True;Connect Timeout=30;User Instance=False"; string errorMsg; SqlConnection conn2 = new SqlConnection(connString); SqlCommand cmd = conn2.CreateCommand(); try { cmd.CommandText = "dbo.getColumnNames"; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.Connection = conn2; SqlParameter parm = new SqlParameter("@TableName", SqlDbType.VarChar); parm.Value = TableName; parm.Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; cmd.Parameters.Add(parm); conn2.Open(); dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); } catch (Exception ex) { errorMsg = ex.Message; } And when I examine the errorMsg it says the following: " at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Run(RunBehavior runBehavior, SqlCommand cmdHandler, SqlDataReader dataStream, BulkCopySimpleResultSet bulkCopyHandler, TdsParserStateObject stateObj)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.ConsumeMetaData()\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.get_MetaData()\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.FinishExecuteReader(SqlDataReader ds, RunBehavior runBehavior, String resetOptionsString)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReaderTds(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, Boolean async)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method, DbAsyncResult result)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior behavior, String method)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteReader()\r\n at ADONET_namespace.ADONET_methods.DisplayTableColumns(String tt) in C:\Documents and Settings\Admin\My Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\AddFileToSQL\AddFileToSQL\ADONET methods.cs:line 35" Where line 35 is dr = cmd.ExecuteReader();

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  • UITableView: Mixing static and dynamic cells

    - by AlexR
    I am trying to mix dynamic and static cells in a grouped table view: I would like to get two sections with static cells at the top followed by a section of dynamic cells (please refer to the screenshot below). I have set the table view contents to static cells. I designed the static cells in Interface Builder and gave them identifiers related to their section and row: "section0static0", "section0static1", "section1static0" and "section1static1". I named the dynamic cell "section2dynamic". My delegate methods, in which I am trying to return the correct cell identifier (static or dynamic) are as follows: - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { switch (section) { case 0: return 2; break; case 1: return 2; break; case 2: return 0; break; default: break; } return 0; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @""; if (indexPath.section <= 1) CellIdentifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"section%istatic%i",indexPath.section,indexPath.row]; else CellIdentifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"section%idynamic",indexPath.section]; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier forIndexPath:indexPath]; return cell; } Edit Based on AppleFreak's advice I have changed my code as follows: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell; if (indexPath.section <= 1) { // section <= 1 indicates static cells cell = [super tableView:tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath]; } else { // section > 1 indicates dynamic cells CellIdentifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"section%idynamic",indexPath.section]; cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier forIndexPath:indexPath]; } return cell; } However, my app crashes with error message Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'UITableView dataSource must return a cell from tableView:cellForRowAtIndexPath:' for section 0 and row 0. The cell returned from cell = [super tableView:tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath] for section 0 and row 0 is nil. What is wrong with my code? Could there be any problems with my outlets? I haven't set any outlets because I am subclassing UITableViewController and supposedly do not any outlets for tableview to be set (?). Any suggestions on how to better do it?

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  • Unable to read data from the transport connection: the connection was closed

    - by webdreamer
    The exception is Remoting Exception - Authentication Failure. The detailed message says "Unable to read data from the transport connection: the connection was closed." I'm having trouble with creating two simple servers that can comunicate as remote objects in C#. ServerInfo is just a class I created that holds the IP and Port and can give back the address. It works fine, as I used it before, and I've debugged it. Also the server is starting just fine, no exception is thrown, and the channel is registered without problems. I'm using Forms to do the interfaces, and call some of the methods on the server, but didn't find any problems in passing the parameters from the FormsApplication to the server when debugging. All seems fine in that chapter. public ChordServerProgram() { RemotingServices.Marshal(this, "PADIBook"); nodeInt = 0; } public void startServer() { try { serverChannel = new TcpChannel(serverInfo.Port); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(serverChannel, true); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } I run two instances of this program. Then startNode is called on one of the instances of the application. The port is fine, the address generated is fine as well. As you can see, I'm using the IP for localhost, since this server is just for testing purposes. public void startNode(String portStr) { IPAddress address = IPAddress.Parse("127.0.0.1"); Int32 port = Int32.Parse(portStr); serverInfo = new ServerInfo(address, port); startServer(); //node = new ChordNode(serverInfo,this); } Then, in the other istance, through the interface again, I call another startNode method, giving it a seed server to get information from. This is where it goes wrong. When it calls the method on the seedServer proxy it just got, a RemotingException is thrown, due to an authentication failure. (The parameter I'll want to get is the node, I'm just using the int to make sure the ChordNode class has nothing to do with this error.) public void startNode(String portStr, String seedStr) { IPAddress address = IPAddress.Parse("127.0.0.1"); Int32 port = Int32.Parse(portStr); serverInfo = new ServerInfo(address, port); IPAddress addressSeed = IPAddress.Parse("127.0.0.1"); Int32 portSeed = Int32.Parse(seedStr); ServerInfo seedInfo = new ServerInfo(addressSeed, portSeed); startServer(); ChordServerProgram seedServer = (ChordServerProgram)Activator.GetObject(typeof(ChordServerProgram), seedInfo.GetFullAddress()); // node = new ChordNode(serverInfo,this); int seedNode = seedServer.nodeInt; // node.chordJoin(seedNode.self); }

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  • jQuery Validation Plugin: Packer undefined error?

    - by Rosarch
    I'm using the jQuery validation plugin from bassistance.de. It works fine. From <head>: <script type="text/javascript" src="/static/JQuery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/static/js-lib/jquery.validate.pack.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/static/js-lib/jquery.validate.additional-methods.js"></script> At first, this was the only validation code I had, and it worked: $("form").validate(); $("#form-username").rules("add", { required: true, email: true, }); It was validating this HTML: <form id="form-username-form" action="api/user_of_email" method="get"> <p> <label for="form-username">Email:</label> <input type="text" name="email" id="form-username" /> <input type="submit" value="Submit" id="form-submit" /> </p> </form> Great, everything works. But then I add this JS: $("#form-choose-options input[type='text']").rules("add", { number: true, }); to validate this markup: <form id="form-choose-options" action="api/set_options" method="get"> <p> <label for="form-min-credits">Min credits per term:</label><input type="text" name="min_credits" id="form-min-credits" /> <br /> <label for="form-optimal-credits">Optimal credits per term:</label><input type="text" name="optimal_credits" id="form-optimal-credits" /> <br /> <label for="form-max-credits">Max credits per term:</label><input type="text" name="max_credits" id="form-max-credits" /> <br /> <label for="form-low-GPA">Lowest acceptable GPA:</label><input type="text" name="low_GPA" id="form-low-GPA" /> <br /> <label for="form-high-GPA">Highest realistic GPA:</label><input type="text" name="high_GPA" id="form-high-GPA" /> <br /> <input type="hidden" class="user-pk" name="pk"/> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </p> </form> This causes a javascript error on document load: $.data(f.form, "validator") is undefined The error is from the packer function. What am I doing wrong?

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  • How do I create/use a Fluent NHibernate convention to automap UInt32 properties to an SQL Server 200

    - by dommer
    I'm trying to use a convention to map UInt32 properties to a SQL Server 2008 database. I don't seem to be able to create a solution based on existing web sources, due to updates in the way Fluent NHibernate works - i.e. examples are out of date. I'm trying to have NHibernate generate the schema (via ExposeConfiguration). I'm happy to have NHibernate map it to anything sensible (e.g. bigint). Here's my code as it currently stands (which, when I try to expose the schema, fails due to SQL Server not supporting UInt32). Apologies for the code being a little long, but I'm not 100% sure what is relevant to the problem, so I'm erring on the side of caution. Most of it is based on this post. The error reported is: System.ArgumentException : Dialect does not support DbType.UInt32 I think I'll need a relatively comprehensive example, as I don't seem to be able to pull the pieces together into a working solution, at present. FluentConfiguration configuration = Fluently.Configure() .Database(MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2008 .ConnectionString(connectionString)) .Mappings(mapping => mapping.AutoMappings.Add( AutoMap.AssemblyOf<Product>() .Conventions.Add<UInt32UserTypeConvention>())); configuration.ExposeConfiguration(x => new SchemaExport(x).Create(false, true)); namespace NHibernateTest { public class UInt32UserTypeConvention : UserTypeConvention<UInt32UserType> { // Empty. } } namespace NHibernateTest { public class UInt32UserType : IUserType { // Public properties. public bool IsMutable { get { return false; } } public Type ReturnedType { get { return typeof(UInt32); } } public SqlType[] SqlTypes { get { return new SqlType[] { SqlTypeFactory.Int32 }; } } // Public methods. public object Assemble(object cached, object owner) { return cached; } public object DeepCopy(object value) { return value; } public object Disassemble(object value) { return value; } public new bool Equals(object x, object y) { return (x != null && x.Equals(y)); } public int GetHashCode(object x) { return x.GetHashCode(); } public object NullSafeGet(IDataReader rs, string[] names, object owner) { int? i = (int?)NHibernateUtil.Int32.NullSafeGet(rs, names[0]); return (UInt32?)i; } public void NullSafeSet(IDbCommand cmd, object value, int index) { UInt32? u = (UInt32?)value; int? i = (Int32?)u; NHibernateUtil.Int32.NullSafeSet(cmd, i, index); } public object Replace(object original, object target, object owner) { return original; } } }

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  • Java - is this an idiom or pattern, behavior classes with no state

    - by Berlin Brown
    I am trying to incorporate more functional programming idioms into my java development. One pattern that I like the most and avoids side effects is building classes that have behavior but they don't necessarily have any state. The behavior is locked into the methods but they only act on the parameters passed in. The code below is code I am trying to avoid: public class BadObject { private Map<String, String> data = new HashMap<String, String>(); public BadObject() { data.put("data", "data"); } /** * Act on the data class. But this is bad because we can't * rely on the integrity of the object's state. */ public void execute() { data.get("data").toString(); } } The code below is nothing special but I am acting on the parameters and state is contained within that class. We still may run into issues with this class but that is an issue with the method and the state of the data, we can address issues in the routine as opposed to not trusting the entire object. Is this some form of idiom? Is this similar to any pattern that you use? public class SemiStatefulOOP { /** * Private class implies that I can access the members of the <code>Data</code> class * within the <code>SemiStatefulOOP</code> class and I can also access * the getData method from some other class. * * @see Test1 * */ class Data { protected int counter = 0; public int getData() { return counter; } public String toString() { return Integer.toString(counter); } } /** * Act on the data class. */ public void execute(final Data data) { data.counter++; } /** * Act on the data class. */ public void updateStateWithCallToService(final Data data) { data.counter++; } /** * Similar to CLOS (Common Lisp Object System) make instance. */ public Data makeInstance() { return new Data(); } } // End of Class // Issues with the code above: I wanted to declare the Data class private, but then I can't really reference it outside of the class: I can't override the SemiStateful class and access the private members. Usage: final SemiStatefulOOP someObject = new SemiStatefulOOP(); final SemiStatefulOOP.Data data = someObject.makeInstance(); someObject.execute(data); someObject.updateStateWithCallToService(data);

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  • Upgrading Entity Framework 1.0 to 4.0 to include foreign keys

    - by duthiega
    Currently I've been working with Entity Framework 1.0 which is located under a service façade. Below is one of the save methods I've created to either update or insert the device in question. This currently works but, I can't help feel that its a bit of a hack having to set the referenced properties to null then re-attach them just to get an insert to work. The changedDevice already holds these values, so why do I need to assign them again. So, I thought I'll update the model to EF4. That way I can just directly access the foreign keys. However, on doing this I've found that there doesn't seem to be an easy way to add the foreign keys except by removing the entity from the diagram and re-adding it. I don't want to do this as I've already been through all the entity properties renaming them from the DB column names. Can anyone help? /// <summary> /// Saves the non network device. /// </summary> /// <param name="nonNetworkDeviceDto">The non network device dto.</param> public void SaveNonNetworkDevice(NonNetworkDeviceDto nonNetworkDeviceDto) { using (var context = new AssetNetworkEntities2()) { var changedDevice = TransformationHelper.ConvertNonNetworkDeviceDtoToEntity(nonNetworkDeviceDto); if (!nonNetworkDeviceDto.DeviceId.Equals(-1)) { var originalDevice = context.NonNetworkDevices.Include("Status").Include("NonNetworkType").FirstOrDefault( d => d.DeviceId.Equals(nonNetworkDeviceDto.DeviceId)); context.ApplyAllReferencedPropertyChanges(originalDevice, changedDevice); context.ApplyCurrentValues(originalDevice.EntityKey.EntitySetName, changedDevice); } else { var maxNetworkDevice = context.NonNetworkDevices.OrderBy("it.DeviceId DESC").First(); changedDevice.DeviceId = maxNetworkDevice.DeviceId + 1; var status = changedDevice.Status; var nonNetworkType = changedDevice.NonNetworkType; changedDevice.Status = null; changedDevice.NonNetworkType = null; context.AttachTo("DeviceStatuses", status); if (nonNetworkType != null) { context.AttachTo("NonNetworkTypes", nonNetworkType); } changedDevice.Status = status; changedDevice.NonNetworkType = nonNetworkType; context.AddToNonNetworkDevices(changedDevice); } context.SaveChanges(); } }

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  • Several client waiting for the same event

    - by ff8mania
    I'm developing a communication API to be used by a lot of generic clients to communicate with a proprietary system. This proprietary system exposes an API, and I use a particular classes to send and wait messages from this system: obviously the system alert me that a message is ready using an event. The event is named OnMessageArrived. My idea is to expose a simple SendSyncMessage(message) method that helps the user/client to simply send a message and the method returns the response. The client: using ( Communicator c = new Communicator() ) { response = c.SendSync(message); } The communicator class is done in this way: public class Communicator : IDisposable { // Proprietary system object ExternalSystem c; String currentRespone; Guid currentGUID; private readonly ManualResetEvent _manualResetEvent; private ManualResetEvent _manualResetEvent2; String systemName = "system"; String ServerName = "server"; public Communicator() { _manualResetEvent = new ManualResetEvent(false); //This methods are from the proprietary system API c = SystemInstance.CreateInstance(); c.Connect(systemName , ServerName); } private void ConnectionStarter( object data ) { c.OnMessageArrivedEvent += c_OnMessageArrivedEvent; _manualResetEvent.WaitOne(); c.OnMessageArrivedEvent-= c_OnMessageArrivedEvent; } public String SendSync( String Message ) { Thread _internalThread = new Thread(ConnectionStarter); _internalThread.Start(c); _manualResetEvent2 = new ManualResetEvent(false); String toRet; int messageID; currentGUID = Guid.NewGuid(); c.SendMessage(Message, "Request", currentGUID.ToString()); _manualResetEvent2.WaitOne(); toRet = currentRespone; return toRet; } void c_OnMessageArrivedEvent( int Id, string root, string guid, int TimeOut, out int ReturnCode ) { if ( !guid.Equals(currentGUID.ToString()) ) { _manualResetEvent2.Set(); ReturnCode = 0; return; } object newMessage; c.FetchMessage(Id, 7, out newMessage); currentRespone = newMessage.ToString(); ReturnCode = 0; _manualResetEvent2.Set(); } } I'm really noob in using waithandle, but my idea was to create an instance that sends the message and waits for an event. As soon as the event arrived, checks if the message is the one I expect (checking the unique guid), otherwise continues to wait for the next event. This because could be (and usually is in this way) a lot of clients working concurrently, and I want them to work parallel. As I implemented my stuff, at the moment if I run client 1, client 2 and client 3, client 2 starts sending message as soon as client 1 has finished, and client 3 as client 2 has finished: not what I'm trying to do. Can you help me to fix my code and get my target? Thanks!

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  • How to pass operators as parameters

    - by Rodion Ingles
    I have to load an array of doubles from a file, multiply each element by a value in a table (different values for different elements), do some work on it, invert the multiplication (that is, divide) and then save the data back to file. Currently I implement the multiplication and division process in two separate methods. Now there is some extra work behind the scenes but apart from the specific statements where the multiplication/division occurs, the rest of the code is identical. As you can imagine, with this approach you have to be very careful making any changes. The surrounding code is not trivial, so its either a case of manually editing each method or copying changes from one method to the other and remembering to change the * and / operators. After too many close calls I am fed up of this and would like to make a common function which implements the common logic and two wrapper functions which pass which operator to use as a parameter. My initial approach was to use function pointers: MultiplyData(double data) { TransformData(data, &(operator *)); } DivideData(double data) { TransformData(data, &(operator /)); } TransformData(double data, double (*func)(double op1, double op2)) { /* Do stuff here... */ } However, I can't pass the operators as pointers (is this because it is an operator on a native type?), so I tried to use function objects. Initially I thought that multiplies and divides functors in <functional> would be ideal: MultiplyData(double data) { std::multiplies<double> multFunct; TransformData(data, &multFunct); } DivideData(double data) { std::divides<double> divFunct; TransformData(data, &divFunct); } TransformData(double data, std::binary_function<double, double, double> *funct) { /* Do stuff here... */ } As you can see I was trying to use a base class pointer to pass the functor polymorphically. The problem is that std::binary_function does not declare an operator() member for the child classes to implement. Is there something I am missing, or is the solution to implement my own functor heirarchy (which really seems more trouble than it is worth)?

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  • Java replacement for C macros

    - by thkala
    Recently I refactored the code of a 3rd party hash function from C++ to C. The process was relatively painless, with only a few changes of note. Now I want to write the same function in Java and I came upon a slight issue. In the C/C++ code there is a C preprocessor macro that takes a few integer variables names as arguments and performs a bunch of bitwise operations with their contents and a few constants. That macro is used in several different places, therefore its presence avoids a fair bit of code duplication. In Java, however, there is no equivalent for the C preprocessor. There is also no way to affect any basic type passed as an argument to a method - even autoboxing produces immutable objects. Coupled with the fact that Java methods return a single value, I can't seem to find a simple way to rewrite the macro. Avenues that I considered: Expand the macro by hand everywhere: It would work, but the code duplication could make things interesting in the long run. Write a method that returns an array: This would also work, but it would repeatedly result into code like this: long tmp[] = bitops(k, l, m, x, y, z); k = tmp[0]; l = tmp[1]; m = tmp[2]; x = tmp[3]; y = tmp[4]; z = tmp[5]; Write a method that takes an array as an argument: This would mean that all variable names would be reduced to array element references - it would be rather hard to keep track of which index corresponds to which variable. Create a separate class e.g. State with public fields of the appropriate type and use that as an argument to a method: This is my current solution. It allows the method to alter the variables, while still keeping their names. It has the disadvantage, however, that the State class will get more and more complex, as more macros and variables are added, in order to avoid copying values back and forth among different State objects. How would you rewrite such a C macro in Java? Is there a more appropriate way to deal with this, using the facilities provided by the standard Java 6 Development Kit (i.e. without 3rd party libraries or a separate preprocessor)?

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  • Extend argparse to write set names in the help text for optional argument choices and define those sets once at the end

    - by Kent
    Example of the problem If I have a list of valid option strings which is shared between several arguments, the list is written in multiple places in the help string. Making it harder to read: def main(): elements = ['a', 'b', 'c', 'd', 'e', 'f'] parser = argparse.ArgumentParser() parser.add_argument( '-i', nargs='*', choices=elements, default=elements, help='Space separated list of case sensitive element names.') parser.add_argument( '-e', nargs='*', choices=elements, default=[], help='Space separated list of case sensitive element names to ' 'exclude from processing') parser.parse_args() When running the above function with the command line argument --help it shows: usage: arguments.py [-h] [-i [{a,b,c,d,e,f} [{a,b,c,d,e,f} ...]]] [-e [{a,b,c,d,e,f} [{a,b,c,d,e,f} ...]]] optional arguments: -h, --help show this help message and exit -i [{a,b,c,d,e,f} [{a,b,c,d,e,f} ...]] Space separated list of case sensitive element names. -e [{a,b,c,d,e,f} [{a,b,c,d,e,f} ...]] Space separated list of case sensitive element names to exclude from processing What would be nice It would be nice if one could define an option list name, and in the help output write the option list name in multiple places and define it last of all. In theory it would work like this: def main_optionlist(): elements = ['a', 'b', 'c', 'd', 'e', 'f'] # Two instances of OptionList are equal if and only if they # have the same name (ALFA in this case) ol = OptionList('ALFA', elements) parser = argparse.ArgumentParser() parser.add_argument( '-i', nargs='*', choices=ol, default=ol, help='Space separated list of case sensitive element names.') parser.add_argument( '-e', nargs='*', choices=ol, default=[], help='Space separated list of case sensitive element names to ' 'exclude from processing') parser.parse_args() And when running the above function with the command line argument --help it would show something similar to: usage: arguments.py [-h] [-i [ALFA [ALFA ...]]] [-e [ALFA [ALFA ...]]] optional arguments: -h, --help show this help message and exit -i [ALFA [ALFA ...]] Space separated list of case sensitive element names. -e [ALFA [ALFA ...]] Space separated list of case sensitive element names to exclude from processing sets in optional arguments: ALFA {a,b,c,d,e,f} Question I need to: Replace the {'l', 'i', 's', 't', 's'} shown with the option name, in the optional arguments. At the end of the help text show a section explaining which elements each option name consists of. So I ask: Is this possible using argparse? Which classes would I have to inherit from and which methods would I need to override? I have tried looking at the source for argparse, but as this modification feels pretty advanced I don´t know how to get going.

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  • How can I progrommatically change the target framework from 4.0 to 3.5 of a project/solution?

    - by scott
    Edit 3: After more googling it looks like you can't have the TargetFrameworkMoniker property in a .NET 3.5 application. So I guess I should be asking a different question. How do I change the Target framework from 4.0 to 3.5? Unfortunately, I can only find stuff on how to go the other way. or better yet how do i progrommatically set the target framework version of a project to something other than 4.0? Original question: I just switched to vs2010. I have an application that uses .net 3.5. It loads plugins which are generated by a different app. The plugins are using .net 4 and there for cannot be loaded. I'm using EnvDTE.Project to create a project and set the settings. I can't find what setting needs to be set for this. Edit 1: I'm generating code for about 50 solutions. When I made the switch from vs2005 to vs2010 the projects in those solutions are defaulting to .NET Framework 4.0. So I need to set the .NET Framework to 3.5 when I am generating the code for these solutions. Edit 2: After a lot of googling I found this. so then I tried this: loProp = vsGetProperty("TargetFrameworkMoniker"); vsSetValue(loProp, ".NETFramework,Version=v3.5"); the definitions for those two methods are below. as far as I can tell they do the same this as project.Properties.Item("TargetFrameworkMoniker").Value = ".NETFramework,Version=v4.0,Profile=Client"; I start getting an Property Unavailable Exception later in the code. When I remove the new lines everything works except the projects target framework is still 4.0. The code generators target framework is 3.5 so I can't use the FrameworkName class like shown in the second example in that link. here is vsGetProperty protected Property vsGetProperty(string aProperty) { bool lbDone = false; int liCount = 0; Property loProp; while (!lbDone && liCount < pMaxRetries) { try { loProp = pProject.Properties.Item(aProperty); lbDone = true; return loProp; } catch (System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException loE) { liCount++; if ((uint)loE.ErrorCode == 0x80010001) { // RPC_E_CALL_REJECTED - sleep half sec then try again System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(pDelayBetweenRetry); } } } return null; } and vsSetValue protected void vsSetValue(Property aProperty, string aValue) { bool lbDone = false; int liCount = 0; while (!lbDone && liCount < pMaxRetries) { try { aProperty.Value = aValue; lbDone = true; } catch (System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException loE) { liCount++; if ((uint)loE.ErrorCode == 0x80010001) { // RPC_E_CALL_REJECTED - sleep half sec then try again System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(pDelayBetweenRetry); } } } }

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  • How not to abort http response c#

    - by user194076
    I need to run several methods after sending file to a user for a download. What happens is that after I send a file to a user, response is aborted and I can no longer do anything after response.end(). for example, this is my sample code: Response.Clear(); Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", "attachment; filename=test.pdf"); Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; byte[] a = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes("test"); Response.BinaryWrite(a); Response.End(); StartNextMethod(); Response.Redirect(URL); So, in this example StartNextMethod and Response.Redirect are not executing. What I tried is I created a separate handler(ashx) with the following code: public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { context.Response.Clear(); context.Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", "attachment; filename=test.pdf"); context.Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; byte[] a = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes("test"); context.Response.BinaryWrite(a); context.Response.End(); } and call it like this: Download d = new Download(); d.ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); StartNextMethod(); Response.Redirect(URL); but the same error happen. I've tryied to replace Response.End with CompleteRequest but it doesn't help. I guess the problem is that I'm using HttpContext.Current but should use a separate response stream. Is that correct? how do I do that in a separate method generically (Assume that I want my handler to accept byte array of data and content type and be downloadable from a separate response. I really do not want to use a separate page for a response. UPDATE I still didn't find a good solution. I'd like to do some actions after user has downloaded a file, but without using a separate page for a response\request thing.

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  • SOAP not fetches result in PHP for Mouzenidis travel

    - by ????? ????????????
    I try to get results from http://api.mouzenidis-travel.com/search/ServiceMainSearch.svc?Wsdl There is some methods to fetch data: GetCountries // fetch available country data GetCityDeparture(int countryID) //fetch available departure city data GetFilter(int countryId, List departureCityId) // fetch others filters // My PHP code: $client = new SoapClient("http://api.mouzenidis-travel.com/search/ServiceMainSearch.svc?Wsdl"); $countryList = $client-GetCountries(); // results below [0] => stdClass Object ( [Code] => GR [ID] => 29 [Name] => Греция [NameLat] => Greece ) [1] => stdClass Object ( [Code] => CZ [ID] => 6240 [Name] => Чехия [NameLat] => Czech Republic ) $cityDepObj = $client-GetCityDeparture(array('countryID'=29)); [0] => stdClass Object ( [Code] => MOW [GroupName] => Россия [GroupNameLat] => Россия [GroupOrder] => 4 [ID] => 1 [Name] => Москва [NameLat] => Moscow [CountryID] => 460 [IsDeparture] => 1 [RegionID] => 0 ) [1] => stdClass Object ( [Code] => [GroupName] => Россия [GroupNameLat] => Россия [GroupOrder] => 4 [ID] => 299 [Name] => Архангельск [NameLat] => Arkhangelsk [CountryID] => 460 [IsDeparture] => 1 [RegionID] => 0 ) . . . $client-GetFilter(array(29,array(1))); Fatal error: Uncaught SoapFault exception: [s:Client] No connections available ... I wrote to the Mouzendinis Tech Support, no results. What make I wrong?

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  • Difference between Cloud and Virtualization

    - by Akash Kava
    Ops: This does not belong to ServerFault because it focuses on Programing Architecture. I have following questions regarding differences between Cloud and Virtualization.. How Cloud is different then Virtualization? Currently I tried to find out pricing of Rackspace, Amazone and all similar cloud providers, I found that our current 6 dedicated servers came cheaper then their pricing. So how one can claim cloud is cheaper? Is it cheaper only in comparison of normal hosting? We re organized our infrastructure in virtual environment to reduce or configuration overhead at time of failure, we did not have to rewrite any peice of code that is already written for earlier setup. So moving to virtualization does not require any re programming. But cloud is absoltely different and it will require entire reprogramming right? Is it really worth to recode when our current IT costs are 3-4 times lower then cloud hosting including raid backups and all sort of clustering for high availability? New programming architecture means new overheads of training staff, new methods of testing and new deployment schemes, does it justify over "on demand resource usage" words of cloud? We are having current development architecture with simple Server side ASP.NET WebServices with no local context and on client side Flex/Silverlight which offers pretty good REST architecture and its highly scalable. How does cloud differs from REST model of deployment? On storage, SQL Server or MySQL offers pretty good replication and high availibility then what is advantage in cloud? Data guarantee, one of our vendor hosting some other customer's app on cloud (one of most used), lost Entire Hard Disk (the virtual) and entire module in first 6 months. Second provider said its your duty to take backup, fine I agree, but no provider gives SLA for data guarantee, they give 99% uptime. However in most business apps, uptime is less important then data integrity. In our 10 years of dedicated hosting experience we had only one hard disk crash. This makes me little skeptical to go for cloud and loosing control over data. And I feel its just a big marketing buzz to sell virtulization in different form. Size of data, currently all providers charge very heavy for large data, if you are hosting only below 100GB cloud can be good alternative, but I think virtual servers and dedicated servers above 100GB to few TBs are still cheaper. Why would want to pay so high on cloud when there is no data guarentee as well as it doesnt say anything about redundancy. (I wish SO had something for spell check for Internet Explorer, sorry for wrong spellings in my post)

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  • EXC_MEMORY_ACCESS when trying to delete from Core Data ($cash solution)

    - by llloydxmas
    I have an application that downloads an xml file, parses the file, and creates core data objects while doing so. In the parse code I have a function called 'emptydatacontext' that removes all items from Core Data before creating replacements items from the xml data. This method looks like this: -(void) emptyDataContext { NSFetchRequest * allCon = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [allCon setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Condition" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]]; NSError * error = nil; NSArray * conditions = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:allCon error:&error]; DebugLog(@"ERROR: %@",error); DebugLog(@"RETRIEVED: %@", conditions); [allCon release]; for (NSManagedObject * condition in conditions) { [managedObjectContext deleteObject:condition]; } // Update the data model effectivly removing the objects we removed above. //NSError *error; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { DebugLog(@"%@", [error domain]); } } The first time this runs it deletes all objects and functions as it should - creating new objects from the xml file. I created a 'update' button that starts the exact same process of retrieving the file the proceeding with the parse & build. All is well until its time to delete the core data objects. This 'deleteObject' call creates a "EXC_BAD_ACCESS" error each time. This only happens on the second time through. Captured errors return null. If I log the 'conditions' array I get a list of NSManagedObjects on the first run. On the second this log request causes a crash exactly as the deleteObject call does. I have a feeling it is something very simple I'm missing or not doing correctly to cause this behavior. The data works great on my tableviews - its only when trying to update I get the crashes. I have spent days & days on this trying numerous alternative methods. Whats left of my hair is falling out. I'd be willing to ante up some cash for anyone willing to look at my code and see what I'm doing wrong. Just need to get past this hurdle. Thanks in advance for the help!

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  • Having trouble wrapping functions in the linux kernel

    - by Corey Henderson
    I've written a LKM that implements Trusted Path Execution (TPE) into your kernel: https://github.com/cormander/tpe-lkm I run into an occasional kernel OOPS (describe at the end of this question) when I define WRAP_SYSCALLS to 1, and am at my wit's end trying to track it down. A little background: Since the LSM framework doesn't export its symbols, I had to get creative with how I insert the TPE checking into the running kernel. I wrote a find_symbol_address() function that gives me the address of any function I need, and it works very well. I can call functions like this: int (*my_printk)(const char *fmt, ...); my_printk = find_symbol_address("printk"); (*my_printk)("Hello, world!\n"); And it works fine. I use this method to locate the security_file_mmap, security_file_mprotect, and security_bprm_check functions. I then overwrite those functions with an asm jump to my function to do the TPE check. The problem is, the currently loaded LSM will no longer execute the code for it's hook to that function, because it's been totally hijacked. Here is an example of what I do: int tpe_security_bprm_check(struct linux_binprm *bprm) { int ret = 0; if (bprm->file) { ret = tpe_allow_file(bprm->file); if (IS_ERR(ret)) goto out; } #if WRAP_SYSCALLS stop_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); ret = cs_security_bprm_check.ptr(bprm); start_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); #endif out: return ret; } Notice the section between the #if WRAP_SYSCALLS section (it's defined as 0 by default). If set to 1, the LSM's hook is called because I write the original code back over the asm jump and call that function, but I run into an occasional kernel OOPS with an "invalid opcode": invalid opcode: 0000 [#1] SMP RIP: 0010:[<ffffffff8117b006>] [<ffffffff8117b006>] security_bprm_check+0x6/0x310 I don't know what the issue is. I've tried several different types of locking methods (see the inside of start/stop_my_code for details) to no avail. To trigger the kernel OOPS, write a simple bash while loop that endlessly starts a backgrounded "ls" command. After a minute or so, it'll happen. I'm testing this on a RHEL6 kernel, also works on Ubuntu 10.04 LTS (2.6.32 x86_64). While this method has been the most successful so far, I have tried another method of simply copying the kernel function to a pointer I created with kmalloc but when I try to execute it, I get: kernel tried to execute NX-protected page - exploit attempt? (uid: 0). If anyone can tell me how to kmalloc space and have it marked as executable, that would also help me solve the above problem. Any help is appreciated!

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  • Database schema for simple stats project

    - by Bubnoff
    Backdrop: I have a file hierarchy of cvs files for multiple locations named by dates they cover ...by month specifically. Each cvs file in the folder is named after the location. eg', folder name: 2010-feb contains: location1.csv location2.csv Each CSV file holds records like this: 2010-06-28, 20:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 08:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 09:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 10:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 11:30:00 , 0 meaning of record columns ( column names ): Date, time, # of sessions I have a perl script that pulls the data from this mess and originally I was going to store it as json files, but am thinking a database might be more appropriate long term ...comparing year to year trends ...fun stuff like that. Pt 2 - My question/problem: So I now have a REST service that coughs up json with a test database. My question is [ I suck at db design ], how best to design a database backend for this? I am thinking the following tables would suffice and keep it simple: Location: (PK)location_code, name session: (PK)id, (FK)location_code, month, hour, num_sessions I need to be able to average sessions (plus min and max) for each hour across days of week in addition to days of week in a given month or months. I've been using perl hashes to do this and am trying to decide how best to implement this with a database. Do you think stored procedures should be used? As to the database, depending on info gathered here, it will be postgresql or sqlite. If there is no compelling reason for postgresql I'll stick with sqlite. How and where should I compare the data to hours of operation. I am storing the hours of operation in a yaml file. I currently 'match' the hour in the data to a hash from the yaml to do this. Would a database open simpler methods? I am thinking I would do this comparison as I do now then insert the data. Can be recalled with: SELECT hour, num_sessions FROM session WHERE location_code=LOC1 Since only hours of operation are present, I do not need to worry about it. Should I calculate all results as I do now then store as a stats table for different 'reports'? This, rather than processing on demand? How would this look? Anyway ...I ramble. Thanks for reading! Bubnoff

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  • Unit Testing - Am I doing it right?

    - by baron
    Hi everyone, Basically I have been programing for a little while and after finishing my last project can fully understand how much easier it would have been if I'd have done TDD. I guess I'm still not doing it strictly as I am still writing code then writing a test for it, I don't quite get how the test becomes before the code if you don't know what structures and how your storing data etc... but anyway... Kind of hard to explain but basically lets say for example I have a Fruit objects with properties like id, color and cost. (All stored in textfile ignore completely any database logic etc) FruitID FruitName FruitColor FruitCost 1 Apple Red 1.2 2 Apple Green 1.4 3 Apple HalfHalf 1.5 This is all just for example. But lets say I have this is a collection of Fruit (it's a List<Fruit>) objects in this structure. And my logic will say to reorder the fruitids in the collection if a fruit is deleted (this is just how the solution needs to be). E.g. if 1 is deleted, object 2 takes fruit id 1, object 3 takes fruit id2. Now I want to test the code ive written which does the reordering, etc. How can I set this up to do the test? Here is where I've got so far. Basically I have fruitManager class with all the methods, like deletefruit, etc. It has the list usually but Ive changed hte method to test it so that it accepts a list, and the info on the fruit to delete, then returns the list. Unit-testing wise: Am I basically doing this the right way, or have I got the wrong idea? and then I test deleting different valued objects / datasets to ensure method is working properly. [Test] public void DeleteFruit() { var fruitList = CreateFruitList(); var fm = new FruitManager(); var resultList = fm.DeleteFruitTest("Apple", 2, fruitList); //Assert that fruitobject with x properties is not in list ? how } private static List<Fruit> CreateFruitList() { //Build test data var f01 = new Fruit {Name = "Apple",Id = 1, etc...}; var f02 = new Fruit {Name = "Apple",Id = 2, etc...}; var f03 = new Fruit {Name = "Apple",Id = 3, etc...}; var fruitList = new List<Fruit> {f01, f02, f03}; return fruitList; }

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  • Having trouble understanding some code (Ruby on Rails)

    - by user284194
    I posted a question awhile ago asking how I could limit the rate at which a form could be submitted from a rails application. I was helped by a very patient user and their solution works great. The code was for my comments controller, and now I find myself wanting to add this functionality to another controller, my Messages controller. I immediately tried reusing the working code from the comments controller but I couldn't get it to work. Instead of asking for the working code, could someone please help me understand my working comment controller code? class CommentsController < ApplicationController #... before_filter :post_check def record_post_time cookies[:last_post_at] = Time.now.to_i end def last_post_time Time.at((cookies[:last_post_at].to_i rescue 0)) end MIN_POST_TIME = 2.minutes def post_check return true if (Time.now - last_post_time) > MIN_POST_TIME flash[:warning] = "You are trying to reply too fast." @message = Message.find(params[:message_id]) redirect_to(@message) return false end #... def create @message = Message.find(params[:message_id]) @comment = @message.comments.build(params[:comment]) if @comment.save record_post_time flash[:notice] = "Replied to \"#{@message.title}\"" redirect_to(@message) else render :action => "new" end end def update @message = Message.find(params[:message_id]) @comment = Comment.find(params[:id]) if @comment.update_attributes(params[:comment]) record_post_time redirect_to post_comment_url(@message, @comment) else render :action => "edit" end end #... end My Messages controller is pretty much a standard rails generated controller with a few before filters and associated private methods for DRYing up the code and a redirect for non existent pages. I'll explain how much of the code I understand. When a comment is created, a cookie is created with a last_post_time value. If they try to post another comment, the cookie is checked if the last one was made in the last two minutes. If it was a flash warning is displayed and no comment is recorded. What I don't really understand is how the post_check method works and how I can adapt it for my simpler posts controller. I thought I could reuse all the code in the message controller with the exception of the line: @message = Message.find(params[:message_id]) # (don't need the redirect code) in the post_check method. But it trips up on the "record_post_time" in the create action/method. I really want to understand this. Can someone explain why this doesn't work? I greatly appreciate you reading my lengthy question.

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  • Why does every thread in my application use a different hibernate session?

    - by Ittai
    Hi, I have a web-application which uses hibernate and for some reason every thread (httprequest or other threads related to queueing) uses a different session. I've implemented a HibernateSessionFactory class which looks like this: public class HibernateSessionFactory { private static final ThreadLocal<Session> threadLocal = new ThreadLocal<Session>(); private static Configuration configuration = new AnnotationConfiguration(); private static org.hibernate.SessionFactory sessionFactory; static { try { configuration.configure(configFile); sessionFactory = configuration.buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Exception e) {} } private HibernateSessionFactory() {} public static Session getSession() throws HibernateException { Session session = (Session) threadLocal.get(); if (session == null || !session.isOpen()) { if (sessionFactory == null) { rebuildSessionFactory();//This method basically does what the static init block does } session = (sessionFactory != null) ? sessionFactory.openSession(): null; threadLocal.set(session); } return session; } //More non relevant methods here. Now from my testing it seems that the threadLocal member is indeed initialized only once when the class is first loaded by the JVM but for some reason when different threads access the getSession() method they use different sessions. When a thread first accesses this class (Session) threadLocal.get(); will return null but as expected all other access requests will yeild the same session. I'm not sure how this can be happening as the threadLocal variable is final and the method threadLocal.set(session) is only used in the above context (which I'm 99.9% sure has to yeild a non null session as I would have encountered a NullPointerException at a different part of my app). I'm not sure this is relevant but these are the main parts of my hibernate.cfg.xml file: <hibernate-configuration> <session-factory> <property name="connection.url">someURL</property> <property name="connection.driver_class"> com.microsoft.sqlserver.jdbc.SQLServerDriver</property> <property name="dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.SQLServerDialect</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.isolation">1</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.username">User</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.password">Password</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.pool_size">10</property> <property name="show_sql">false</property> <property name="current_session_context_class">thread</property> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">update</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_second_level_cache">false</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">org.hibernate.cache.NoCacheProvider</property> <!-- Mapping files --> I'd appreciate any help granted and of course if anyone has any questions I'd be happy to clarify. Ittai

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  • Speed up a web service for auto complete and avoid too many method calls.

    - by jphenow
    So I've got my jquery autocomplete 'working,' but its a little fidgety since I call the webservice method each time a keydown() fires so I get lots of methods hanging and sometimes to get the "auto" to work I have to type it out and backspace a bit because i'm assuming it got its return value a little slow. I've limited the query results to 8 to mininmize time. Is there anything i can do to make this a little snappier? This thing seems near useless if I don't get it a little more responsive. javascript $("#clientAutoNames").keydown(function () { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "WebService.asmx/LoadData", data: "{'input':" + JSON.stringify($("#clientAutoNames").val()) + "}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (data) { if (data.d != null) { var serviceScript = data.d; } $("#autoNames").html(serviceScript); $('#clientAutoNames').autocomplete({ minLength: 2, source: autoNames, delay: 100, focus: function (event, ui) { $('#project').val(ui.item.label); return false; }, select: function (event, ui) { $('#clientAutoNames').val(ui.item.label); $('#projectid').val(ui.item.value); $('#project-description').html(ui.item.desc); pkey = $('#project-id').val; return false; } }) .data("autocomplete")._renderItem = function (ul, item) { return $("<li></li>") .data("item.autocomplete", item) .append("<a>" + item.label + "<br>" + item.desc + "</a>") .appendTo(ul); } } }); }); WebService.asmx <WebMethod()> _ Public Function LoadData(ByVal input As String) As String Dim result As String = "<script>var autoNames = [" Dim sqlOut As Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader Dim connstring As String = *Datasource* Dim strSql As String = "SELECT TOP 2 * FROM v_Clients WHERE (SearchName Like '" + input + "%') ORDER BY SearchName" Dim cnn As Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection = New Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection(connstring) Dim cmd As Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand = New Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand(strSql, cnn) cnn.Open() sqlOut = cmd.ExecuteReader() Dim c As Integer = 0 While sqlOut.Read() result = result + "{" result = result + "value: '" + sqlOut("ContactID").ToString() + "'," result = result + "label: '" + sqlOut("SearchName").ToString() + "'," 'result = result + "desc: '" + title + " from " + company + "'," result = result + "}," End While result = result + "];</script>" sqlOut.Close() cnn.Close() Return result End Function I'm sure I'm just going about this slightly wrong or not doing a better balance of calls or something. Greatly appreciated!

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  • What block is not being tested in my test method? (VS08 Test Framework)

    - by daft
    I have the following code: private void SetControlNumbers() { string controlString = ""; int numberLength = PersonNummer.Length; switch (numberLength) { case (10) : controlString = PersonNummer.Substring(6, 4); break; case (11) : controlString = PersonNummer.Substring(7, 4); break; case (12) : controlString = PersonNummer.Substring(8, 4); break; case (13) : controlString = PersonNummer.Substring(9, 4); break; } ControlNumbers = Convert.ToInt32(controlString); } Which is tested using the following test methods: [TestMethod()] public void SetControlNumbers_Length10() { string pNummer = "9999999999"; Personnummer target = new Personnummer(pNummer); Assert.AreEqual(9999, target.ControlNumbers); } [TestMethod()] public void SetControlNumbers_Length11() { string pNummer = "999999-9999"; Personnummer target = new Personnummer(pNummer); Assert.AreEqual(9999, target.ControlNumbers); } [TestMethod()] public void SetControlNumbers_Length12() { string pNummer = "199999999999"; Personnummer target = new Personnummer(pNummer); Assert.AreEqual(9999, target.ControlNumbers); } [TestMethod()] public void SetControlNumbers_Length13() { string pNummer = "1999999-9999"; Personnummer target = new Personnummer(pNummer); Assert.AreEqual(9999, target.ControlNumbers); } For some reason Visual Studio says that I have 1 block that is not tested despite showing all code in the method under test in blue (ie. the code is covered in my unit tests). Is this because of the fact that I don't have a default value defined in the switch? When the SetControlNumbers() method is called, the string on which it operates have already been validated and checked to see that it conforms to the specification and that the various Substring calls in the switch will generate a string containing 4 chars. I'm just curious as to why it says there is 1 untested block. I'm no unit test guru at all, so I'd love some feedback on this. Also, how can I improve on the conversion after the switch to make it safer other than adding a try-catch block and check for FormatExceptions and OverflowExceptions?

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