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  • wopen calls when porting to Linux

    - by laura
    I have an application which was developed under Windows, but for gcc. The code is mostly OS-independent, with very few classes which are Windows specific because a Linux port was always regarded as necessary. The API, especially that which gets called as a direct result of user interaction, is using wide char arrays instead of char arrays (as a side note, I cannot change the API itself - at this point, std::wstring cannot be used). These are considered as encoded in UTF-16. In some places, the code opens files, mostly using the windows-specific _wopen function call. The problem with this is there is no wopen-like substitute for Linux because Linux "only deals with bytes". The question is: how do I port this code ? What if I wanted to open a file with the name "something™.log", how would I go about doing so in Linux ? Is a cast to char* sufficient, would the wide chars be picked up automatically based on the locale (probably not) ? Do I need to convert manually ? I'm a bit confused regarding this, perhaps someone could point me to some documentation regarding the matter.

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  • PHP Error handling in WordPress plugin

    - by AaronM
    I am a newbie to both PHP and Wordpress (but do ok in C#), and am struggling to understand the error handling in a custom plugin I am attempting to write. The basics of the plugin is to query an exsiting MSSQL database (note its not the standard MYSQL db...) and return the rows back to the screen. This was working well, but the hosting provider has taken my database offline, which led me to the error handling problem (which I thought was ok). The following code is failing to connect to the database (as expected), but puts an error onto the screen and stops the page processing. It does not even output the 'or die' error text. QUESTION: How can I just output a simple "Cant load data" message, and continue on normally? function generateData() { global $post; if ("$post->post_title" == "Home") { try { $myServer = "<servername>"; $myUser = "<username>"; $myPass = "<password>"; $myDB = "<dbName>"; //connection to the database $dbhandle = mssql_connect($myServer, $myUser, $myPass) or die("Couldn't open database $myDB"); //... query processing here... } catch (Exception $e) { echo "Cannot load data<br />"; } } return $content; } Error being generated: (line 31 is $dbhandle = mssql_connect...) Warning: mssql_connect() [function.mssql-connect]: Unable to connect to server: <servername> in <file path> on line 31 Fatal error: Maximum execution time of 30 seconds exceeded in <file path> on line 31

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  • protecting grails melody with grails filter

    - by batmannavneet
    I have an application where I am using spring security along with grails melody. I am planning to run grails melody in production environment, but don't want visitors to have access to it. How should I achieve that ? I tried creating a filter in grails (just showing the sample of what I am trying, not the actual code)- def filters = { allURIs(uri:'/**') { before = { //... if(request.forwardURI.indexOf("admin") != -1 || request.forwardURI.indexOf("monitoring") != -1) { response.sendError 404 return false } } } } But this doesnt work as the request for "monitoring" doesnt hit this filter. I dont even want the user to know that such a URL exists, so I want to check in the filter that if "monitoring" is the URL, I show the 404 error page. Thats also the reason why I dont want to protect this URL with spring security as it will show "access denied" page. Basically I want the URL to exist but they should be invisible to users. I want the access to be open to only certain IP addresses for these special URLs. On another note, Is it possible to write a grails filter that "acts" before the spring security filter is hit ? I want to be able to do some filtering before I forward requests to spring security. Writing a grails filter like above doesnt help. Spring security filter gets hit first if I access a protected resource and this filter doesn't get called. Thanks

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  • Read HTML file into email

    - by cast01
    Ive written a script to send html emails and all works well. I have the email stored in a separate HTML file which is then read in usin a while loop and fgets(). However, i want to be able to pass variables into the html. For example, in a html file i may have something like.. <body> Dear Name <br/> Thank you for your recent purhcase </body> and i read this into a string like so $file = fopen($filename, "r"); while(!feof($file)) { $html.= fgets($file, 4096); } fclose ($file); I want to be able to replace "Name" in the html file by a variable and im not entirely sure on the best way to do this. I could always make my own tag and then use regex to replace that with the name once ive read the file into the string, but im wondering if there is a better/easier method to do this. (On a side note, if anyone knows whether its better to use file_get_contents instead of multiple calls to fgets, id be interested to know)

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  • Update a tableView with a plist took from another table

    - by Pheel
    Background: I have a tab bar application, which has a tableView as the "heart" of the app. It loads data from a plist and, through a button that checks if there are any updates on the remote plist file, updates the local plist with the remote contents. Then, i have another tableView, that should display only those plist items that have a bool value set to YES. Now i want to add a button to the second table that reloads the plist took from the first table. Expected: When i update the local plist from the first table and when i press the button on the second table, the 2nd table is supposed to update and show the cells with that bool value set to YES. (Note: I set YES as default to some items on plist). What happens: The first table updates its content from remote. The second table shows the old items with the value set to YES. When i press the button to refresh data, it reads the plist fine (by logging it, it has the same contents of the first table -only those set to YES-),but it doesn't update data even if i have [self.tableView reloadData];. When i close the app and open it again, the second table is filled with the right items. :\ Code i'm using: //Reading Plist { NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSCachesDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *plistPath = [[documentPaths lastObject] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"myPlist.plist"]; NSFileManager *fMgr = [NSFileManager defaultManager]; if (![fMgr fileExistsAtPath:plistPath]) { plistPath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"myPlist" ofType:@"plist"]; } NSMutableArray *returnArr = [NSMutableArray arrayWithContentsOfFile:plistPath]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"isFav == YES"]; for (NSDictionary *sect in returnArr) { NSArray *arr = [sect objectForKey:@"Rows"]; [sect setValue:[arr filteredArrayUsingPredicate:predicate] forKey:@"Rows"]; } [self.tableView reloadData]; } //Refresh data button - (void) refreshTable:(id)sender { NSLog(@"plist read"); [self readPlist]; NSLog(@"refreshed plist:%@",[self readPlist]); [self.tableView reloadData]; } Does anyone know why the table is not updating?

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  • Inserting null fields with dbi:Pg

    - by User1
    I have a Perl script inserting data into Postgres according to a pipe delimited text file. Sometimes, a field is null (as expected). However, Perl makes this field into an empty string and the Postgres insert statement fails. Here's a snippet of code: use DBI; #Connect to the database. $dbh=DBI-connect('dbi:Pg:dbname=mydb','mydb','mydb',{AutoCommit=1,RaiseError=1,PrintError=1}); #Prepare an insert. $sth=$dbh-prepare("INSERT INTO mytable (field0,field1) SELECT ?,?"); while (<){ #Remove the whitespace chomp; #Parse the fields. @field=split(/\|/,$_); print "$_\n"; #Do the insert. $sth-execute($field[0],$field[1]); } And if the input is: a|1 b| c|3 EDIT: Use this input instead. a|1|x b||x c|3|x It will fail at b|. DBD::Pg::st execute failed: ERROR: invalid input syntax for integer: "" I just want it to insert a null on field1 instead. Any ideas? EDIT: I simplified the input at the last minute. The old input actually made it work for some reason. So now I changed the input to something that will make the program fail. Also note that field1 is a nullable integer datatype.

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  • Key Tips in WPF

    - by Brad Leach
    Office 2007 and the Ribbon introduced the concept of "Key Tips". In short, every single command in the Ribbon receives a letter which you can press to activate that command. ... The letters are indicated by small "KeyTips" which indicate the letter to press to activate the control. KeyTips are displayed using the Alt key, so using them feels similar to how menu navigation works in Windows. (Source: http://blogs.msdn.com/jensenh/archive/2006/04/12/574930.aspx) An example of the Key Tips can be shown as follows. In this diagram, the use has pressed the ALT key, and is awaiting further input. Are there any WPF Open Source examples of "Key Tips"? How would you go about implementing something like this feature in a generic way (i.e. not requiring a Ribbon)? How would you implement this using a MVVM pattern (given that ICommand does not support InputBindings). Note: ActiPro have implemented this feature in their implementation of a Ribbon, but they have not released source code.

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  • Translate SQL to OCL ?

    - by Roland Bengtsson
    I have a piece of SQL that I want to translate to OCL. I'm not good at SQL so I want to increase maintainability by this. We are using Interbase 2009, Delphi 2007 with Bold and modeldriven development. Now my hope is that someone here both speaks good SQL and OCL :-) The original SQL: Select Bold_Id, MessageId, ScaniaId, MessageType, MessageTime, Cancellation, ChassieNumber, UserFriendlyFormat, ReceivingOwner, Invalidated, InvalidationReason, (Select Parcel.MCurrentStates From Parcel Where ScaniaEdiSolMessage.ReceivingOwner = Parcel.Bold_Id) as ParcelState From ScaniaEdiSolMessage Where MessageType = 'IFTMBP' and not Exists (Select * From ScaniaEdiSolMessage EdiSolMsg Where EdiSolMsg.ChassieNumber = ScaniaEdiSolMessage.ChassieNumber and EdiSolMsg.ShipFromFinland = ScaniaEdiSolMessage.ShipFromFinland and EdiSolMsg.MessageType = 'IFTMBF') and invalidated = 0 Order By MessageTime desc After a small simplification: Select Bold_Id, (Select Parcel.MCurrentStates From Parcel where ScaniaEdiSolMessage.ReceivingOwner = Parcel.Bold_Id) From ScaniaEdiSolMessage Where MessageType = 'IFTMBP' and not Exists (Select * From ScaniaEdiSolMessage EdiSolMsg Where EdiSolMsg.ChassieNumber = ScaniaEdiSolMessage.ChassieNumber and EdiSolMsg.ShipFromFinland = ScaniaEdiSolMessage.ShipFromFinland and EdiSolMsg.MessageType = 'IFTMBF') and invalidated = 0 NOTE: There are 2 cases for MessageType, 'IFTMBP' and 'IFTMBF'. So the table to be listed is ScaniaEdiSolMessage. It has attributes like: MessageType: String ChassiNumber: String ShipFromFinland: Boolean Invalidated: Boolean It has also a link to table Parcel named ReceivingOwner with BoldId as key. So it seems like it list all rows of ScaniaEdiSolMessage and then have a subquery that also list all rows of ScaniaEdiSolMessage and name it EdiSolMsg. The it exclude almost all rows. In fact the query above give one hit from 28000 records. In OCL it is easy to list all instances: ScaniaEdiSolMessage.allinstances Also easy to filter rows by select for example: ScaniaEdiSolMessage.allinstances->select(shipFromFinland and not invalidated) But I do not understand how I should make a OCL to match the SQL above.

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  • Initial text and paperclipped-URL for action in UIActivityViewController & UIActivityItemSource?

    - by Benjamin Kreeger
    Finally been making it through Apple's (rather dismal) documentation on the new UIActivityViewController class and the UIActivityItemSource protocol, and I'm trying to send different data sets to different actions called from the activity view. To simplify things, I'm looking at two things. A Facebook posting action, which should say "Check this out!" and also attach a URL to the post (with that cute little paperclip). A Twitter posting action, which should say "Check this out, with #hashtag!" and also attach that same URL (with the same paperclip). Here's the code I've got implemented right now. - (id)activityViewController:(UIActivityViewController *)activityViewController itemForActivityType:(NSString *)activityType { if ([activityType isEqualToString:UIActivityTypePostToFacebook]) { return @"Check this out!"; } else if ([activityType isEqualToString:UIActivityTypePostToTwitter]) { return @"Check this out, with #hashtag!"; } return @""; } - (id)activityViewControllerPlaceholderItem:(UIActivityViewController *)activityViewController { return @""; } And then when I set up this activity view controller (it's in the same class), this is what I do. UIActivityViewController *activityView = [[UIActivityViewController alloc] initWithActivityItems:@[self] applicationActivities:nil]; [self presentViewController:activityView animated:YES completion:nil]; My dilemma is how to attach that NSURL object. It's relatively easy when calling the iOS 6 SL-class posting modals; you just call the individual methods to attach a URL or an image. How would I go about doing this here? I'll note that instead of returning NSString objects from -activityViewController:itemForActivityType, if I return just NSURL objects, they show up with that paperclip, with no body text in the post. If I return an array of those two items, nothing shows up at all.

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  • continueTrackingWithTouch: withEvent: not being called continuously.

    - by Steven Noyes
    I have a very simply subclass of UIButton that will fire off a custom event when the button has been held for 2 seconds. To accomplish this, I overrode: // // Mouse tracking // - (BOOL)beginTrackingWithTouch:(UITouch *)touch withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { [super beginTrackingWithTouch:touch withEvent:event]; [self setTimeButtonPressed:[NSDate date]]; return (YES); } - (BOOL)continueTrackingWithTouch:(UITouch *)touch withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { [super continueTrackingWithTouch:touch withEvent:event]; if ([[self timeButtonPressed] timeIntervalSinceNow] > 2.0) { // // disable the button. This will eventually fire the event // but this is just stubbed to act as a break point area. // [self setEnabled:NO]; [self setSelected:NO]; } return (YES); } My problem is (this is in the simulator, can't do on device work quite yet) "continueTrackingWithTouch: withEvent:" is not being called unless the mouse is actually moved. It does not take much motion, but it does take some motion. By returning "YES" in both of these, I should be setup to receive continuous events. Is this an oddity of the simulator or am I doing something wrong? NOTE: userInteractionEnabled is set to YES. NOTE2: I could setup a timer in beginTrackingWithTouch: withEvent: but that seems like more effort for something that should be simple.

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  • Ignore LD_LIBRARY_PATH and stick with library given through -rpath at link time

    - by roe
    I'm sitting in an environment which I have no real control over (it's not just me, so basically, I can't change the environment or it won't work for anyone else), the only thing I can affect is how the binary is built. My problem is, the environment specifies an LD_LIBRARY_PATH containing a libstdc++ which is not compatible with the compiler being used. I tried compiling it statically, but that doesn't seem possible for g++ (version 4.2.3, seems to have been work done in this direction in later versions though which are not available, -static-libstdc++ or something like that). Now I've arrived at using rpath to bake the absolute path name into the executable (would work, all machines it's supposed to run on are identical). Unfortunately it appears as though LD_LIBRARY_PATH takes precedence over rpath (resetting LD_LIBRARY_PATH confirmed that it's able to find the library, but as stated above, LD_LIBRARY_PATH will be set for everyone, and I cannot change that). Is there any way I can make rpath take precedence over LD_LIBRARY_PATH, or are there any other possible solutions to my problem? Note that I'm talking about dynamic linking at runtime, I am able to control the command line at compile and link time. Thanks.

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  • SQL Server: Clustering by timestamp; pros/cons

    - by Ian Boyd
    I have a table in SQL Server, where i want inserts to be added to the end of the table (as opposed to a clustering key that would cause them to be inserted in the middle). This means I want the table clustered by some column that will constantly increase. This could be achieved by clustering on a datetime column: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... CreatedDate datetime DEFAULT getdate(), [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (CreatedDate) ) But I can't guaranteed that two Things won't have the same time. So my requirements can't really be achieved by a datetime column. I could add a dummy identity int column, and cluster on that: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... RowID int IDENTITY(1,1), [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (RowID) ) But you'll notice that my table already constains a timestamp column; a column which is guaranteed to be a monotonically increasing. This is exactly the characteristic I want for a candidate cluster key. So I cluster the table on the rowversion (aka timestamp) column: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (timestamp) ) Rather than adding a dummy identity int column (RowID) to ensure an order, I use what I already have. What I'm looking for are thoughts of why this is a bad idea; and what other ideas are better. Note: Community wiki, since the answers are subjective.

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  • “Could not find type” error loading a form in the Designer

    - by Vaccano
    This is the exact same question as this one: “Could not find type” error loading a form in the Designer Before anyone goes closing my question please read that one. You will realize that it did not get a real answer. I hope to get a full answer (rather than a workaround) from this question. When I create a class that descends from Control and uses generics, that class fails to load in the designer. Here is and example: class OwnerDrawnListBox<T> : System.Windows.Forms.Control { private readonly List<T> _items; // Other list box private stuff here public OwnerDrawnListBox() { _items = new List<T>(); } // More List box code } I then use this in my designer: private OwnerDrawnListBox<Bag> lstAvailable; private void InitializeComponent() { // Used to be System.Windows.Forms.ListBox(); this.lstAvailable = new ARUP.ScanTrack.Mobile.OwnerDrawnListBox<Bag>(); // Other items } If the generic class is subclassed (to a non-generic) then the referenced question says that it works fine (ie if I made Class BagOwnerDrawListBox: OwnerDrawnListBox<Bag>). What I want to know is there a way to "fix" this so that the generic item is accepted by the designer? Side Note: I am using the Compact Framework.

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  • Question about creating device-compatible bitmaps in C#

    - by MusiGenesis
    I am storing bitmap-like data in a two-dimensional int array. To convert this array into a GDI-compatible bitmap (for use with BitBlt), I am using this function: public IntPtr GetGDIBitmap(int[,] data) { int w = data.GetLength(0); int h = data.GetLength(1); IntPtr ret = IntPtr.Zero; using (Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(w, h)) { for (int x = 0; x < w; x++) { for (int y = 0; y < h; y++) { Color color = Color.FromArgb(data[x, y]); bmp.SetPixel(x, y, color); } } ret = bmp.GetHbitmap(); } return ret; } This works as expected, but the call to bmp.GetHbitmap() has to allocate memory for the returned bitmap. I'd like to modify this method in two (probably related) ways: I'd like to remove the intermediate Bitmap from the above code entirely, and go directly from my int[,] array to the device-compatible bitmap (i.e. the IntPtr). I presume this would involve calling CreateCompatibleBitmap, but I don't know how to go from that call to actually manipulating the pixel values. This should logically follow from the answer to the first, but I'd also like my method to re-use existing GDI bitmap handles (instead of creating a new bitmap each time). How can I do this? NOTE: I don't really use Bitmap.SetPixel(), as its performance could best be described as "glacial". The code is just for illustration.

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  • .Net xsd.exe tool doesn't generate all types

    - by Mrchief
    For some reason, MS .Net (v3.5) tool - xsd.exe doesn't generate types when they are not used inside any element. e.g. XSD File (I threw in the complex element to avoid this warning - "Warning: cannot generate classes because no top-level elements with complex type were found."): <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xs:schema targetNamespace="http://tempuri.org/XMLSchema.xsd" elementFormDefault="qualified" xmlns="http://tempuri.org/XMLSchema.xsd" xmlns:mstns="http://tempuri.org/XMLSchema.xsd" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" > <xs:simpleType name="EnumTest"> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:enumeration value="item1" /> <xs:enumeration value="item2" /> <xs:enumeration value="item3" /> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> <xs:complexType name="myComplexType"> <xs:attribute name="Name" use="required" type="xs:string"/> </xs:complexType> <xs:element name="myElem" type="myComplexType"></xs:element> </xs:schema> When i run this thru xsd.exe using xsd /c xsdfile.xsd I don't see EnumTest in the generated cs file. Note; Even though I don't use the enum here, but in my actual project, I have cases like this where we send enum's string value as output. How can I force the xsd tool to include these? Or should I switch to some other tool? I work in Visual Studio 2008.

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  • not able to Deserialize object

    - by Ravisha
    I am having following peice of code ,where in i am trying to serialize and deserailize object of StringResource class. Please note Resource1.stringXml = its coming from resource file.If i pass strelemet.outerXMl i get the object from Deserialize object ,but if i pass Resource1.stringXml i am getting following exception {"< STRING xmlns='' was not expected."} System.Exception {System.InvalidOperationException} class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { StringResource str = new StringResource(); str.DELETE = "CanDelete"; str.ID= "23342"; XmlElement strelemet = SerializeObjectToXmlNode (str); StringResource strResourceObject = DeSerializeXmlNodeToObject<StringResource>(Resource1.stringXml); Console.ReadLine(); } public static T DeSerializeXmlNodeToObject<T>(string objectNodeOuterXml) { try { TextReader objStringsTextReader = new StringReader(objectNodeOuterXml); XmlSerializer stringResourceSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(T),string.Empty); return (T)stringResourceSerializer.Deserialize(objStringsTextReader); } catch (Exception excep) { return default(T); } } public static XmlElement SerializeObjectToXmlNode(object obj) { using (MemoryStream memoryStream = new MemoryStream()) { try { XmlSerializerNamespaces xmlNameSpace = new XmlSerializerNamespaces(); xmlNameSpace.Add(string.Empty, string.Empty); XmlWriterSettings writerSettings = new XmlWriterSettings(); writerSettings.CloseOutput = false; writerSettings.Encoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; writerSettings.Indent = false; writerSettings.OmitXmlDeclaration = true; XmlWriter writer = XmlWriter.Create(memoryStream, writerSettings); XmlSerializer xmlserializer = new XmlSerializer(obj.GetType()); xmlserializer.Serialize(writer, obj, xmlNameSpace); writer.Close(); memoryStream.Position = 0; XmlDocument serializeObjectDoc = new XmlDocument(); serializeObjectDoc.Load(memoryStream); return serializeObjectDoc.DocumentElement; } catch (Exception excep) { return null; } } } } public class StringResource { [XmlAttribute] public string DELETE; [XmlAttribute] public string ID; }

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  • Destructuring assignment in JavaScript

    - by Anders Rune Jensen
    As can be seen in the Mozilla changlog for JavaScript 1.7 they have added destructuring assignment. Sadly I'm not very fond of the syntax (why write a and b twice?): var a, b; [a, b] = f(); Something like this would have been a lot better: var [a, b] = f(); That would still be backwards compatible. Python-like destructuring would not be backwards compatible. Anyway the best solution for JavaScript 1.5 that I have been able to come up with is: function assign(array, map) { var o = Object(); var i = 0; $.each(map, function(e, _) { o[e] = array[i++]; }); return o; } Which works like: var array = [1,2]; var _ = assign[array, { var1: null, var2: null }); _.var1; // prints 1 _.var2; // prints 2 But this really sucks because _ has no meaning. It's just an empty shell to store the names. But sadly it's needed because JavaScript doesn't have pointers. On the plus side you can assign default values in the case the values are not matched. Also note that this solution doesn't try to slice the array. So you can't do something like {first: 0, rest: 0}. But that could easily be done, if one wanted that behavior. What is a better solution?

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  • Need variable width negative lookbehind replacement

    - by Technoh
    I have looked at many questions here (and many more websites) and some provided hints but none gave me a definitive answer. I know regular expressions but I am far from being a guru. This particular question deals with regex in PHP. I need to locate words in a text that are not surrounded by a hyperlink of a given class. For example, I might have This <a href="blabblah" class="no_check">elephant</a> is green and this elephant is blue while this <a href="blahblah">elephant</a> is red. I would need to match against the second and third elephants but not the first (identified by test class "no_check"). Note that there could more attributes than just href and class within hyperlinks. I came up with ((?<!<a .*class="no_check".*>)\belephant\b) which works beautifully in regex test software but not in PHP. Any help is greatly appreciated. If you cannot provide a regular expression but can find some sort of PHP code logic that would circumvent the need for it, I would be equally grateful.

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  • MySQL Query That Can Pull the Data I am Seeking?

    - by Amy
    On the project I am working on, I am stuck with the table structure from Hades. Two things to keep in mind: I can't change the table structure right now. I'm stuck with it for the time being. The queries are dynamically generated and not hard coded. So, while I am asking for a query that can pull this data, what I am really working toward is an algorithm that will generate the query I need. Hopefully, I can explain the problem without making your eyes glaze over and your brain implode. We have an instance table that looks (simplified) along these lines: Instances InstanceID active 1 Y 2 Y 3 Y 4 N 5 Y 6 Y Then, there are multiple data tables along these lines: Table1 InstanceID field1 reference_field2 1 John 5 2 Sally NULL 3 Fred 6 4 Joe NULL Table2 InstanceID field3 5 1 6 1 Table3 InstanceID fieldID field4 5 1 Howard 5 2 James 6 2 Betty Please note that reference_field2 in Table1 contains a reference to another instance. Field3 in Table2 is a bit more complicated. It contains a fieldID for Table 3. What I need is a query that will get me a list as follows: InstanceID field1 field4 1 John Howard 2 Sally 3 Fred The problem is, in the query I currently have, I do not get Fred because there is no entry in Table3 for fieldID 1 and InstanceID 6. So, the very best list I have been able to get thus far is InstanceID field1 field4 1 John Howard 2 Sally In essence, if there is an entry in Table1 for Field 2, and there is not an entry in Table 3 that has the instanceID contained in field2 and the field ID contained in field3, I don't get the data from field1. I have looked at joins till I'm blue in the face, and I can't see a way to handle the case when table3 has no entry.

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  • Mysql Server Optimization

    - by Ish Kumar
    Hi Geeks, We are having serious MySQL(InnoDB) performance issues at a moment when we do: (10-20) insertions on TABLE1 (10-20) updates on TABLE2 Note: Both above operations happens within fraction of a second. And this occurs every few (10-15) minutes. And all online users (approx 400-600) doing read operation on join of TABLE1 & TABLE2 every 1 second. Here is our mysql configuration info: http://docs.google.com/View?id=dfrswh7c_117fmgcmb44 Issues: Lot queries wait and expire later (saw it from phpmyadmin / processes). My poor MySQL server crashes sometimes Questions Q1: Any suggestions to optimize at MySQL level? Q2: I thinking to use persistent connections at application level, is it right? Info Added Later: Database Engine: InnoDB TABLE1 : 400,000 rows (inserting 8,000 daily) & TABLE2: 8,000 rows 1 second query: SELECT b.id, b.user_id, b.description, b.debit, b.created, b.price, u.username, u.email, u.mobile FROM TABLE1 b, TABLE2 u WHERE b.credit = 0 AND b.user_id = u.id AND b.auction_id = "12345" ORDER BY b.id DESC LIMIT 10; // there are few more but they are not so critical. Indexing is good, we are using them wisely. In above query all id's are indexed And TABLE1 has frequent insertions and TABLE2 has frequent updates.

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  • Is MVC 2 client-side validation broken in Visual Studio 2010 RC?

    - by Will
    I can't seem to get client side validation working with the version of MVC released with Visual Studio 2010 RC. I've tried it with two projects -- one upgrade from 1.0, and one using the template that came with VS. I'd think the template version would work, but it doesn't. Added the following scripts: <script type="text/javascript" src="<%= Url.Content("~/Scripts/MicrosoftMvcValidation.js") %>"> </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="<%= Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.validate.js")%>"> </script> which are downloaded to the client correctly. Added the following to my form page: <% Html.EnableClientValidation(); %> <%--yes, am aware of the EndForm() bug! --%> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <%--snip --%> and I can see the client validation scripts have been added to the bottom of the form. But still client validation never happens. What is worse is that in my upgraded project, the client validation scripts are never output in the page! PLEASE NOTE: I am specifically asking about the version of MVC2 that came with VS2010 RC. Also, I do know how to google; please don't waste anybody's time searching and answering if you aren't familiar with this issue in the release candidate of Visual Studio. Thanks.

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  • How to restrain one's self from the overwhelming urge to rewrite everything?

    - by Scott Saad
    Setup Have you ever had the experience of going into a piece of code to make a seemingly simple change and then realizing that you've just stepped into a wasteland that deserves some serious attention? This usually gets followed up with an official FREAK OUT moment, where the overwhelming feeling of rewriting everything in sight starts to creep up. It's important to note that this bad code does not necessarily come from others as it may indeed be something we've written or contributed to in the past. Problem It's obvious that there is some serious code rot, horrible architecture, etc. that needs to be dealt with. The real problem, as it relates to this question, is that it's not the right time to rewrite the code. There could be many reasons for this: Currently in the middle of a release cycle, therefore any changes should be minimal. It's 2:00 AM in the morning, and the brain is starting to shut down. It could have seemingly adverse affects on the schedule. The rabbit hole could go much deeper than our eyes are able to see at this time. etc... Question So how should we balance the duty of continuously improving the code, while also being a responsible developer? How do we refrain from contributing to the broken window theory, while also being aware of actions and the potential recklessness they may cause? Update Great answers! For the most part, there seems to be two schools of thought: Don't resist the urge as it's a good one to have. Don't give in to the temptation as it will burn you to the ground. It would be interesting to know if more people feel any balance exists.

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  • Is it possible to use 2 versions of jQuery on the same page?

    - by Ben McCormack
    NOTE: I know similar questions have already been asked here and here, but I'm looking for additional clarification as to how to make this work. I'm adding functionality to an existing web site that is already using an older version of the jQuery library (1.1.3.1). I've been writing my added functionality against the newest version of the jQuery library (1.4.2). I've tested the website using only the newer version of jQuery and it breaks functionality, so now I'm looking at using both versions on the same page. How is this possible? What do I need to do in my code to specify that I'm using one version of jQuery instead of another? For example, I'll put <script> tags for both versions of jQuery in the header of my page, but what do I need to do so that I know for sure in my calling code that I'm calling one version of the library or another? Maybe something like this: //Put some code here to specify a variable that will be using the newer //version of jquery: var $NEW = jQuery.theNewestVersion(); //Now when I use $NEW, I'll know it's the newest version and won't //conflict with the older version. $NEW('#personName').text('Ben'); //And when I use the original $ in code, or simply 'jquery', I'll know //it's the older version. $('#personName').doSomethingWithTheOlderVersion();

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  • Visual Studio 2008 project file does not load because of an unexpected encoding change.

    - by Xenan
    In our team we have a database project in visual Studio 2008 which is under source control by Team Foundation Server. Every two weeks or so, after one co-worker checks in, the project file won't load on the other developers machines. The error message is: The project file could not be loaded. Data at the root level is invalid. Line 1, position 1. When I look at the project file in Notepad++, the file looks like this: ??<NUL?NULxNULmNULlNUL NULvNULeNULrNULsNULiNULoNULnNUL ... and so on (you can see <?xml version in this) whereas an normal project file looks like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-16"?> ... So probably something is wrong with the encoding of the file. This is a problem for us because it turns out to be impossible to get the file encoding correct again. The 'solution' is to throw away the project file an get the last know working version from source control. According to the file, the encoding should be UTF-16. According to Notepad++, the corrupted file is actually UTF-8. My questions are: Why is Visual Studio messing up the encoding of the project file, apparently at random times and at random machines? What should we do to prevent this? When it has happened, is there a possibility to restore the current file in the correct encoding instead of pulling an older version from source control? As a last note: the problem is with one single project file, all other project files don't expose this problem.

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  • Can a standalone ruby script (windows and mac) reload and restart itself?

    - by user30997
    I have a master-workers architecture where the number of workers is growing on a weekly basis. I can no longer be expected to ssh or remote console into each machine to kill the worker, do a source control sync, and restart. I would like to be able to have the master place a message out on the network that tells each machine to sync and restart. That's where I hit a roadblock. If I were using any sane platform, I could just do: exec('ruby', __FILE__) ...and be done. However, I did the following test: p Process.pid sleep 1 exec('ruby', __FILE__) ...and on Windows, I get one ruby instance for each call to exec. None of them die until I hit ^C on the window in question. On every platform I tried this on, it is executing the new version of the file each time, which I have verified this by making simple edits to the test script while the test marched along. The reason I'm printing the pid is to double-check the behavior I'm seeing. On windows, I am getting a different pid with each execution - which I would expect, considering that I am seeing a new process in the task manager for each run. The mac is behaving correctly: the pid is the same for every system call and I have verified with dtrace that each run is trigging a call to the execve syscall. So, in short, is there a way to get a windows ruby script to restart its execution so it will be running any code - including itself - that has changed during its execution? Please note that this is not a rails application, though it does use activerecord.

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