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• Sharepoint fails to load a C++ dll on windows 2008

  - by Nathan

  I have a sharepoint DLL that does some licensing things and as part of the code it uses an external C++ DLL to get the serial number of the hardisk. When i run this application on windows server 2003 it works fine, but on 2008 the whole site (loaded on load) crashes and resets continually. This is not 2008 R2 and is the same in 64 or 32 bits. If i put a debugger.break before the dll execution then I see the code get to the point of the break then never come back into the dll again. I do get some debug assertion warnings from within the function, again only in 2008, but im not sure this is related. I created a console app that runs the c# dll, which in turn loads the c++ dll, and this works perfectly on 2008 (although does show the assertion errors, but I have suppressed these now). The assertion errors are not in my code but within ICtypes.c and not something I can debug. If i put a breakpoint in the DLL it is never hit and the compiler says : "step in: Stepping over non user code" if i try to debug into the DLL using VS. I have tried wrapping the code used to call the DLL in: SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() but this also does not help. I have the sourcecode for this DLL so that is not a problem. If i delete the DLL from the directory I get an error about a missing DLL, if i replace it back to no error or warning just a complete failure. If i replace this code with a hardcoded string the whole application works fine. Any advice would be much appreciated, I can't understand why it works as a console app yet not when run by sharepoint, this is with the same user account, on the same machine... This is the code used to call the DLL: [DllImport("idDll.dll", EntryPoint = "GetMachineId", SetLastError = true)] extern static string GetComponentId([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)]String s); public static string GetComponentId() { Debugger.Break(); if (_machine == string.Empty) { string temp = ""; id= ComponentId.GetComponentId(temp); } return id; }

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• JPA entitylisteners and @embeddable

  - by seanizer

  I have a class hierarchy of JPA entities that all inherit from a BaseEntity class: @MappedSuperclass @EntityListeners( { ValidatorListener.class }) public abstract class BaseEntity implements Serializable { // other stuff } I want all entities that implement a given interface to be validated automatically on persist and/or update. Here's what I've got. My ValidatorListener: public class ValidatorListener { private enum Type { PERSIST, UPDATE } @PrePersist public void checkPersist(final Object entity) { if (entity instanceof Validateable) { this.check((Validateable) entity, Type.PERSIST); } } @PreUpdate public void checkUpdate(final Object entity) { if (entity instanceof Validateable) { this.check((Validateable) entity, Type.UPDATE); } } private void check(final Validateable entity, final Type persist) { switch (persist) { case PERSIST: if (entity instanceof Persist) { ((Persist) entity).persist(); } if (entity instanceof PersistOrUpdate) { ((PersistOrUpdate) entity).persistOrUpdate(); } break; case UPDATE: if (entity instanceof Update) { ((Update) entity).update(); } if (entity instanceof PersistOrUpdate) { ((PersistOrUpdate) entity).persistOrUpdate(); } break; default: break; } } } and here's my Validateable interface that it checks against (the outer interface is just a marker, the inner contain the methods): public interface Validateable { interface Persist extends Validateable { void persist(); } interface PersistOrUpdate extends Validateable { void persistOrUpdate(); } interface Update extends Validateable { void update(); } } All of this works, however I would like to extend this behavior to Embeddable classes. I know two solutions: call the validation method of the embeddable object manually from the entity validation method: public void persistOrUpdate(){ // validate my own properties first // then manually validate the embeddable property: myEmbeddable.persistOrUpdate(); // this works but I'd like something that I don't have to call manually } use reflection, checking all properties to see if their type is of one of their interface types. This would work, but it's not pretty. Is there a more elegant solution?

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• Python: eliminating stack traces into library code?

  - by Mark Harrison

  When I get a runtime exception from the standard library, it's almost always a problem in my code and not in the library code. Is there a way to truncate the exception stack trace so that it doesn't show the guts of the library package? For example, I would like to get this: Traceback (most recent call last): File "./lmd3-mkhead.py", line 71, in <module> main() File "./lmd3-mkhead.py", line 66, in main create() File "./lmd3-mkhead.py", line 41, in create headver1[depotFile]=rev TypeError: Data values must be of type string or None. and not this: Traceback (most recent call last): File "./lmd3-mkhead.py", line 71, in <module> main() File "./lmd3-mkhead.py", line 66, in main create() File "./lmd3-mkhead.py", line 41, in create headver1[depotFile]=rev File "/usr/anim/modsquad/oses/fc11/lib/python2.6/bsddb/__init__.py", line 276, in __setitem__ _DeadlockWrap(wrapF) # self.db[key] = value File "/usr/anim/modsquad/oses/fc11/lib/python2.6/bsddb/dbutils.py", line 68, in DeadlockWrap return function(*_args, **_kwargs) File "/usr/anim/modsquad/oses/fc11/lib/python2.6/bsddb/__init__.py", line 275, in wrapF self.db[key] = value TypeError: Data values must be of type string or None.

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• Implementing client callback functionality in WCF

  - by PoweredByOrange

  The project I'm working on is a client-server application with all services written in WCF and the client in WPF. There are cases where the server needs to push information to the client. I initially though about using WCF Duplex Services, but after doing some research online, I figured a lot of people are avoiding it for many reasons. The next thing I thought about was having the client create a host connection, so that the server could use that to make a service call to the client. The problem however, is that the application is deployed over the internet, so that approach requires configuring the firewall to allow incoming traffic and since most of the users are regular users, that might also require configuring the router to allow port forwarding, which again is a hassle for the user. My third option is that in the client, spawns a background thread which makes a call to the GetNotifications() method on server. This method on the server side then, blocks until an actual notification is created, then the thread is notified (using an AutoResetEvent object maybe?) and the information gets sent to the client. The idea is something like this: Client private void InitializeListener() { Task.Factory.StartNew(() => { while (true) { var notification = server.GetNotifications(); // Display the notification. } }, CancellationToken.None, TaskCreationOptions.LongRunning, TaskScheduler.Default); } Server public NotificationObject GetNotifications() { while (true) { notificationEvent.WaitOne(); return someNotificationObject; } } private void NotificationCreated() { // Inform the client of this event. notificationEvent.Set(); } In this case, NotificationCreated() is a callback method called when the server needs to send information to the client. What do you think about this approach? Is this scalable at all?

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• NSMutableArray memory management

  - by chicken

  NSMutableArray *a1 = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *a2 = [NSMutableArray array]; TempObj *obj = [[TempObj alloc] init]; //assume this line is repeated for each obj [a1 addObject:obj]; [a1 addObject:obj2]; [a1 addObject:obj3]; [a1 addObject:obj4]; [obj release]; [obj2 release]; [obj3 release]; [obj4 release]; [a1 release]; Ok so a2 is an autorelease obj so i dont have to call release on it? Also how do you know when you get an autorelease object? And for a1, i dont have to loop through the array and release each object first? What if i called [a1 removeAllObjects]; does that call [[a1 objectAtIndex:#] release]; Am i supposed to release those objects after ive added them to the array?

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• More efficient R / Sweave / TeXShop work-flow?

  - by user594795

  I've now got everything to work properly on my Mac OS X 10.6 machine so that I can create decent looking LaTeX documents with Sweave that include snippets of R code, output, and LaTeX formatting together. Unfortunately, I feel like my work-flow is a bit clunky and inefficient: Using TextWrangler, I write LaTeX code and R code (surrounded by <<= above and @ below R code chunk) together in one .Rnw file. After saving changes, I call the .Rnw file from R using the Sweave command Sweave(file="/Users/mymachine/Documents/Assign4.Rnw", syntax="SweaveSyntaxNoweb") In response, R outputs the following message: You can now run LaTeX on 'Assign4.tex' So then I find the .tex file (Assign4.tex) in the R directory and copy it over to the folder in my documents ~/Documents/ where the .Rnw file is sitting (to keep everything in one place). Then I open the .tex file (e.g. Assign4.tex) in TeXShop and compile it there into pdf format. It is only at this point that I get to see any changes I have made to the document and see if it 'looks nice'. Is there a way that I can compile everything with one button click? Specifically it would be nice to either call Sweave / R directly from TextWrangler or TeXShop. I suspect it might be possible to code a script in Terminal to do it, but I have no experience with Terminal. Please let me know if there's any other things I can do to streamline or improve my work flow.

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• Is there a general-purpose printf-ish routine defined in any C standard

  - by supercat

  In many C libraries, there is a printf-style routine which is something like the following: int __vgprintf(void *info, (void)(*print_function(void*, char)), const char *format, va_list params); which will format the supplied string and call print_function with the passed-in info value and each character in sequence. A function like fprintf will pass __vgprintf the passed-in file parameter and a pointer to a function which will cast its void* to a FILE* and output the passed-in character to that file. A function like snprintf will create a struct holding a char* and length, and pass the address of that struct to a function which will output each character in sequence, space permitting. Is there any standard for such a function, which could be used if e.g. one wanted a function to output an arbitrary format to a TCP port? A common approach is to allocate a buffer one hopes is big enough, use snprintf to put the data there, and then output the data from the buffer. It would seem cleaner, though, if there were a standard way to to specify that the print formatter should call a user-supplied routine with each character.

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• using yield in C# like I would in Ruby

  - by Sarah Vessels

  Besides just using yield for iterators in Ruby, I also use it to pass control briefly back to the caller before resuming control in the called method. What I want to do in C# is similar. In a test class, I want to get a connection instance, create another variable instance that uses that connection, then pass the variable to the calling method so it can be fiddled with. I then want control to return to the called method so that the connection can be disposed. I guess I'm wanting a block/closure like in Ruby. Here's the general idea: private static MyThing getThing() { using (var connection = new Connection()) { yield return new MyThing(connection); } } [TestMethod] public void MyTest1() { // call getThing(), use yielded MyThing, control returns to getThing() // for disposal } [TestMethod] public void MyTest2() { // call getThing(), use yielded MyThing, control returns to getThing() // for disposal } ... This doesn't work in C#; ReSharper tells me that the body of getThing cannot be an iterator block because MyThing is not an iterator interface type. That's definitely true, but I don't want to iterate through some list. I'm guessing I shouldn't use yield if I'm not working with iterators. Any idea how I can achieve this block/closure thing in C# so I don't have to wrap my code in MyTest1, MyTest2, ... with the code in getThing()'s body?

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• C++ - Basic WinAPI question

  - by HardCoder1986

  Hello! I am now working on a some sort of a game engine and I had an idea to put everything engine-related into a static library and then link it to my actual problem. Right now I achieved it and actually link that library and every functions seem to work fine, except those, which are windows-related. I have a chunk of code in my library that looks like this: hWnd = CreateWindow(className, "Name", WS_OVERLAPPED | WS_CAPTION | WS_EX_TOPMOST, 0, 0, 800, 600, NULL, NULL, GetModuleHandle(NULL), this); if (hWnd) { ShowWindow(hWnd, SW_NORMAL); UpdateWindow(hWnd); } else { MessageBox(NULL, "Internal program error", "Error", MB_OK | MB_ICONERROR); return; } When this code was not in the library, but in the actual project, it worked fine, created the window and everything was ok. Right now (when I'm linking to my library that contains this code) CreateWindow(...) call returns NULL and GetLastError() returns "Operation succesfully completed" (wtf?). Could anybody help me with this? Is it possible to create a window and display it using a static library call and why could my code fail? Thank you.

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• Calling a javascript function from an aspx.cs code behind

  - by David Hodgson

  Hi, I would like to call a javascript function from an aspx control. For instance, suppose I had: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> <script type="text/javascript"> function test(x, y) { } </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" onclick="Button1_Click"/> </div> </form> </body> </html> and in the code behind: protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // do stuff (really going to a database to fill x and y) int[] x = new int[] { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 }; int[] y = new int[] { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 }; // call javascript function as test(x,y); } Is there a way to do it? DUPLICATE:calling-a-javascript-function-at-the-end-of-button-click-code-behind

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• Ruby on Rails controller and architecture with cells

  - by dt

  I decided to try to use the cells plugin from rails: http://cells.rubyforge.org/community.html given that I'm new to Ruby and very used to thinking in terms of components. Since I'm developing the app piecemeal and then putting it together piece by piece, it makes sense to think in terms of components. So, I've been able to get cells working properly inside a single view, which calls a partial. Now, what I would like to be able to do (however, maybe my instincts need to be redirected to be more "Rails-y"), is call a single cell controller and use the parameters to render one output vs. another. Basically, if there were a controller like: def index params[:responsetype] end def processListResponse end def processSearchResponse end And I have two different controller methods that I want to respond to based on the params response type, where I have a single template on the front end and want the inner "component" to render differently depending on what type of request is made. That allows me to reuse the same front-end code. I suppose I could do this with an ajax call instead and just have it rerender the component on the front end, but it would be nice to have the option to do it either way and to understand how to architect Rails a bit better in the process. It seems like there should be a "render" option from within the cells framework to render to a certain controller or view, but it's not working like I expect and I don't know if I'm even in the ballpark. Thanks!

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• What's the "proper" way to retrieve a reference to a ribbon object?

  - by Nick

  For a VSTO workbook project, is there a best practice for retrieving a reference to the Ribbon object from the ThisWorkbook class? Here's what I'm doing: In my Ribbon class, I created a public method called InvalidateControl(string controlID). I need to call that method from the ThisWorkbook class based on when a certain workbook level event fires. But the only way I can see to "get" a reference to that Ribbon object is to do this... // This is all in the ThisWorkbook class Ribbon ribbon; protected override IRibbonExtensibility CreateRibbonExtensibilityObject() { this.ribbon = new Ribbon(); return this.ribbon; } ...which seems a little smelly. I mean, I have to override CreateRibbonExtensibilityObject() regardless; all I'm doing beyond that is maintaining a local reference to the ribbon so I can call methods against it. But it doesn't feel right. Is there another, better way to get that reference in the ThisWorkbook class? Or is this pretty acceptable? Thanks!

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• StructureMap Open Generic Types

  - by Shane Fulmer

  I have the following classes: public interface IRenderer<T> { string Render(T obj); } public class Generic<T> { } public class SampleGenericRenderer<T> : IRenderer<Generic<T>> { public string Render(Generic<T> obj) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } I would like to be able to call StructureMap with ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IRenderer<Generic<string>>>(); and receive SampleGenericRenderer<string>. I'm currently using the following registration and receiving this error when I call GetInstance. "Unable to cast object of type 'ConsoleApplication1.SampleGenericRenderer'1[ConsoleApplication1.Generic'1[System.String]]' to type 'ConsoleApplication1.IRenderer'1[ConsoleApplication1.Generic'1[System.String]]'." public class CoreRegistry : Registry { public CoreRegistry() { Scan(assemblyScanner => { assemblyScanner.AssemblyContainingType(typeof(IRenderer<>)); assemblyScanner.AddAllTypesOf(typeof(IRenderer<>)); assemblyScanner.ConnectImplementationsToTypesClosing(typeof(IRenderer<>)); }); } } Is there any way to configure StructureMap so that it creates SampleGenericRenderer<string> instead of SampleGenericRenderer<Generic<string>>?

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• How to partition a plane

  - by puls200

  Let's say I have a fixed number (X) of points, e.g. coordinates within a given plane (I think you can call it a 2-D point cloud). These points should be partitioned into Y polygons where Y < X. The polygons should not overlap. It would be wonderful if the polygons were konvex (like a Voronoi diagram). Imagine it like locations forming countries. For example, I have 12 points and want to create 3 polygons with 4 points each. I thought about creating a grid which covers the points. Then iterate across the points, assigning them to the closest grid cells. Maybe I miss the obvious? I am sure there are better solutions. Thanks, Daniel I just found an optimization (kmeans++) .Maybe this will yield better results..

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• Exceptional C++[Bug]?

  - by gautam kumar

  I have been reading Exceptional C++ by Herb Sutter. On reaching Item 32 I found the following namespace A { struct X; struct Y; void f( int ); void g( X ); } namespace B { void f( int i ) { f( i ); // which f()? } } This f() calls itself, with infinite recursion. The reason is that the only visible f() is B::f() itself. There is another function with signature f(int), namely the one in namespace A. If B had written "using namespace A;" or "using A::f;", then A::f(int) would have been visible as a candidate when looking up f(int), and the f(i) call would have been ambiguous between A::f(int) and B::f(int). Since B did not bring A::f(int) into scope, however, only B::f(int) can be considered, so the call unambiguously resolves to B::f(int). But when I did the following.. namespace A { struct X; struct Y; void f( int ); void g( X ); } namespace B { using namespace A; void f( int i ) { f( i ); // No error, why? } } That means Herb Sutter has got it all wrong? If not why dont I get an error?

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• ajaxStart() showing loading message doesn't seem to work....

  - by Pandiya Chendur

  I user jquery.ajax call to controller of asp.net mvc... I would like to show a loading indicator.. I tried this but that doesn't seem to work... <div class="loading" style="padding-left:5px; margin-bottom:5px;display:none;"> Loading...&nbsp </div> and my jquery ajax call looks like this, function getMaterials(currentPage) { $.ajax({ url: "Materials/GetMaterials", data: {'currentPage': (currentPage + 1) ,'pageSize':5}, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", global: false, async: false, dataType: "json", success: function(data) { var divs = ''; $("#ResultsDiv").empty(); $.each(data.Results, function() { //my logic here.... $(".loading").bind("ajaxStart", function() { $(this).show(); }).bind("ajaxStop", function() { $(this).hide(); }); } }); return false; } My loading indicator doen't seem to showup.. ANy suggestion....

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• jquery dialog is clearing my form fields and I need to return a value from a jquery dialog

  - by Seth

  1.) I have a jQuery dialog that is opened whenever a particular textbox is focused. The dialog's contents are loaded from ajax and the unique ID of the textbox that was focused is passed in the ajax call (like this): $('[name=start_airport[]],[name=finish_airport[]]').click(function(){   var id = $(this).attr('id');   if($('#use_advanced_airport_selector').attr('checked')) {     $('#advanced_airport_selector').dialog({       open : function() {         $(this).load('/flight-booker/advanced-airport-selector.php?callerID='+id);       }     });     $('#advanced_airport_selector').dialog('open');   } }); (where advanced_airport_selector is an empty div) THAT PART WORKS FINE. However, when I make my ajax call within my dialog, all my form values are reset! No matter what I do, when that dialog opens, all form values are reset (not just the value of the textbox that was focused). I simply don't understand what would cause this behavior! But that's only issue #1. 2.) I need to be able to return a value from that dialog box. I am passing the ID in the ajax query so that I can use a jquery selector to update the caller's value after certain actions are performed within the dialog box. However, I can't actually access that textbox because of DOM_ERRORS that I've never come across. It doesn't make any sense! There's way to much code to post, and it's really hard to explain, so sorry if I'm unclear as to what I'm asking.

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• IE7 & 8 not fireing jQuery click events for elements appended inside a table

  - by Keith

  I have an IE bug that I'm not sure how to fix. Using jQuery I'm dynamically moving a menu to appear on an element on mouseover. My code (simplified) looks something like this: $j = jQuery.noConflict(); $j(document).ready(function() { //do something on the menu clicks $j('div.ico').click(function() { alert($j(this).parent().html()); }); setUpActions('#tableId', '#menuId'); }); //on mouseover set up the actions menu to appear on mouseover function setUpActions(tableSelector, menuSelector) { $j(tableSelector + ' div.test').mouseover(function() { //note that append will move the underlying //DOM element with all events from it's old //parent to the end of this one. $j(this).append($j(menuSelector).show()); }); } This menu doesn't seem to register events correctly for the menu after it's been moved in IE7, IE8 and IE8-as-IE7 (yeah MS, that's really a 'new rendering engine' in IE8, we all believe you). It works as expected in everything else. You can see the behaviour in a basic demo here. In the demo you can see two examples of the issue: The image behind the buttons should change on hover (done with a CSS :hover selector). It works on the first mouseover but then persists. The click event doesn’t fire – however with the dev tools you can manually call it and it is still subscribed. You can see (2) in IE8's dev tools: Open page in IE8 Open dev tools Select "Script" tab and "Console" sub-tab Type: $j('#testFloat div.ico:first').click() to manually call any subscribed events There will be an alert on the page This means that I'm not losing the event subscriptions, they're still there, IE's just not calling them when I click. Does anyone know why this bug occurs (other than just because of IE's venerable engine)? Is there a workaround? Could it be something that I'm doing wrong that just happens to work as expected in everything else?

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• Queueing method calls - any idea how?

  - by TomTom

  I write a heavily asynchronseous application. I am looking for a way to queue method calls, similar to what BeginInvoke / EndInvoke does.... but on my OWN queue. The reaqson is that I am having my own optimized message queueing system using a threadpool but at the same time making sure every component is single threaded in the requests (i.e. one thread only handles messages for a component). I Have a lot of messages going back and forth. For limited use, I would really love to be able to just queue a message call with parameters, instead of having to define my own parameter, method wrapping / unwrapping just for the sake of doing a lot of admnistrative calls. I also do not always want to bypass the queue, and I definitely do not want the sending service to wait for the other service to respond. Anyone knows of a way to intercept a method call? Some way to utilize TransparentProxy / Virtual Proxy for this? ;) ServicedComponent? I would like this to be as little overhead as possible ;)

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• Compiler turning a string& into a basic_string<>&

  - by Shtong

  Hello I'm coming back to C++ after long years spent on other technologies and i'm stuck on some weird behavior when calling some methods taking std::string as parameters : An example of call : LocalNodeConfiguration *LocalNodeConfiguration::ReadFromFile(std::string & path) { // ... throw configuration_file_error(string("Configuration file empty"), path); // ... } When I compile I get this (I cropped file names for readability) : /usr/bin/g++ -g -I/home/shtong/Dev/OmegaNoc/build -I/usr/share/include/boost-1.41.0 -o CMakeFiles/OmegaNocInternals.dir/configuration/localNodeConfiguration.cxx.o -c /home/shtong/Dev/OmegaNoc/source/configuration/localNodeConfiguration.cxx .../localNodeConfiguration.cxx: In static member function ‘static OmegaNoc::LocalNodeConfiguration* OmegaNoc::LocalNodeConfiguration::ReadFromFile(std::string&)’: .../localNodeConfiguration.cxx:72: error: no matching function for call to ‘OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error::configuration_file_error(std::string, std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> >&)’ .../configurationManager.hxx:25: note: candidates are: OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error::configuration_file_error(std::string&, std::string&) .../configurationManager.hxx:22: note: OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error::configuration_file_error(const OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error&) So as I understand it, the compiler is considering that my path parameter turned into a basic_string at some point, thus not finding the constructor overload I want to use. But I don't really get why this transformation happened. Some search on the net suggested me to use g++ but I was already using it. So any other advice would be appreciated :) Thanks

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• Javascript cloned object looses its prototype functions

  - by Jake M

  I am attempting to clone an object in Javascript. I have made my own 'class' that has prototype functions. My Problem: When I clone an object, the clone cant access/call any prototype functions. I get an error when I go to access a prototype function of the clone: clone.render is not a function Can you tell me how I can clone an object and keep its prototype functions This simple JSFiddle demonstrates the error I get: http://jsfiddle.net/VHEFb/1/ function cloneObject(obj) { // Handle the 3 simple types, and null or undefined if (null == obj || "object" != typeof obj) return obj; // Handle Date if (obj instanceof Date) { var copy = new Date(); copy.setTime(obj.getTime()); return copy; } // Handle Array if (obj instanceof Array) { var copy = []; for (var i = 0, len = obj.length; i < len; ++i) { copy[i] = cloneObject(obj[i]); } return copy; } // Handle Object if (obj instanceof Object) { var copy = {}; for (var attr in obj) { if (obj.hasOwnProperty(attr)) copy[attr] = cloneObject(obj[attr]); } return copy; } throw new Error("Unable to copy obj! Its type isn't supported."); } function MyObject(name) { this.name = name; // I have arrays stored in this object also so a simple cloneNode(true) call wont copy those // thus the need for the function cloneObject(); } MyObject.prototype.render = function() { alert("Render executing: "+this.name); } var base = new MyObject("base"); var clone = cloneObject(base); clone.name = "clone"; base.render(); clone.render(); // Error here: "clone.render is not a function"

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• Import CSV to class structure as the user defines

  - by Assimilater

  I have a contact manager program and I would like to offer the feature to import csv files. The problem is that different data sources order the fields in different ways. I thought of programming an interface for the user to tell it the field order and how to handle exceptions. Here is an example line in one of many possible field orders: "ID#","Name","Rank","Address1","Address2","City","State","Country","Zip","Phone#","Email","Join Date","Sponsor ID","Sponsor Name" "Z1234","Call, Anson","STU","1234 E. 6578 S.","","Somecity","TX","United States","012345","000-000-0000","[email protected]","5/24/2010","z12343","Quantum Independence" Notice that in one data field "Name" there is a comma to separate last name and first name and in another there is not. My plan is to have a line for each field (ie ID, Name, City etc.) and a statement "import to" and list box with options like: Don't Import, BusinessJoin Date, First Name, Zip and the program recognizes those as properties of an object... I'd also like the user to be able to record preset field orders so they can re-use them for csv files from the same download source. Then I also need it to check if a record all ready exists (is there a record for Anson Call all ready?) and allow the user to tell it what to do if there is a record (ie mailing address may have changes, so if that field is filled overwrite it, or this mailing address is invalid, leave the current data untouched for this person, overwrite the rest). While I'm capable of coding this...i'm not very excited about it and I'm wondering if there's a tool or set of tools out there to all ready perform most of this functionality... I hope this makes sense...

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• Jquery Ajax + PHP

  - by Kris.Mitchell

  I am having problems with jQuery Ajax and PHP I have my php file set up to echo the data I am gathering from a mysql database. I have verified that the database is returning something and that the string at the end of the function actually contains data. What is happening though, is that it looks like the php echo is happening before the ajax call, causing the php data to be displayed at the top of the page, and not below in proper div. I think it might have something to do with timing of the ajax and the php call, but I am not sure. So, why is the data not getting caught by the .ajax and thrown into the div? Thanks for the help! jQuery $(document).ready(function() { $.ajax({ url: "../database_functions.php", type: "GET", data: "cat=jw&sub=pi&sort=no", cache: false, success: function (html) { alert("Success!"); $('#product-list').html(html); } }); }); PHP echo "Hello World";

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• Stored Procedure: Reducing Table Data

  - by SumGuy

  Hi Guys, A simple question about Stored Procedures. I have one stored procedure collecting a whole bunch of data in a table. I then call this procedure from within another stored procedure. I can copy the data into a new table created in the calling procedure but as far as I can see the tables have to be identical. Is this right? Or is there a way to insert only the data I want? For example.... I have one procedure which returns this: SELECT @batch as Batch, @Count as Qty, pd.Location, cast(pd.GL as decimal(10,3)) as [Length], cast(pd.GW as decimal(10,3)) as Width, cast(pd.GT as decimal(10,3)) as Thickness FROM propertydata pd GROUP BY pd.Location, pd.GL, pd.GW, pd.GT I then call this procedure but only want the following data: DECLARE @BatchTable TABLE ( Batch varchar(50), [Length] decimal(10,3), Width decimal(10,3), Thickness decimal(10,3), ) INSERT @BatchTable (Batch, [Length], Width, Thickness) EXEC dbo.batch_drawings_NEW @batch So in the second command I don't want the Qty and Location values. However the code above keeps returning the error: "Insert Error: Column name or number of supplied values does not match table"

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• Accurately and securely measure the time spent viewing a web page

  - by balpha

  Suppose the following: You have a web page that presents a simple game to a user (e.g. a quiz, a puzzle, etc). The user solves the puzzle, submits the result, and you want to measure as precisely as possible how long they took to solve it. Assume it's quite simple, so we're talking seconds, not hours. Also assume JavaScript is required anyway, so there's no need to think of JS-disabled browsers. Finally, assume we don't want to use anything like Flash, Silverlight, or the like. I can think of several techniques: Simply take the time between the points when the data was sent from the server and when the submission arrives. Since this is exclusively server-side, there's no chance for cheating. However, issues like network latency and page rendering time might make this unfair for users with slow computers / browsers / internet connections. On the first request, just send the page without the actual game data. When everything is loaded so far, retrieve the game data through an AJAX call and populate it into the page. This is similar to 1., but reduces some of the caveats introduced through time spent on overhead. Have the time measured on the client side using JavaScript and submitted alongside with the solution. This would theoretically be the most accurate, but it introduces the possibility of cheating, because you're relying on client data. Use the request time headers of a "ready to play" AJAX call and the result submission request. Same caveat as 3., as it is still client data. A combination of server side and client side measuring with some kind of plausibility analysis. I can't think of a good way, but maybe you can. Thoughts? Other ideas?

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