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  • Incremental Compilation in Eclipse. ASTNode-s and SVN versioning

    - by Alex
    Hi there, I am building up some statistics after analyzing the source code in eclipse. But the overall process is too slow because i rebuild my model every time from scratch after each compilation. I am looking for a way to get only the changed parts of the code (as ASTNodes) and to rebuild just that part of my model. I suppose that even the changed compilation units and not the exact code elements would be enough after the user compiles and still would be a nice optimization. I am sure eclipse is capable of knowing what code elements are changed (and even to know their semantics), because when I use the subclipse plugin my changes are ordered by a code element (an import, a method, a variable declaration, etc). Well.. at least that plugin is capable of knowing that info. Thanks in advance

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  • StructureMap Open Generic Types

    - by Shane Fulmer
    I have the following classes: public interface IRenderer<T> { string Render(T obj); } public class Generic<T> { } public class SampleGenericRenderer<T> : IRenderer<Generic<T>> { public string Render(Generic<T> obj) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } I would like to be able to call StructureMap with ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IRenderer<Generic<string>>>(); and receive SampleGenericRenderer<string>. I'm currently using the following registration and receiving this error when I call GetInstance. "Unable to cast object of type 'ConsoleApplication1.SampleGenericRenderer'1[ConsoleApplication1.Generic'1[System.String]]' to type 'ConsoleApplication1.IRenderer'1[ConsoleApplication1.Generic'1[System.String]]'." public class CoreRegistry : Registry { public CoreRegistry() { Scan(assemblyScanner => { assemblyScanner.AssemblyContainingType(typeof(IRenderer<>)); assemblyScanner.AddAllTypesOf(typeof(IRenderer<>)); assemblyScanner.ConnectImplementationsToTypesClosing(typeof(IRenderer<>)); }); } } Is there any way to configure StructureMap so that it creates SampleGenericRenderer<string> instead of SampleGenericRenderer<Generic<string>>?

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  • PHP static objects giving a fatal error

    - by Webbo
    I have the following PHP code; <?php component_customer_init(); component_customer_go(); function component_customer_init() { $customer = Customer::getInstance(); $customer->set(1); } function component_customer_go() { $customer = Customer::getInstance(); $customer->get(); } class Customer { public $id; static $class = false; static function getInstance() { if(self::$class == false) { self::$class = new Customer; } else { return self::$class; } } public function set($id) { $this->id = $id; } public function get() { print $this->id; } } ?> I get the following error; Fatal error: Call to a member function set() on a non-object in ....../classes/customer.php on line 9 Can anyone tell me why I get this error? I know this code might look strange, but it's based on a component system that I'm writing for a CMS. The aim is to be able to replace HTML tags in the template e.g.; <!-- component:customer-login --> with; <?php component_customer_login(); ?> I also need to call pre-render methods of the "Customer" class to validate forms before output is made etc. If anyone can think of a better way, please let me know but in the first instance, I'd like to know why I get the "Fatal error" mentioned above. Cheers

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  • Implementing client callback functionality in WCF

    - by PoweredByOrange
    The project I'm working on is a client-server application with all services written in WCF and the client in WPF. There are cases where the server needs to push information to the client. I initially though about using WCF Duplex Services, but after doing some research online, I figured a lot of people are avoiding it for many reasons. The next thing I thought about was having the client create a host connection, so that the server could use that to make a service call to the client. The problem however, is that the application is deployed over the internet, so that approach requires configuring the firewall to allow incoming traffic and since most of the users are regular users, that might also require configuring the router to allow port forwarding, which again is a hassle for the user. My third option is that in the client, spawns a background thread which makes a call to the GetNotifications() method on server. This method on the server side then, blocks until an actual notification is created, then the thread is notified (using an AutoResetEvent object maybe?) and the information gets sent to the client. The idea is something like this: Client private void InitializeListener() { Task.Factory.StartNew(() => { while (true) { var notification = server.GetNotifications(); // Display the notification. } }, CancellationToken.None, TaskCreationOptions.LongRunning, TaskScheduler.Default); } Server public NotificationObject GetNotifications() { while (true) { notificationEvent.WaitOne(); return someNotificationObject; } } private void NotificationCreated() { // Inform the client of this event. notificationEvent.Set(); } In this case, NotificationCreated() is a callback method called when the server needs to send information to the client. What do you think about this approach? Is this scalable at all?

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  • XML file does't load when HTML5 video plays

    - by DD77
    I should be able to loads the related XML file and displays the content of the XML file as the video plays back. What am I missing? DEMO JAVSCRIPT // properties var XML_PATH = "http://www.adjustyourset.tv/interview/cuepoints.xml"; var video_width; var video_height; var videos_array=new Array(); // init the application function init() { // call loadXML function loadXML(); } // XML loading function loadXML() { $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: XML_PATH, dataType: "xml", success: function onXMLloaded(xml) { // set cuepoints find("cuepoints"); find("cuepoints"); // loop for each cuepoint $(xml).find('cuepoint').each(function loopingItems(value) { // create an object var obj={timeStamp:$(this).find("timeStamp").text(), desc:$(this).find("desc").text(), thumbLink:$(this).find("thumbLink").text(), price:$(this).find("price").text()}; videos_array.push(obj); // append <ul> and timeStamp $("#mycustomscroll").append('<ul>'); $("#mycustomscroll").append('<a><li id="item">Time Stamp:'+obj.timeStamp+'</li></a>'); }); // close </ul> $("#mycustomscroll").append('</ul>'); // append li tags $("#leftcolumn").append('<li src="'+videos_array[0].desc+'"> <p src="'+videos_array[0].thumbLink+'" /></li>'); // append description $("#price").append(videos_array[0].price); // call addListeners function addListeners(); } }); }

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  • Calling a javascript function from an aspx.cs code behind

    - by David Hodgson
    Hi, I would like to call a javascript function from an aspx control. For instance, suppose I had: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> <script type="text/javascript"> function test(x, y) { } </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" onclick="Button1_Click"/> </div> </form> </body> </html> and in the code behind: protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // do stuff (really going to a database to fill x and y) int[] x = new int[] { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 }; int[] y = new int[] { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 }; // call javascript function as test(x,y); } Is there a way to do it? DUPLICATE:calling-a-javascript-function-at-the-end-of-button-click-code-behind

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  • Turn image in google maps V3?

    - by Ilrodri
    Hi, I need help with JavaScript in google map v3 I have an image and I need to be able to turn it. That works, but the real problem it's that I cant afect an marker cause I don't know how to call it and modify this marker. I show you a part of the code: Marker: sURL = 'http://www.sl2o.com/tc/picture/Fleche.PNG'; iWidth = 97; iHeight = 100; mImage = new google.maps.MarkerImage(sURL, new google.maps.Size(iWidth,iHeight), new google.maps.Point(0,0), new google.maps.Point(Math.round(iWidth/2),Math.round(iHeight/2))); var oMarker = new google.maps.Marker({ 'position': new google.maps.LatLng(iStartLat,iStartLon), 'map': map, 'title': 'mon point', 'icon': mImage }); Then I have this : onload=function(){ rotate.call(document.getElementById('im'),50); } </script> <img id="im" src="http://www.sl2o.com/tc/picture/Fleche.PNG" width="97" height="100" /> So here is it. As you can see, I'm afecting this image and I in fact I need to afect the marker. How can I do it ? Please I need this I'been working in it since hours and hours. Thank you !!

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  • Ruby on Rails controller and architecture with cells

    - by dt
    I decided to try to use the cells plugin from rails: http://cells.rubyforge.org/community.html given that I'm new to Ruby and very used to thinking in terms of components. Since I'm developing the app piecemeal and then putting it together piece by piece, it makes sense to think in terms of components. So, I've been able to get cells working properly inside a single view, which calls a partial. Now, what I would like to be able to do (however, maybe my instincts need to be redirected to be more "Rails-y"), is call a single cell controller and use the parameters to render one output vs. another. Basically, if there were a controller like: def index params[:responsetype] end def processListResponse end def processSearchResponse end And I have two different controller methods that I want to respond to based on the params response type, where I have a single template on the front end and want the inner "component" to render differently depending on what type of request is made. That allows me to reuse the same front-end code. I suppose I could do this with an ajax call instead and just have it rerender the component on the front end, but it would be nice to have the option to do it either way and to understand how to architect Rails a bit better in the process. It seems like there should be a "render" option from within the cells framework to render to a certain controller or view, but it's not working like I expect and I don't know if I'm even in the ballpark. Thanks!

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  • How to partition a plane

    - by puls200
    Let's say I have a fixed number (X) of points, e.g. coordinates within a given plane (I think you can call it a 2-D point cloud). These points should be partitioned into Y polygons where Y < X. The polygons should not overlap. It would be wonderful if the polygons were konvex (like a Voronoi diagram). Imagine it like locations forming countries. For example, I have 12 points and want to create 3 polygons with 4 points each. I thought about creating a grid which covers the points. Then iterate across the points, assigning them to the closest grid cells. Maybe I miss the obvious? I am sure there are better solutions. Thanks, Daniel I just found an optimization (kmeans++) .Maybe this will yield better results..

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  • Code Contracts: Do we have to specify Contract.Requires(...) statements redundantly in delegating me

    - by herzmeister der welten
    I'm intending to use the new .NET 4 Code Contracts feature for future development. This made me wonder if we have to specify equivalent Contract.Requires(...) statements redundantly in a chain of methods. I think a code example is worth a thousand words: public bool CrushGodzilla(string weapon, int velocity) { Contract.Requires(weapon != null); // long code return false; } public bool CrushGodzilla(string weapon) { Contract.Requires(weapon != null); // specify contract requirement here // as well??? return this.CrushGodzilla(weapon, int.MaxValue); } For runtime checking it doesn't matter much, as we will eventually always hit the requirement check, and we will get an error if it fails. However, is it considered bad practice when we don't specify the contract requirement here in the second overload again? Also, there will be the feature of compile time checking, and possibly also design time checking of code contracts. It seems it's not yet available for C# in Visual Studio 2010, but I think there are some languages like Spec# that already do. These engines will probably give us hints when we write code to call such a method and our argument currently can or will be null. So I wonder if these engines will always analyze a call stack until they find a method with a contract that is currently not satisfied? Furthermore, here I learned about the difference between Contract.Requires(...) and Contract.Assume(...). I suppose that difference is also to consider in the context of this question then?

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  • SSIS String or binary data would be truncated. The statement has been terminated.

    - by Subbarao
    When I run SSIS package from BIDS it runs fine without any error / problem. When I try to call it through a ASP.NET website I get the following error - "String or binary data would be truncated. The statement has been terminated." I checked all the columns / data to see if anything is exceeding the limit, everything is fine. I can run the package through command line using dtexec C:dtexec /f "C:\temp\MyTempPackage.dtsx", it executes without any problem . The problem is when I try to run it through ASP.NET. The following is the code that I am trying to use - //DTS Runtime Application Application app = new Application(); //DTS Package Package package = app.LoadPackage(packagePath, null); //Execute and Get the result DTSExecResult result = package.Execute(); I am making a call to a webservice from asp.net which has the above code. Both the webservice and website have identity impersonation enabled. I have identity enabled in my web.config for this <identity impersonate="true" userName="MyUserName" password="MyPassword"/> This problem is only when I am trying to import a Excel file (.xlsx) when I import a .txt file everything is fine. Excel Import blew up in both 32bit and 64bit enviornments. Help on how to make this to work is greatly appreciated.

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  • Why does this simple MySQL procedure take way too long to complete?

    - by Howard Guo
    This is a very simple MySQL stored procedure. Cursor "commission" has only 3000 records, but the procedure call takes more than 30 seconds to run. Why is that? DELIMITER // DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS apply_credit// CREATE PROCEDURE apply_credit() BEGIN DECLARE done tinyint DEFAULT 0; DECLARE _pk_id INT; DECLARE _eid, _source VARCHAR(255); DECLARE _lh_revenue, _acc_revenue, _project_carrier_expense, _carrier_lh, _carrier_acc, _gross_margin, _fsc_revenue, _revenue, _load_count DECIMAL; DECLARE commission CURSOR FOR SELECT pk_id, eid, source, lh_revenue, acc_revenue, project_carrier_expense, carrier_lh, carrier_acc, gross_margin, fsc_revenue, revenue, load_count FROM ct_sales_commission; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR NOT FOUND SET done = 1; DELETE FROM debug; OPEN commission; REPEAT FETCH commission INTO _pk_id, _eid, _source, _lh_revenue, _acc_revenue, _project_carrier_expense, _carrier_lh, _carrier_acc, _gross_margin, _fsc_revenue, _revenue, _load_count; INSERT INTO debug VALUES(concat('row ', _pk_id)); UNTIL done = 1 END REPEAT; CLOSE commission; END// DELIMITER ; CALL apply_credit(); SELECT * FROM debug;

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  • Accurately and securely measure the time spent viewing a web page

    - by balpha
    Suppose the following: You have a web page that presents a simple game to a user (e.g. a quiz, a puzzle, etc). The user solves the puzzle, submits the result, and you want to measure as precisely as possible how long they took to solve it. Assume it's quite simple, so we're talking seconds, not hours. Also assume JavaScript is required anyway, so there's no need to think of JS-disabled browsers. Finally, assume we don't want to use anything like Flash, Silverlight, or the like. I can think of several techniques: Simply take the time between the points when the data was sent from the server and when the submission arrives. Since this is exclusively server-side, there's no chance for cheating. However, issues like network latency and page rendering time might make this unfair for users with slow computers / browsers / internet connections. On the first request, just send the page without the actual game data. When everything is loaded so far, retrieve the game data through an AJAX call and populate it into the page. This is similar to 1., but reduces some of the caveats introduced through time spent on overhead. Have the time measured on the client side using JavaScript and submitted alongside with the solution. This would theoretically be the most accurate, but it introduces the possibility of cheating, because you're relying on client data. Use the request time headers of a "ready to play" AJAX call and the result submission request. Same caveat as 3., as it is still client data. A combination of server side and client side measuring with some kind of plausibility analysis. I can't think of a good way, but maybe you can. Thoughts? Other ideas?

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  • using yield in C# like I would in Ruby

    - by Sarah Vessels
    Besides just using yield for iterators in Ruby, I also use it to pass control briefly back to the caller before resuming control in the called method. What I want to do in C# is similar. In a test class, I want to get a connection instance, create another variable instance that uses that connection, then pass the variable to the calling method so it can be fiddled with. I then want control to return to the called method so that the connection can be disposed. I guess I'm wanting a block/closure like in Ruby. Here's the general idea: private static MyThing getThing() { using (var connection = new Connection()) { yield return new MyThing(connection); } } [TestMethod] public void MyTest1() { // call getThing(), use yielded MyThing, control returns to getThing() // for disposal } [TestMethod] public void MyTest2() { // call getThing(), use yielded MyThing, control returns to getThing() // for disposal } ... This doesn't work in C#; ReSharper tells me that the body of getThing cannot be an iterator block because MyThing is not an iterator interface type. That's definitely true, but I don't want to iterate through some list. I'm guessing I shouldn't use yield if I'm not working with iterators. Any idea how I can achieve this block/closure thing in C# so I don't have to wrap my code in MyTest1, MyTest2, ... with the code in getThing()'s body?

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  • JPA entitylisteners and @embeddable

    - by seanizer
    I have a class hierarchy of JPA entities that all inherit from a BaseEntity class: @MappedSuperclass @EntityListeners( { ValidatorListener.class }) public abstract class BaseEntity implements Serializable { // other stuff } I want all entities that implement a given interface to be validated automatically on persist and/or update. Here's what I've got. My ValidatorListener: public class ValidatorListener { private enum Type { PERSIST, UPDATE } @PrePersist public void checkPersist(final Object entity) { if (entity instanceof Validateable) { this.check((Validateable) entity, Type.PERSIST); } } @PreUpdate public void checkUpdate(final Object entity) { if (entity instanceof Validateable) { this.check((Validateable) entity, Type.UPDATE); } } private void check(final Validateable entity, final Type persist) { switch (persist) { case PERSIST: if (entity instanceof Persist) { ((Persist) entity).persist(); } if (entity instanceof PersistOrUpdate) { ((PersistOrUpdate) entity).persistOrUpdate(); } break; case UPDATE: if (entity instanceof Update) { ((Update) entity).update(); } if (entity instanceof PersistOrUpdate) { ((PersistOrUpdate) entity).persistOrUpdate(); } break; default: break; } } } and here's my Validateable interface that it checks against (the outer interface is just a marker, the inner contain the methods): public interface Validateable { interface Persist extends Validateable { void persist(); } interface PersistOrUpdate extends Validateable { void persistOrUpdate(); } interface Update extends Validateable { void update(); } } All of this works, however I would like to extend this behavior to Embeddable classes. I know two solutions: call the validation method of the embeddable object manually from the entity validation method: public void persistOrUpdate(){ // validate my own properties first // then manually validate the embeddable property: myEmbeddable.persistOrUpdate(); // this works but I'd like something that I don't have to call manually } use reflection, checking all properties to see if their type is of one of their interface types. This would work, but it's not pretty. Is there a more elegant solution?

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  • LicenseChecker checkAccess leaks ServiceConnection

    - by Bill The Ape
    I am receiving this exception in LogCat every time I press the Back button in my app: Activity has leaked ServiceConnection com.android.vending.licensing.LicenseChecker@471cc039 that was originally bound here The code responsible for this leak in onCreate() is: mLicenseCheckerCallback = new MyLicenseCheckerCallback(); mChecker.checkAccess(mLicenseCheckerCallback); How do I get rid of this leak? I tried not assigning MyLicenseCheckerCallback to a member, thinking perhaps when the activity goes onPause() the reference to the callback is responsible for the leak: mChecker.checkAccess(new MyLicenseCheckerCallback()); But that didn't get rid of the leak. Update: Thanks to @zapl's comment below, I looked at Google's LicenseChecker.java: /** Unbinds service if necessary and removes reference to it. */ private void cleanupService() { if (mService != null) { try { mContext.unbindService(this); } catch (IllegalArgumentException e) { // Somehow we've already been unbound. This is a non-fatal error. Log.e(TAG, "Unable to unbind from licensing service (already unbound)"); } mService = null; } } At first I thought that I may be neglecting to call it, but I double-checked and I am calling mChecker.onDestroy(); in my activity's onDestroy(). I also checked onDestroy() in LicenseChecker.java and it is calling unbindService: /** * Inform the library that the context is about to be destroyed, so that * any open connections can be cleaned up. * <p> * Failure to call this method can result in a crash under certain * circumstances, such as during screen rotation if an Activity requests * the license check or when the user exits the application. */ public synchronized void onDestroy() { cleanupService(); mHandler.getLooper().quit(); } So, what is really going on? Is this a bug in LVL?

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  • what is the correct way to force existing activities to reload using the new local

    - by pengwang
    have a settings dialog/activity where I allow the user to change the locale. Within that activity i call Resources res = ctx.getResources(); // Change locale settings on the device DisplayMetrics dm = res.getDisplayMetrics(); android.content.res.Configuration conf = res.getConfiguration(); conf.locale = new Locale(language_code.toLowerCase(), coutry_code.toUpperCase()); res.updateConfiguration(conf, dm); and call onChanged() for my settings ListView... everything changes perfectly. Very nice. Then I hit the back button to go back to the previous activity thinking everything should be switched; nope. Everything is still in the previous locale. So I added the above code in the onResume() of the activity thinking that would do it; nope. Also, when I click the menu button of this activity again (not first time) I do not get called in onCreateOptionsMenu() it just displays the previous menu. My question is what is the correct way to force existing activities to reload using the new local?

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  • NSMutableArray memory management

    - by chicken
    NSMutableArray *a1 = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *a2 = [NSMutableArray array]; TempObj *obj = [[TempObj alloc] init]; //assume this line is repeated for each obj [a1 addObject:obj]; [a1 addObject:obj2]; [a1 addObject:obj3]; [a1 addObject:obj4]; [obj release]; [obj2 release]; [obj3 release]; [obj4 release]; [a1 release]; Ok so a2 is an autorelease obj so i dont have to call release on it? Also how do you know when you get an autorelease object? And for a1, i dont have to loop through the array and release each object first? What if i called [a1 removeAllObjects]; does that call [[a1 objectAtIndex:#] release]; Am i supposed to release those objects after ive added them to the array?

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  • Python: eliminating stack traces into library code?

    - by Mark Harrison
    When I get a runtime exception from the standard library, it's almost always a problem in my code and not in the library code. Is there a way to truncate the exception stack trace so that it doesn't show the guts of the library package? For example, I would like to get this: Traceback (most recent call last): File "./lmd3-mkhead.py", line 71, in <module> main() File "./lmd3-mkhead.py", line 66, in main create() File "./lmd3-mkhead.py", line 41, in create headver1[depotFile]=rev TypeError: Data values must be of type string or None. and not this: Traceback (most recent call last): File "./lmd3-mkhead.py", line 71, in <module> main() File "./lmd3-mkhead.py", line 66, in main create() File "./lmd3-mkhead.py", line 41, in create headver1[depotFile]=rev File "/usr/anim/modsquad/oses/fc11/lib/python2.6/bsddb/__init__.py", line 276, in __setitem__ _DeadlockWrap(wrapF) # self.db[key] = value File "/usr/anim/modsquad/oses/fc11/lib/python2.6/bsddb/dbutils.py", line 68, in DeadlockWrap return function(*_args, **_kwargs) File "/usr/anim/modsquad/oses/fc11/lib/python2.6/bsddb/__init__.py", line 275, in wrapF self.db[key] = value TypeError: Data values must be of type string or None.

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  • Getting empty update rectangle in OnPaint after calling InvalidateRect on a layered window

    - by Shawn
    I'm trying to figure out why I've been getting an empty update rectangle when I call InvalidateRect on a transparent window. The idea is that I've drawn something on the window (it gets temporarily switched to have an alpha of 1/255 for the drawing), and then I switch it to full transparent mode (i.e. alpha of 0) in order to interact with the desktop & to be able to move the drawing around the screen on top of the desktop. When I try to move the drawing, I get its bounding rectangle & use it to call InvalidateRect, as such: InvalidateRect(m_hTarget, &winRect, FALSE); I've confirmed that the winRect is indeed correct, and that m_hTarget is the correct window & that its rectangle fully encompasses winRect. I get into the OnPaint handler in the class corresponding to m_hTarget, which is derived from a CWnd. In there, I create a CPaintDC, but when I try to access the update rectangle (dcPaint.m_ps.rcPaint) it's always empty. This rectangle gets passed to a function that determines if we need to update the screen (by using UpdateLayeredWindow in the case of a transparent window). If I hard-code a non-empty rectangle in here, the remaining code works correctly & I am able to move the drawing around the screen. I tried changing the 'FALSE' parameter to 'TRUE' in InvalidateRect, with no effect. I also tried using a standard CDC, and then using BeginPaint/EndPaint method in my OnPaint handler, just to ensure that CPaintDC wasn't doing something odd ... but I got the same results. The code that I'm using was originally designed for opaque windows. If m_hTarget corresponds to an opaque window, the same set of function calls results in the correct (i.e. non-empty) rectangle being passed to OnPaint. Once the window is layered, though, it doesn't seem to work right.

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  • Sharepoint fails to load a C++ dll on windows 2008

    - by Nathan
    I have a sharepoint DLL that does some licensing things and as part of the code it uses an external C++ DLL to get the serial number of the hardisk. When i run this application on windows server 2003 it works fine, but on 2008 the whole site (loaded on load) crashes and resets continually. This is not 2008 R2 and is the same in 64 or 32 bits. If i put a debugger.break before the dll execution then I see the code get to the point of the break then never come back into the dll again. I do get some debug assertion warnings from within the function, again only in 2008, but im not sure this is related. I created a console app that runs the c# dll, which in turn loads the c++ dll, and this works perfectly on 2008 (although does show the assertion errors, but I have suppressed these now). The assertion errors are not in my code but within ICtypes.c and not something I can debug. If i put a breakpoint in the DLL it is never hit and the compiler says : "step in: Stepping over non user code" if i try to debug into the DLL using VS. I have tried wrapping the code used to call the DLL in: SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() but this also does not help. I have the sourcecode for this DLL so that is not a problem. If i delete the DLL from the directory I get an error about a missing DLL, if i replace it back to no error or warning just a complete failure. If i replace this code with a hardcoded string the whole application works fine. Any advice would be much appreciated, I can't understand why it works as a console app yet not when run by sharepoint, this is with the same user account, on the same machine... This is the code used to call the DLL: [DllImport("idDll.dll", EntryPoint = "GetMachineId", SetLastError = true)] extern static string GetComponentId([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)]String s); public static string GetComponentId() { Debugger.Break(); if (_machine == string.Empty) { string temp = ""; id= ComponentId.GetComponentId(temp); } return id; }

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  • How to catch unintentional function interpositioning?

    - by SiegeX
    Reading through my book Expert C Programming, I came across the chapter on function interpositioning and how it can lead to some serious hard to find bugs if done unintentionally. The example given in the book is the following: my_source.c mktemp() { ... } main() { mktemp(); getwd(); } libc mktemp(){ ... } getwd(){ ...; mktemp(); ... } According to the book, what happens in main() is that mktemp() (a standard C library function) is interposed by the implementation in my_source.c. Although having main() call my implementation of mktemp() is intended behavior, having getwd() (another C library function) also call my implementation of mktemp() is not. Apparently, this example was a real life bug that existed in SunOS 4.0.3's version of lpr. The book goes on to explain the fix was to add the keyword static to the definition of mktemp() in my_source.c; although changing the name altogether should have fixed this problem as well. This chapter leaves me with some unresolved questions that I hope you guys could answer: Does GCC have a way to warn about function interposition? We certainly don't ever intend on this happening and I'd like to know about it if it does. Should our software group adopt the practice of putting the keyword static in front of all functions that we don't want to be exposed? Can interposition happen with functions introduced by static libraries? Thanks for the help. EDIT I should note that my question is not just aimed at interposing over standard C library functions, but also functions contained in other libraries, perhaps 3rd party, perhaps ones created in-house. Essentially, I want to catch any instance of interpositioning regardless of where the interposed function resides.

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  • Javascript cloned object looses its prototype functions

    - by Jake M
    I am attempting to clone an object in Javascript. I have made my own 'class' that has prototype functions. My Problem: When I clone an object, the clone cant access/call any prototype functions. I get an error when I go to access a prototype function of the clone: clone.render is not a function Can you tell me how I can clone an object and keep its prototype functions This simple JSFiddle demonstrates the error I get: http://jsfiddle.net/VHEFb/1/ function cloneObject(obj) { // Handle the 3 simple types, and null or undefined if (null == obj || "object" != typeof obj) return obj; // Handle Date if (obj instanceof Date) { var copy = new Date(); copy.setTime(obj.getTime()); return copy; } // Handle Array if (obj instanceof Array) { var copy = []; for (var i = 0, len = obj.length; i < len; ++i) { copy[i] = cloneObject(obj[i]); } return copy; } // Handle Object if (obj instanceof Object) { var copy = {}; for (var attr in obj) { if (obj.hasOwnProperty(attr)) copy[attr] = cloneObject(obj[attr]); } return copy; } throw new Error("Unable to copy obj! Its type isn't supported."); } function MyObject(name) { this.name = name; // I have arrays stored in this object also so a simple cloneNode(true) call wont copy those // thus the need for the function cloneObject(); } MyObject.prototype.render = function() { alert("Render executing: "+this.name); } var base = new MyObject("base"); var clone = cloneObject(base); clone.name = "clone"; base.render(); clone.render(); // Error here: "clone.render is not a function"

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  • Nhibernate Fluent domain Object with Id(x => x.id).GeneratedBy.Assigned not saveable

    - by urpcor
    Hi there, I am using for some legacy db the corresponding domainclasses with mappings. Now the Ids of the entities are calculated by some stored Procedure in the DB which gives back the Id for the new row.(Its legacy, I cant change this) Now I create the new entity , set the Id and Call Save. But nothing happens. no exeption. Even NH Profiler does not say a bit. its as the Save call does nothing. I expect that NH thinks that the record is already in the db because its got an Id already. But I am using Id(x = x.id).GeneratedBy.Assigned() and intetionally the Session.Save(object) method. I am confused. I saw so many samples there it worked. does any body have any ideas about it? public class Appendix { public virtual int id { get; set; } public virtual AppendixHierarchy AppendixHierachy { get; set; } public virtual byte[] appendix { get; set; } } public class AppendixMap : ClassMap<Appendix> { public AppendixMap () { WithTable("appendix"); Id(x => x.id).GeneratedBy.Assigned(); References(x => x.AppendixHierachy).ColumnName("appendixHierarchyId"); Map(x => x.appendix); } }

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  • Queueing method calls - any idea how?

    - by TomTom
    I write a heavily asynchronseous application. I am looking for a way to queue method calls, similar to what BeginInvoke / EndInvoke does.... but on my OWN queue. The reaqson is that I am having my own optimized message queueing system using a threadpool but at the same time making sure every component is single threaded in the requests (i.e. one thread only handles messages for a component). I Have a lot of messages going back and forth. For limited use, I would really love to be able to just queue a message call with parameters, instead of having to define my own parameter, method wrapping / unwrapping just for the sake of doing a lot of admnistrative calls. I also do not always want to bypass the queue, and I definitely do not want the sending service to wait for the other service to respond. Anyone knows of a way to intercept a method call? Some way to utilize TransparentProxy / Virtual Proxy for this? ;) ServicedComponent? I would like this to be as little overhead as possible ;)

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