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  • Using a version control system as a data backend

    - by JacobM
    I'm involved in a project that, among other things, involves storing edits and changes to a large hierarchical document (HTML-formatted text). We want to include versioning of textual changes and of structural changes. Currently we're maintaining the tree of document sections in a relational database, but as we start working on how to manage versioning of structural changes, it's clear that we're in danger of having to write a lot of the functionality that a version control system provides. We don't want to reinvent the wheel. Is it possible that we could use an existing version control system as the data store, at least for the document itself? Presumably we could do so by writing out new versions to the filesystem, and keeping that directory under version control (and programmatically doing commits and so forth) but it would be better if we could directly interact with the repository via code. The VCS that we are most familiar with is Subversion, but I'm not thrilled with how Subversion represents changes to the directory structure -- it would be nice if we could see that a particular revision included moving a section from Chapter 2 to Chapter 6, rather than just seeing a new version of the tree. This sounds more like the way a system like Mercurial handles changes to the structure. Any advice? Do VCS's have public APIs and so forth? The project is in Java (with Spring) if it matters.

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  • How do I Emit Escaped XML representation of a Node in my XSLT's HTML Output

    - by Emmanuel
    I'm transforming XML to an HTML document. In this document I want to embed XML markup for a node that was just transformed (the HTML document is a technical spec). For example, if my XML was this: <transform-me> <node id="1"> <stuff type="floatsam"> <details>Various bits</details> </stuff> </node> </transform-me> I'd want my XSLT output to look something like this: <h1>Node 1</h1> <h2>Stuff (floatsam)</h2> Various bits <h2>The XML</h2> &lt;stuff type=&quot;floatsam&quot;&gt; &lt;details&gt;Various bits&lt;/details&gt; &lt;/stuff&gt; I'm hoping there is an XSLT function that I can call in my <stuff> template to which I can pass the current node (.) and get back escaped XML markup for <stuff> and all its descendants. I have a feeling unparsed-text() might be the way to go but can't get it to work.

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  • NHibernate: Mapping IList property

    - by Anry
    I have a table Order, Transaction, Payment. Class Order has the properties: public virtual Guid Id { get; set; } public virtual DateTime Created { get; set; } ... I added properties: public virtual IList<Transaction> Transactions { get; set; } public virtual IList<Payment> Payments { get; set; } These properties contain a record of tables [Transaction] and [Payment]. How to keep these lists in the database?

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  • What is the best way to translate this recursive python method into Java?

    - by Simucal
    In another question I was provided with a great answer involving generating certain sets for the Chinese Postman Problem. The answer provided was: def get_pairs(s): if not s: yield [] else: i = min(s) for j in s - set([i]): for r in get_pairs(s - set([i, j])): yield [(i, j)] + r for x in get_pairs(set([1,2,3,4,5,6])): print x This will output the desire result of: [(1, 2), (3, 4), (5, 6)] [(1, 2), (3, 5), (4, 6)] [(1, 2), (3, 6), (4, 5)] [(1, 3), (2, 4), (5, 6)] [(1, 3), (2, 5), (4, 6)] [(1, 3), (2, 6), (4, 5)] [(1, 4), (2, 3), (5, 6)] [(1, 4), (2, 5), (3, 6)] [(1, 4), (2, 6), (3, 5)] [(1, 5), (2, 3), (4, 6)] [(1, 5), (2, 4), (3, 6)] [(1, 5), (2, 6), (3, 4)] [(1, 6), (2, 3), (4, 5)] [(1, 6), (2, 4), (3, 5)] [(1, 6), (2, 5), (3, 4)] This really shows off the expressiveness of Python because this is almost exactly how I would write the pseudo-code for the algorithm. I especially like the usage of yield and and the way that sets are treated as first class citizens. However, there in lies my problem. What would be the best way to: 1.Duplicate the functionality of the yield return construct in Java? Would it instead be best to maintain a list and append my partial results to this list? How would you handle the yield keyword. 2.Handle the dealing with the sets? I know that I could probably use one of the Java collections which implements that implements the Set interface and then using things like removeAll() to give me a set difference. Is this what you would do in that case? Ultimately, I'm looking to reduce this method into as concise and straightforward way as possible in Java. I'm thinking the return type of the java version of this method will likely return a list of int arrays or something similar. How would you handle the situations above when converting this method into Java?

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  • how to clone the drag-event using jquery and jquery-ui.

    - by zjm1126
    i want to create a new '.b' div appendTo document.body, and it can dragable like its father, but i can not clone the drag event, how to do this, thanks this is my code : <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta name="viewport" content="width=device-width, user-scalable=no"> </head> <body> <style type="text/css" media="screen"> </style> <div id="map_canvas" style="width: 500px; height: 300px;background:blue;"></div> <div class=b style="width: 20px; height: 20px;background:red;position:absolute;left:700px;top:200px;"></div> <script src="jquery-1.4.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="jquery-ui-1.8rc3.custom.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> $(".b").draggable({ start: function(event,ui) { //console.log(ui) //$(ui.helper).clone(true).appendTo($(document.body)) $(this).clone(true).appendTo($(document.body))//draggable is not be cloned, } }); $("#map_canvas").droppable({ drop: function(event,ui) { //console.log(ui.offset.left+' '+ui.offset.top) ui.draggable.remove(); } }); </script> </body> </html>

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  • How to implement the Facebook "Like" button for my website

    - by vamsivanka
    I am trying to implement facebook like button on my website. The first four lines in the code is already there on my site after the end of the "" tag. To implement the "Like button" i have added the second script (Line five to the end) and ran the application. Its giving me an error as "Microsoft Jscript runtime error:'_onLoad' is null or not an object" Please Let me know. Thanks <script type="text/javascript" src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> FB.init("myapikey", "xd_receiver.htm", { "reloadIfSessionStateChanged": true }); </script> <script type="text/javascript"> window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.init({appId: 'myappid', status: true, cookie: true, xfbml: true}); }; (function() { var e = document.createElement('script'); e.async = true; e.src = document.location.protocol + '//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js'; document.getElementById('fb-root').appendChild(e); }()); </script> References: http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/plugins/like <fb:like href="http://webclip.in" layout="standard" show-faces="true" width="450" action="like" font="arial" colorscheme="light"/>

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  • mutation...........

    - by superguay
    Hey everybody, I'm kinda confused..... (define m (list 1 2 3 '(5 8))) (let ((l (cdr m))) (set! l '(28 88))) ==>(1 2 3 (5 8)) (define o (list 1 2 3 '(5 8))) (let ((l (cdr o))) (set-car! l '(28 88))) ==> (1 (28 88) 3 (5 8)) Why does (set! l '(28 88))) not update m?

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  • Show image with link based on first directory with Javascript

    - by Nestorete
    Hi, i need some help please, i want to show an image on my Page depending of the first directory of the URL. Example: In Any of this URLs will show the image1.jpg www.mysite.com/audio/amplifiers/400wats.html www.mysite.com/audio/ www.mysite.com/audio/amplifiers/ In any of this others will show the image2.jpg www.mysite.com/video/spots/40wats.html www.mysite.com/video/amplifiers/400wats.html www.mysite.com/video/lighting/laser.html www.mysite.com/video/laser/ At the moment i can show the image only if the url is only the first directory, bu no in the internal directory or documents. This is the script that i'm using right now: <script type="text/javascript"> switch (location.pathname) { case "/audio/": document.write("From Web<BR>") break case "/video/": document.write('<A HREF="slides.htm" target="_blank"><IMG SRC="/adman/banners/joinvip.gif" WIDTH=728 HEIGHT=90 BORDER=0></A>') break default: document.write('<A HREF="http://www.apple.com" target="_blank"><IMG SRC="http://www.amd.com/us-en/assets/content_type/DownloadableAssets/NEW_PIB_728x90.gif" WIDTH=728 HEIGHT=90 BORDER=0></A>') break } </script> Thank you

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  • Show image with link based on first directory with Javascript

    - by Nestorete
    Hi, i need some help please, i want to show an image on my Page depending of the first directory of the URL. Example: In Any of this URLs will show the image1.jpg www.mysite.com/audio/amplifiers/400wats.html www.mysite.com/audio/ www.mysite.com/audio/amplifiers/ In any of this others will show the image2.jpg www.mysite.com/video/spots/40wats.html www.mysite.com/video/amplifiers/400wats.html www.mysite.com/video/lighting/laser.html www.mysite.com/video/laser/ At the moment i can show the image only if the url is only the first directory, bu no in the internal directory or documents. This is the script that i'm using right now: <script type="text/javascript"> switch (location.pathname) { case "/audio/": document.write("From Web<BR>") break case "/video/": document.write('<A HREF="slides.htm" target="_blank"><IMG SRC="/adman/banners/joinvip.gif" WIDTH=728 HEIGHT=90 BORDER=0></A>') break default: document.write('<A HREF="http://www.apple.com" target="_blank"><IMG SRC="http://www.amd.com/us-en/assets/content_type/DownloadableAssets/NEW_PIB_728x90.gif" WIDTH=728 HEIGHT=90 BORDER=0></A>') break } </script> Thank you

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  • Foreign keys and pagination

    - by whitstone86
    This is my pagination script: <?php /*********************************** * PhpMyCoder Paginator * * Created By PhpMyCoder * * 2010 PhpMyCoder * * ------------------------------- * * You may use this code as long * * as this notice stays intact and * * the proper credit is given to * * the author. * ***********************************/ ?> <head> <title> Pagination Test - Created By PhpMyCoder</title> <style type="text/css"> #nav { font: normal 13px/14px Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; margin: 2px 0; } #nav a { background: #EEE; border: 1px solid #DDD; color: #000080; padding: 1px 7px; text-decoration: none; } #nav strong { background: #000080; border: 1px solid #DDD; color: #FFF; font-weight: normal; padding: 1px 7px; } #nav span { background: #FFF; border: 1px solid #DDD; color: #999; padding: 1px 7px; } </style> </head> <?php //Require the file that contains the required classes include("pmcPagination.php"); //PhpMyCoder Paginator $paginator = new pmcPagination(20, "page"); //Connect to the database mysql_connect("localhost","root","PASSWORD"); //Select DB mysql_select_db("tvguide"); //Select only results for today and future $result = mysql_query("SELECT programme, channel, airdate, expiration, episode, setreminder FROM epdata1 where airdate >= now() order by expiration GROUP BY airdate"); //You can also add reuslts to paginate here mysql_data_seek($queryresult,0) ; while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $paginator->add(new paginationData($row['programme'], $row['channel'], $row['airdate'], $row['expiration'], $row['episode'], $row['setreminder'])); } ?> <?php //Show the paginated results $paginator->paginate (); ?><? include("pca-footer1.php"); ?> <?php //Show the navigation $paginator->navigation(); ?> However, I have two tables in this, and they are epdata1 (where the airtimes for my show House M.D. are) and housemdep plus the setreminder table. How can I use foreign keys in relation to this? I'm not sure if this will work for my script, but am willing to try. What I would like to do is to select certain episodes from the table housemdep (episodes of the show) and if any are selected it shows them as this: House M.D. showing on Channel 1 June 6th - 8:00pm "Wilson" Set Reminder House M.D. showing on Channel 1 June 7th - 1:30am "Wilson" Set Reminder House M.D. showing on Channel 1 June 7th - 12:55pm "House's Head" Set Reminder or like this, if I have not selected an episode from the row: House M.D. showing on Channel 1 June 7th - 8:00pm "House's Head" Set Reminder House M.D. showing on Channel 1 June 8th - 9:00pm Set Reminder House M.D. showing on Channel 1 June 9th - 2:30pm Set Reminder House M.D. showing on Channel 1 June 7th - 8:00pm "Que Sera Sera" Set Reminder Foreign keys and relationship of interlinked tables are new to me, if anyone could help I'd appreciate this. I've tried some of what Google suggested on foreign keys in another version of this script (this is a clone of the original on my localhost server running Apache and PHP 5.28/MySQL), but am not sure how to implement this. Thanks.

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  • Setup routing and iptables for new VPN connection to redirect **only** ports 80 and 443

    - by Steve
    I have a new VPN connection (using openvpn) to allow me to route around some ISP restrictions. Whilst it is working fine, it is taking all the traffic over the vpn. This is causing me issues for downloading (my internet connection is a lot faster than the vpn allows), and for remote access. I run an ssh server, and have a daemon running that allows me to schdule downloads via my phone. I have my existing ethernet connection on eth0, and the new VPN connection on tun0. I believe I need to setup the default route to use my existing eth0 connection on the 192.168.0.0/24 network, and set the default gateway to 192.168.0.1 (my knowledge is shaky as I haven't done this for a number of years). If that is correct, then I'm not exactly sure how to do it!. My current routing table is: Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface MSS Window irtt 0.0.0.0 10.51.0.169 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 tun0 0 0 0 10.51.0.1 10.51.0.169 255.255.255.255 UGH 0 0 0 tun0 0 0 0 10.51.0.169 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 UH 0 0 0 tun0 0 0 0 85.25.147.49 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.255 UGH 0 0 0 eth0 0 0 0 169.254.0.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.0.0 U 1000 0 0 eth0 0 0 0 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 1 0 0 eth0 0 0 0 After fixing the routing, I believe I need to use iptables to configure prerouting or masquerading to force everything for destination port 80 or 443 over tun0. Again, I'm not exactly sure how to do this! Everything I've found on the internet is trying to do something far more complicated, and trying to sort the wood from the trees is proving difficult. Any help would be much appreciated. UPDATE So far, from the various sources, I've cobbled together the following: #!/bin/sh DEV1=eth0 IP1=`ifconfig|perl -nE'/dr:(\S+)/&&say$1'|grep 192.` GW1=192.168.0.1 TABLE1=internet TABLE2=vpn DEV2=tun0 IP2=`ifconfig|perl -nE'/dr:(\S+)/&&say$1'|grep 10.` GW2=`route -n | grep 'UG[ \t]' | awk '{print $2}'` ip route flush table $TABLE1 ip route flush table $TABLE2 ip route show table main | grep -Ev ^default | while read ROUTE ; do ip route add table $TABLE1 $ROUTE ip route add table $TABLE2 $ROUTE done ip route add table $TABLE1 $GW1 dev $DEV1 src $IP1 ip route add table $TABLE2 $GW2 dev $DEV2 src $IP2 ip route add table $TABLE1 default via $GW1 ip route add table $TABLE2 default via $GW2 echo "1" > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward echo "1" > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_dynaddr ip rule add from $IP1 lookup $TABLE1 ip rule add from $IP2 lookup $TABLE2 ip rule add fwmark 1 lookup $TABLE1 ip rule add fwmark 2 lookup $TABLE2 iptables -t nat -A POSTROUTING -o $DEV1 -j SNAT --to-source $IP1 iptables -t nat -A POSTROUTING -o $DEV2 -j SNAT --to-source $IP2 iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -m state --state ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j CONNMARK --restore-mark iptables -A OUTPUT -m state --state ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j CONNMARK --restore-mark iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -i $DEV1 -m state --state NEW -j CONNMARK --set-mark 1 iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -i $DEV2 -m state --state NEW -j CONNMARK --set-mark 2 iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -m connmark --mark 1 -j MARK --set-mark 1 iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -m connmark --mark 2 -j MARK --set-mark 2 iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -m state --state NEW -m connmark ! --mark 0 -j CONNMARK --save-mark iptables -t mangle -A PREROUTING -i $DEV2 -m state --state NEW -p tcp --dport 80 -j CONNMARK --set-mark 2 iptables -t mangle -A PREROUTING -i $DEV2 -m state --state NEW -p tcp --dport 443 -j CONNMARK --set-mark 2 route del default route add default gw 192.168.0.1 eth0 Now this seems to be working. Except it isn't! Connections to the blocked websites are going through, connections not on ports 80 and 443 are using the non-VPN connection. However port 80 and 443 connections that aren't to the blocked websites are using the non-VPN connection too! As the general goal has been reached, I'm relatively happy, but it would be nice to know why it isn't working exactly right. Any ideas? For reference, I now have 3 routing tables, main, internet, and vpn. The listing of them is as follows... Main: default via 192.168.0.1 dev eth0 10.38.0.1 via 10.38.0.205 dev tun0 10.38.0.205 dev tun0 proto kernel scope link src 10.38.0.206 85.removed via 192.168.0.1 dev eth0 169.254.0.0/16 dev eth0 scope link metric 1000 192.168.0.0/24 dev eth0 proto kernel scope link src 192.168.0.73 metric 1 Internet: default via 192.168.0.1 dev eth0 10.38.0.1 via 10.38.0.205 dev tun0 10.38.0.205 dev tun0 proto kernel scope link src 10.38.0.206 85.removed via 192.168.0.1 dev eth0 169.254.0.0/16 dev eth0 scope link metric 1000 192.168.0.0/24 dev eth0 proto kernel scope link src 192.168.0.73 metric 1 192.168.0.1 dev eth0 scope link src 192.168.0.73 VPN: default via 10.38.0.205 dev tun0 10.38.0.1 via 10.38.0.205 dev tun0 10.38.0.205 dev tun0 proto kernel scope link src 10.38.0.206 85.removed via 192.168.0.1 dev eth0 169.254.0.0/16 dev eth0 scope link metric 1000 192.168.0.0/24 dev eth0 proto kernel scope link src 192.168.0.73 metric 1

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  • How I shoud use BIT in MS SQL 2005

    - by adopilot
    Regarding to SQL performance. I have Scalar-Valued function for checking some specific condition in base, It returns BIT value True or False, I now do not know how I should fill @BIT parameter If I write. set @bit = convert(bit,1) or set @bit = 1 or set @bit='true' Function will work anyway but I do not know which method is recommended for daily use. Another Question, I have table in my base with around 4 million records, Daily insert is about 4K records in that table. Now I want to add CONSTRAINT on that table whit scalar valued function that I mentioned already Something like this ALTER TABLE fin_stavke ADD CONSTRAINT fin_stavke_knjizenje CHECK ( dbo.fn_ado_chk_fin(id)=convert(bit,1)) Where is filed "id" primary key of table fin_stavke and dbo.fn_ado_chk_fin looks like create FUNCTION fn_ado_chk_fin ( @stavka_id int ) RETURNS bit AS BEGIN declare @bit bit if exists (select * from fin_stavke where id=@stavka_id and doc_id is null and protocol_id is null) begin set @bit=0 end else begin set @bit=1 end return @bit; END GO Will this type and method of cheeking constraint will affect badly performance on my table and SQL at all ? If there is also better way to add control on this table please let me know.

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  • cannot upgrade current target for ipad

    - by choise
    Hi everyone, i try to upgrade my old existing app to make it a universal application for iphone and ipad. i clicked on my target and tryed to select "upgrade current target for ipad", but i cannot click it, because its not clickable. my project settings are: The Base SDK is set to iPhone Device 3.2 The iPhone OS Deployment Target is set to iPhone OS 3.1 The Targeted Device Family is set to iPhone/iPad are there any other things i have to pay attention? please help, to get my application upgraded.

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  • Problem requesting a HTTPS with TCL

    - by Javier
    Hi Everybody, I'm trying to do the following request using TCL (OpenACS) http::register https 443 tls::socket set url "https://encrypted.google.com" set token [http::geturl $url -timeout 30000] set status [http::status $token] set answer [http::data $token] http::cleanup $token http::unregister https The problem is that when I read the $status variable I get "eof" and the $answer variable becomes empty. I tried enabling tls V.1 http::register https 443 [list tls::socket -tls1 1] and it works only for the site https://www.galileo.edu, but not for https://encrypted.google.com. The site what I'm trying to connect is https://graph.facebook.com/me/feed?access_token=... but it doesn't work. I used curl to retrieve the contents of the pages in HTTPS and it works, I have installed OpenSSL, so I can't see the problem, there is another way to do HTTPS connections with TCL?. I can't see if this is a problem of coding (maybe I'm registered wrong the https protocol) or maybe It is a bad configuration of my server. Hope somebody helps!! Thanks!

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  • Confused about Ajax, Basic XMLHTTPRequest

    - by George
    I'm confused about the basics of Ajax. Right now I'm just trying to build a basic Ajax request using plain JavaScript to better understand how things work (as opposed to using Jquery or another library). First off, do you always need to pass a parameter or can you just retrieve data? In its most basic form, could I have an html document (located on the same server) that just has plain text, and another html document retrieve that text and load it on to the page? So I have fox.html with just text that says "The quick brown fox jumped over the lazy dog." and I want to pull in that text into ajax.html on load. I have the following on ajax.html <script type="text/javascript"> function createAJAX() { var ajax = new XMLHttpRequest(); ajax.open('get','fox.html',true); ajax.send(null); ajax = ajax.responseText; return(ajax); } document.write(createAJAX()); </script> This currently writes nothing when I load the page.

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  • Running same powershell script multiple asynchronous times with separate runspace

    - by teqnomad
    Hi, I have a powershell script which is called by a batch script which is called by Trap Receiver (which also passes environment variables) (running on windows 2008). The traps are flushed out at times in sets of 2-4 trap events, and the batch script will echo the trap details for each message to a logfile, but the powershell script on the next line of the batch script will only appear to process the first trap message (the powershell script writes to the same logfile). My interpetation is that the defaultrunspace is common to all iterations of the script running and this is why the others appear to be ignored. I've tried adding "-sta" when I invoke the powershell script using "powershell.exe -command", but this didn't help. I've researched and found a method using C# but I don't know this language, and busy enough learning powershell, so hoping to find a more direct solution especially as interleaving a "wrapper" between batch and powershell will involve passing the environment variables. http://www.codeproject.com/KB/threads/AsyncPowerShell.aspx I've hunted through stackoverflow, and again the only question of similar vein was using C#. Any suggestions welcome. Some script background: The powershell script is actually a modification of a great script found at gregorystrike website - cant post the link as I'm limited to one link but its the one for Lefthand arrays. Lots of mods so it can do multiple targets from one .ini file, taking in the environment variables, and options to run portions of the script interactively with winform. But you can see the gist of the original script. The batch script is pretty basic. The keys things are I'm trying to filter out trap noise using the :~ operator, and I tried -sta option to see if this would compartmentalise the powershell script. set debug=off set CMD_LINE_ARGS="%*" set LHIPAddress="%2" set VARBIND8="%8" shift shift shift shift shift shift shift set CHASSIS="%9" echo %DATE% %TIME% "Trap Received: %LHIPAddress% %CHASSIS% %VARBIND8%" >> C:\Logs\trap_out.txt set ACTION="%VARBIND8:~39,18%" echo %DATE% %TIME% "Action substring is %ACTION%" 2>&1 >> C:\Logs\trap_out.txt if %ACTION%=="Remote Copy Volume" ( echo Prepostlefthand_env_v2.9 >> C:\Logs\trap_out.txt c:\Windows\System32\WindowsPowerShell\v1.0\PowerShell.exe -sta -executionpolicy unrestricted -command " & 'C:\Scripts\prepostlefthand_env_v2.9.ps1' Backupsettings.ini ALL" 2>&1 >> C:\Logs\trap_out.txt ) ELSE ( echo %DATE% %TIME% Action substring is %ACTION% so exiting" 2>&1 >> C:\Logs\trap.out.txt ) exit

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  • ACCESS VBA - DAO in VB - problem with creating relations

    - by Justin
    So take the following example: Sub CreateRelation() Dim db As Database Dim rel As Relation Dim fld As Field Set db = CurrentDb Set rel = db.CreateRelation("OrderID", "Orders", "Products") 'refrential integrity rel.Attributes = dbRelationUpdateCascade 'specify the key in the referenced table Set fld = rel.CreateField("OrderID") fld.ForeignName = "OrderID" rel.Fields.Append fld db.Relations.Append rel End Sub I keep getting the error, No unique index found for the referenced field of the primary table. if i include the vb before this sub to create in index on the field, it gives me the error: Index already exists. so i am trying to figure this out. if there are not any primary keys set, will that cause this not to work? i am confused by this, but i really really want to figure this out. So orderID is a FOREIGN KEY in the Products Table please help thanks justin

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  • Setting CommandTarget to selected control in a TabControl

    - by Bart
    I have a WPF window with a few buttons and a tabcontrol having a tab for each 'document' the user is working on. The tabcontrol uses a DataTemplate to render the data in ItemSource of the tabcontrol. The question: If one of the buttons is clicked, the command should be executed on the control rendering the document in the active tab, but I've no idea what I should set CommandTarget to. I tried {Binding ElementName=nameOfControlInDataTemplate} but that obviously doesn't work. I tried to make my problem a bit more abstract with the following code (no ItemSource and Document objects, but the idea is still the same). <Button Command="ApplicationCommands.Save" CommandTarget="{Binding ElementName=nestedControl}">Save</Button> <TabControl x:Name="tabControl"> <TabControl.Items> <TabItem Header="Header1">Item 1</TabItem> <TabItem Header="Header2">Item 2</TabItem> <TabItem Header="Header3">Item 3</TabItem> </TabControl.Items> <TabControl.ContentTemplate> <DataTemplate> <CommandTest:NestedControl Name="nestedControl"/> </DataTemplate> </TabControl.ContentTemplate> </TabControl> I tested the code by replacing the complete tabcontrol with only one single NestedControl, and then the command button just works. To be complete, here is the code of NestedControl: <UserControl x:Class="CommandTest.NestedControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Grid> <Label x:Name="label" Content="Not saved"/> </Grid> </UserControl> And code behind: public partial class NestedControl : UserControl { public NestedControl() { CommandBindings.Add(new CommandBinding(ApplicationCommands.Save, CommandBinding_Executed)); InitializeComponent(); } private void CommandBinding_Executed(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { label.Content = "Saved"; } }

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  • How to get user input before saving a file in Sublime Text

    - by EddieJessup
    I'm making a plugin in Sublime Text that prompts the user for a password to encrypt a file before it's saved. There's a hook in the API that's executed before a save is executed, so my naïve implementation is: class TranscryptEventListener(sublime_plugin.EventListener): def on_pre_save(self, view): # If document is set to encode on save if view.settings().get('ON_SAVE'): self.view = view # Prompt user for password message = "Create a Password:" view.window().show_input_panel(message, "", self.on_done, None, None) def on_done(self, password): self.view.run_command("encode", {password": password}) The problem with this is, by the time the input panel appears for the user to enter their password, the document has already been saved (despite the trigger being 'on_pre_save'). Then once the user hits enter, the document is encrypted fine, but the situation is that there's a saved plaintext file, and a modified buffer filled with the encrypted text. So I need to make Sublime Text wait until the user's input the password before carrying out the save. Is there a way to do this? At the moment I'm just manually re-saving once the encryption has been done: def on_pre_save(self, view, encode=False): if view.settings().get('ON_SAVE') and not view.settings().get('ENCODED'): self.view = view message = "Create a Password:" view.window().show_input_panel(message, "", self.on_done, None, None) def on_done(self, password): self.view.run_command("encode", {password": password}) self.view.settings().set('ENCODED', True) self.view.run_command('save') self.view.settings().set('ENCODED', False) but this is messy and if the user cancels the encryption then the plaintext file gets saved, which isn't ideal. Any thoughts? Edit: I think I could do it cleanly by overriding the default save command. I hoped to do this by using the on_text_command or on_window_command triggers, but it seems that the save command doesn't trigger either of these (maybe it's an application command? But there's no on_application_command). Is there just no way to override the save function?

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  • Content type - Restlet

    - by DutrowLLC
    How do you set the content type in Restlet (version 2.0 for google app engine)? In this case, I'd like to set the content type to ""text/xml". I have: public class SubResource extends ServerResource { @Get public Representation get(Representation representation){ setStatus(Status.SUCCESS_OK); StringRepresentation sr = new StringRepresentation(getSomeXml()); return sr; } } I'm unsure even if it is a value that is set in the Representation, or if it is set from the ServerResource class the same way that the return code is. ANSWER: StringRepresentation sr = new StringRepresentation(getSomeXml()); sr.setMediaType(MediaType.TEXT_XML);

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  • MFC Combo-Box Control is not showing the full list of items when I click the drop-down menu...

    - by shan23
    I'm coding an app in MSVS 2008, which has a ComboBox control which I initialize thru the code as below: static char* OptionString[4] = {"Opt1", "Opt2", "Opt3", "Opt4"}; BOOL CMyAppDlg::OnInitDialog() { CDialog::OnInitDialog(); // Set the icon for this dialog. The framework does this automatically // when the application's main window is not a dialog SetIcon(m_hIcon, TRUE); // Set big icon SetIcon(m_hIcon, FALSE); // Set small icon // TODO: Add extra initialization here m_Option.AddString(OptionString[0]); m_Option.AddString(OptionString[1]); m_Option.AddString(OptionString[2]); m_Option.AddString(OptionString[3]); m_Option.SetCurSel(0); return TRUE; // return TRUE unless you set the focus to a control } Now, when I build the app and click the down-arrow, the drop-down box shows the first option ONLY(since I've selected that thru my code). But, if i press down-arrow key on keyboard, it cycles thru the options in the order I've inserted, but never does it show more than 1 option in the box. So, In case an user wants to select option3, he has to cycle through options 1 and 2 !! Though once I select any option using the keyboard, the appropriate event handlers are fired, I'm miffed by this behaviour , as is understandable. I'm listing the properties of the combo-box control as well - only the properties that are true(rest are set to false): Type - Dropdown Vertical Scrollbar Visible Tabstop This has bugged me for weeks now. Can anyone pls enlighten me ?

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  • To specify Startup Program in C# Express Edition 2008

    - by Kanini
    I usually do the following at office - Set the startup program for the project to System32\dllhost.exe, and set the command line arguments for the startup program accordingly. This used to work perfectly fine, because I was running Visual Studio 2008. However, one of my developers use C# Express Edition and they need to do a similar thing. We are not sure, where to set this or how to do it? Please suggest how to do this or point us in the right directions.

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  • Using Javascript to flip flop a textbox's readonly flag

    - by Velika
    I have a frame with several radio buttons where the user is supposed to select the "Category" that his Occupation falls into and then unconditionally also specify his occupation. If the user selects "Retired", the requirement is to prefill "Retired" in the "Specify Occupation" text box and to disable it to prevent it from being changed. The Specify Occupation text box should also no longer be a tab stop. If the user selects a radio button other than Retired the Specify Occupation text box should be enabled and once again in the normal tab sequence. Originally, I was setting and clearing the disabled property on the Specify occupation textbox, then I found out that, upon submitting the form, disabled fields are excluded from the submit and the REQUIRED validator on the Specify Occupation textbox was being raised because the textbox was being blanked out. What is the best way to solve this? My approach below was to mimic a disabled text box by setting/resetting the readonly attribute on the text box and changing the background color to make it appear disabled. (I suppose I should be changing the forecolor instead of teh background color). Nevertheless, my code to make the textbox readonly and to reset it doesn't appear to be working. function OccupationOnClick(sender) { debugger; var optOccupationRetired = document.getElementById("<%= optOccupationRetired.ClientId %>"); var txtSpecifyOccupation = document.getElementById("<%= txtSpecifyOccupation.ClientId %>"); var optOccupationOther = document.getElementById("<%= optOccupationOther.ClientId %>"); if (sender == optOccupationRetired) { txtSpecifyOccupation.value = "Retired" txtSpecifyOccupation.readonly = "readonly"; txtSpecifyOccupation.style.backgroundColor = "#E0E0E0"; txtSpecifyOccupation.tabIndex = -1; } else { if (txtSpecifyOccupation.value == "Retired") txtSpecifyOccupation.value = ""; txtSpecifyOccupation.style.backgroundColor = "#FFFFFF"; txtSpecifyOccupation.readonly = ""; txtSpecifyOccupation.tabIndex = 0; } } Can someone provide a suggest for the best way to handle this scenario and porovide a tweek to the code above to fix the setting/resetting on the readonly property?

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  • Using multiple named outlets and a wrapper view with no content in Emberjs

    - by user1889776
    I'm trying to use multiple named outlets with Ember.js. Is my approach below correct? Markup: <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="application"> <div id="mainArea"> {{outlet main_area}} </div> </script> <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="home"> <ul id="sections"> {{outlet sections}} </ul> <ul id="categories"> {{outlet categories}} </ul> </script> <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="sections"> {{#each section in controller}} <li><img {{bindAttr src="section.image"}}></li> {{/each}} </script> <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="categories"> {{#each category in controller}} <img {{bindAttr src="category.image"}}> {{/each}} </script>? JS Code: Here I set the content of the various controllers to data grabbed from a server and connect outlets with their corresponding views. Since the HomeController has no content, set its content to an empty object - a hack to get the rid of this error message: Uncaught Error: assertion failed: Cannot delegate set('categories' ) to the 'content' property of object proxy : its 'content' is undefined. App.Router = Ember.Router.extend({ enableLogging: false, root: Ember.Route.extend({ index: Ember.Route.extend({ route: '/', connectOutlets: function(router){ router.get('sectionsController').set('content',App.Section.find()); router.get('categoriesController').set('content', App.Category.find()); router.get('applicationController').connectOutlet('main_area', 'home'); router.get('homeController').connectOutlet('home', {}); router.get('homeController').connectOutlet('categories', 'categories'); router.get('homeController').connectOutlet('sections', 'sections'); } }) }) });

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