Search Results

Search found 14131 results on 566 pages for 'of note'.

Page 418/566 | < Previous Page | 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425  | Next Page >

• Pros and cons of each JEE server for developing within Eclipse

  - by Thorbjørn Ravn Andersen

  Eclipse JEE has a lot of server adapters allowing development against many different application servers like JBoss, Glassfish and WebSphere. Frequently you can benefit from using another server for developing new features than for production, simply because it may be able to deploy changes much faster and when the functionality is in place, you can iron out bugs for the production platform. Unfortunately finding that server is a time consuming process, where others experience is invaluable. If you have experience with any server with an Eclipse Server Adapter, please add your findings and your recommendation. I believe that the following is of interest: Does saving a file trigger an update in the server, giving save edit+reload browser functionality? How fast is a deployment? (Saved a JSP? Java class? Static file?) Can the actual server be downloaded by the Server Adapter Wizard allowing for easy installation? Are there known bugs and issues with suitable work-arounds? Is debugging fully supported? Is profiling? Would you recommend this server? Note: Eclipse can also work with Tomcat but that is a web container, which cannot deploy EAR files.

  Read the article

• Very weird C file-handling anomaly

  - by KáGé

  Hello, I got a very weird issue that I cant figure out in my school project, which is the simulation of a simple filesystem in a human-readable textfile. Unfortunately I don't yet have enough time to translate the comments in my code or make it less gibberish, so if you are bothered by that, you don't have to help, I understand. See the code HERE. Now in drive.h, at line 574 is this part: i = getline(); #ifdef DEBUG printf("Free space in all found at %d.\n\n", i); if(drive.disk != NULL){ printf("Disk OK\n\n"); } #endif //write in data state = seekline(i); Before this it finds place for the allocation database entry in the ALL sector (see the "image files" in the mounts folder, this issue was tested on mount_30.efs-dbf), then gets the line with i = getline() fine (getline is in lglobal.h, line 39), but after that any file manipulation (in this case seekline's fseek, but if I comment that out, then the first fprintf after that) crashes the program straight away. I think the file gets somehow corrupted (though the Disk OK message appears) but can't figure out how. I've tried putting i = getline(); into comment, but it didn't make any difference. I've also tried asking at local programming forums but they didn't really help either. The last few lines of the output before it crashes: Dir written. (drive.h line 562) Seekline entered: 268 (called at drive.h line 564) Getline entered. (called at drive.h line 574) Line got: 268. Free space in all found at 268. (drive.h line 576) Seekline entered: 268 (called at drive.h line 582, note that this exact call was run successfully less than 20 lines back. This one should set the pointer to the beginning of the line it is currently in) After this it crashes. Does anyone has any idea of what causes this and how could I fix it? Thank you.

  Read the article

• Why does one of these statements compile in Scala but not the other?

  - by Jeff

  (Note: I'm using Scala 2.7.7 here, not 2.8). I'm doing something pretty simple -- creating a map based on the values in a simple, 2-column CSV file -- and I've completed it easily enough, but I'm perplexed at why my first attempt didn't compile. Here's the code: // Returns Iterator[String] private def getLines = Source.fromFile(csvFilePath).getLines // This doesn't compile: def mapping: Map[String,String] = { Map(getLines map { line: String => val pairArr = line.split(",") pairArr(0) -> pairArr(1).trim() }.toList:_*) } // This DOES compile def mapping: Map[String,String] = { def strPair(line: String): (String,String) = { val pairArr = line.split(",") pairArr(0) -> pairArr(1).trim() } Map(getLines.map( strPair(_) ).toList:_*) } The compiler error is CsvReader.scala:16: error: value toList is not a member of (St ring) = (java.lang.String, java.lang.String) [scalac] possible cause: maybe a semicolon is missing before `value toList'? [scalac] }.toList:_*) [scalac] ^ [scalac] one error found So what gives? They seem like they should be equivalent to me, apart from the explicit function definition (vs. anonymous in the nonworking example) and () vs. {}. If I replace the curly braces with parentheses in the nonworking example, the error is "';' expected, but 'val' found." But if I remove the local variable definition and split the string twice AND use parens instead of curly braces, it compiles. Can someone explain this difference to me, preferably with a link to Scala docs explaining the difference between parens and curly braces when used to surround method arguments?

  Read the article

• Reading data from an open HTTP stream

  - by allenjones

  Hi, I am trying to use the .NET WebRequest/WebResponse classes to access the Twitter streaming API here "http://stream.twitter.com/spritzer.json". I need to be able to open the connection and read data incrementally from the open connection. Currently, when I call WebRequest.GetResponse method, it blocks until the entire response is downloaded. I know there is a BeginGetResponse method, but this will just do the same thing on a background thread. I need to get access to the response stream while the download is still happening. This just does not seem possible to me with these classes. There is a specific comment about this in the Twitter documentation: "Please note that some HTTP client libraries only return the response body after the connection has been closed by the server. These clients will not work for accessing the Streaming API. You must use an HTTP client that will return response data incrementally. Most robust HTTP client libraries will provide this functionality. The Apache HttpClient will handle this use case, for example." They point to the Appache HttpClient, but that doesn't help much because I need to use .NET. Any ideas whether this is possible with WebRequest/WebResponse, or do I have to go for lower level networking classes? Maybe there are other libraries that will allow me to do this? Thx Allen

  Read the article

• Requested operation requires an OLE DB Session object... - Connecting Excel to SQL server via ADO

  - by Frank V

  I'm attempting to take Excel 2003 and connect it to SQL Server 2000 to run a few dynamicly generated SQL Queries which ultimately filling certain cells. I'm attempting to do this via VBA via ADO (I've tried 2.8 to 2.0) but I'm getting an error while setting the ActiveConnection variable which is inside the ADODB.Connection object. I need to resolve this pretty quick... Requested operation requires an OLE DB Session object, which is not supported by the current provider. I'm honestly not sure what this error means and right now I don't care. How can get this connection to succeed so that I can run my queries? Here is my VB code: Dim SQL As String, RetValue As String SQL = " select top 1 DateTimeValue from SrcTable where x='value' " 'Not the real SQL RetValue = "" Dim RS As ADODB.Recordset Dim Con As New ADODB.Connection Dim Cmd As New ADODB.Command Con.ConnectionString = "Provider=sqloledb;DRIVER=SQL Server;Data Source=Server\Instance;Initial Catalog=MyDB_DC;User Id=<UserName>;Password=<Password>;" Con.CommandTimeout = (60 * 30) Set Cmd.ActiveConnection = Con ''Error occurs here. ' I'm not sure if the rest is right. I've just coded it. Can't get past the line above. Cmd.CommandText = SQL Cmd.CommandType = adCmdText Con.Open Set RS = Cmd.Execute() If Not RS.EOF Then RetValue = RS(0).Value Debug.Print "RetValue is: " & RetValue End If Con.Close I imagine something is wrong with the connection string but I've tried over a dozen variations. Now I'm just shooting in the dark.... Note/Update: To make matters more confusing, if I Google for the error quote above, I get a lot of hits back but nothing seems relevant or I'm not sure what information is relevant.... I've got the VBA code in "Sheet1" under "Microsoft Excel Objects." I've done this before but usually put things in a module. Could this make a difference?

  Read the article

• Why doesn't my test run tearDownAfterTestClass when it fails

  - by Memor-X

  in a test i am writing the setUpBeforeTests creates a new customer in the database who is then used to perform the tests with so naturally when i finish the test i should get rid of this test customer in tearDownAfterTestClass so that i can create then anew when i rerun the test and not get any false positives how when the tests all run fine i have no problem but if a test fails and i go to rerun it my setUpBeforeTests fails because i check for mysql errors in it like this try { if(!mysqli_query($connection,$query)) { $this->assertTrue(false); } } catch (Exception $exc) { $msg = '[tearDownAfterTestClass] Exception Error' . PHP_EOL . PHP_EOL; $msg .= 'Could not run query - '.mysqli_error($connection). PHP_EOL;; $this->fail($msg); } the error i get is that there is a primary key violation which is expected cause i'm trying to create a new customer using the same data (primary key is on email which is also used to log in) however that means when the test failed it didn't run tearDownAfterTestClass now i could just move everything in tearDownAfterTestClass to the start of setUpBeforeTests however to me that seems like bad programming since it defeates the purpose of even have tearDownAfterTestClass so i am wondering, why isn't my tearDownAfterTestClass running when a test fails NOTE: the database is a fundamental part of the system i'm testing and the database and system are on a separate development environment not the live one, the backup files for the database are almost 2 GBs and takes almost 1/2 an hour to restore, the purpose of the tear down is to remove any data we have added because of the test so that we don't have to restore the database every time we run the tests

  Read the article

• check if a tree is a binary search tree

  - by TimeToCodeTheRoad

  I have written the following code to check if a tree is a Binary search tree. Please help me check the code: Pair p{ boolean isTrue; int min; int max; } public boo lean isBst(BNode v){ return isBST1(v).isTrue; } public Pair isBST1(BNode v){ if(v==null) return new Pair(true, INTEGER.MIN,INTEGER.MAX); if(v.left==null && v.right==null) return new Pair(true, v.data, v.data); Pair pLeft=isBST1(v.left); Pair pRight=isBST1(v.right); boolean check=pLeft.max<v.data && v.data<= pRight.min; Pair p=new Pair(); p.isTrue=check&&pLeft.isTrue&&pRight.isTrue; p.min=pLeft.min; p.max=pRight.max; return p; } Note: This function checks if a tree is a binary search tree

  Read the article

• Can I detect whether an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize?

  - by Joe White

  Is there a way to detect whether or not an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize? I have an object that looks something like this (full-blown Dispose pattern elided for clarity): public class ResourceWrapper { private readonly bool _ownsResource; private readonly UnmanagedResource _resource; public ResourceWrapper(UnmanagedResource resource, bool ownsResource) { _resource = resource; _ownsResource = ownsResource; if (!ownsResource) GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } ~ResourceWrapper() { if (_ownsResource) // clean up the unmanaged resource } } If the ownsResource constructor parameter is false, then the finalizer will have nothing to do -- so it seems reasonable (if a bit quirky) to call GC.SuppressFinalize right from the constructor. However, because this behavior is quirky, I'm very tempted to note it in an XML doc comment... and if I'm tempted to comment it, then I ought to write a unit test for it. But while System.GC has methods to set an object's finalizability (SuppressFinalize, ReRegisterForFinalize), I don't see any methods to get an object's finalizability. Is there any way to query whether GC.SuppressFinalize has been called on a given instance, short of buying Typemock or writing my own CLR host?

  Read the article

• How to write a Criteria Query when there's an <any> association

  - by Bevan

  I'm having some trouble constructing the correct Criteria to do a particular query - after an afternoon of consultation with Professor Google, I'm hoping that someone can point me in the right direction. I have two entities of interest: OutputTsDef and NamedAttribute What I'm trying to do is to find all OutputTsDef that have a particular NamedAttribute value. I can write a detached Criteria to find all NamedAttributes that have a given name and value: var attributesCriteria = DetachedCriteria.For<INamedAttribute>() .Add(Expression.Eq("Name", "some name")) .Add(Expression.Eq("Value", "some value")); How do I inject this in to a query for OutputTsDef to restrict the results? var criteria = nHibernateSession.CreateCriteria(typeof(IOutputTsDefEntity)); // What do I write here? var results = criteria.List(); NamedAttribute looks like this - note the use of [Any] as we can have NamedAttributes on many kinds of entity. [AttributeIdentifier("DbKey", Name = "Id.Column", Value = "NamedAttributeID")] [Class(Table = "NamedAttributes")] public class NamedAttribute : BusinessEntity, INamedAttribute { [Any(0, Name = "Entity", MetaType = "System.String", IdType = "System.Int32")] [MetaValue(1, Class = "Sample.OutputTsDef, Sample.Entities", Value = "OTD")] [MetaValue(2, Class = "Sample.OutputTimeSeriesAttributesEntity, Sample.Entities", Value = "OTA")] [Column(3, Name = "OwnerType")] [Column(4, Name = "OwnerKey")] public virtual IBusinessEntity Entity { get; set; } [Property(Column = "Name")] public virtual string Name { get; set; } [Property(Column = "Value")] public virtual string Value { get; set; } ... omitted ... } In regular SQL, I'd just include an extra "where" clause like this: where OutputTsDefId in ( select distinct OwnerKey from NamedAttributes where Name = ? and Value = ? and OwnerType = 'OTD' ) What am I missing? (Question also posted to the NHUsers mailing list - I'll copy any useful information from there, here.)

  Read the article

• prevent javascript in the WMD editor's preview box

  - by Justin Grant

  There are many SO questions (e.g. here and here) about how to do server-side scrubbing of Markdown produced by the WMD editor to ensure the HTML generated doesn't contain malicious script, like this: <img onload="alert('haha');" src="http://www.google.com/intl/en_ALL/images/srpr/logo1w.png" /> Unfortunately, this still allows script to show up in the WMD client's preview box. I doubt this is a big deal since if you're scrubbing the HTML on the server, an attacker can't save the bad HTML so no one else will be able to see it later and have their cookies stolen or sessions hijacked by the bad script. But it's still kinda odd to allow an attacker to run any script in the context of your site, and it's probably a bad idea to allow the client preview window to allow different HTML than your server will allow. StackOverflow has clearly plugged this hole. How did they do it? [NOTE: I already figured this out but it required some tricky javascript debugging, so I'm answering my own question here to help others who may want to do ths same thing]

  Read the article

• Invalid controller using custom routes

  - by AlexW

  I've been following the instruction on how to create custom routes from the book Zend Framework - A Beginners Guide I've changed my application.ini file to include this routing information: resources.router.routes.static-content.route = /content/:page resources.router.routes.static-content.defaults.module = default resources.router.routes.static-content.defaults.controller = static-content resources.router.routes.static-content.defaults.view = static-content resources.router.routes.static-content.defaults.action = display Given the above configuration, I have this controller: <?php class Default_StaticContentController extends Zend_Controller_Action { public function init() { /* Initialize action controller here */ } public function displayAction() { // action body $page = $this->getRequest()->getParam('page'); if (file_exists($this->view->getScriptPath(null) . '/' . $this->getRequest()->getControllerName() . '/' . $page . $this->viewSuffix )) { $this->render($page); } else { throw new Zend_Controller_Action_Exception('HLC - Page not found', 404); } } } I have a view named about.phtml in the APPLICATION_PATH/modules/default/views/static-content folder. What ahppens is I get an error saying: An error occurred Page not found Exception information: Message: Invalid controller class ("StaticContentController") Stack trace: #0 /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/zend/library/Zend/Controller/Dispatcher/Standard.php(262): Zend_Controller_Dispatcher_Standard->loadClass('StaticContentCo...') #1 /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/zend/library/Zend/Controller/Front.php(954): Zend_Controller_Dispatcher_Standard->dispatch(Object(Zend_Controller_Request_Http), Object(Zend_Controller_Response_Http)) #2 /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/zend/library/Zend/Application/Bootstrap/Bootstrap.php(97): Zend_Controller_Front->dispatch() #3 /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/zend/library/Zend/Application.php(366): Zend_Application_Bootstrap_Bootstrap->run() #4 /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/HLC/public/index.php(26): Zend_Application->run() #5 {main} Request Parameters: array ( 'page' => 'about', 'module' => 'default', 'controller' => 'static-content', 'view' => 'static-content', 'action' => 'display', ) Note that it is not rendering my customised Zend_Controller_Action_Exception but throwing the global error. I'm using the URL: http://hlc.local:8888/content/about The default index action works ok, just this routing that's not working.

  Read the article

• using an alternative string quotation syntax in python

  - by Cawas

  Just wondering... I find using escape characters too distracting. I'd rather do something like this: print ^'Let's begin and end with sets of unlikely 2 chars and bingo!'^ Let's begin and end with sets of unlikely 2 chars and bingo! Note the ' inside the string, and how this syntax would have no issue with it, or whatever else inside for basically all cases. Too bad markdown can't properly colorize it (yet), so I decided to <pre> it. Sure, the ^ could be any other char, I'm not sure what would look/work better. That sounds good enough to me, tho. Probably some other language already have a similar solution. And, just maybe, Python already have such a feature and I overlooked it. I hope this is the case. But if it isn't, would it be too hard to, somehow, change Python's interpreter and be able to select an arbitrary (or even standardized) syntax for notating the strings? I realize there are many ways to change statements and the whole syntax in general by using pre-compilators, but this is far more specific. And going any of those routes is what I call "too hard". I'm not really needing to do this so, again, I'm just wondering.

  Read the article

• Sell me Distributed revision control

  - by ring bearer

  I know 1000s of similar topics floating around. I read at lest 5 threads here in SO But why am I still not convinced about DVCS? I have only following questions (note that I am selfishly worried only about Java projects) What is the advantage or value of committing locally? What? really? All modern IDEs allows you to keep track of your changes? and if required you can restore a particular change. Also, they have a feature to label your changes/versions at IDE level!? what if I crash my hard drive? where did my local repository go? (so how is it cool compared to checking in to a central repo?) Working offline or in an air plane. What is the big deal?In order for me to build a release with my changes, I must eventually connect to the central repository. Till then it does not matter how I track my changes locally. Ok Linus Torvalds gives his life to Git and hates everything else. Is that enough to blindly sing praises? Linus lives in a different world compared to offshore developers in my mid-sized project? Pitch me!

  Read the article

• using pom for test scope dependencies

  - by IttayD

  Hi, Is it possible to create a pom file so it can be used inside another pom to add test scope dependencies? So in module E's pom.xml I have: <dependencies> <dependency> <groupId>com.example</artifactId> <artifactId>D</artifactId> <type>pom</type> <scope>test</scope> </dependency> </dependencies> So that if D's pom.xml contains dependencies on artifacts A, B, C, then these artifacts are in the compilation and execution classpath of E's tests. NOTE: the reason I want such a pom, and not rely on regular dependency resolution is that I have created a tests jar using maven-jar-plugin:test-jar and using that jar as a dependency causes maven to not use its transitive dependencies. (see http://jira.codehaus.org/browse/MNG-1378) UPDATE: this does not work for me (maybe because I'm trying to use it for the test scope): http://www.sonatype.com/books/mvnref-book/reference/pom-relationships-sect-pom-best-practice.html

  Read the article

• Can't send smtp email from network using C#, asp.net website

  - by Kaysar

  Hi, I have my code here, it works fine from my home, where my user is administrator, and I am connected to internet via a cable network. But, problem is when I try this code from my work place, it does not work. Shows error: "unable to connect to the remote server" From a different machine in the same network: "A socket operation was attempted to an unreachable network 209.xxx.xx.52:25" I checked with our network admin, and he assured me that all the mail ports are open [25,110, and other ports for gmail]. Then, I logged in with administrative privilege, there was a little improvement, it did not show any error, but the actual email was never received. Please note that, the code was tested from development environment, visual studio 2005 and 2008. Any suggestion will be much appreciated. Thanks in advance try { MailMessage mail_message = new MailMessage("[email protected]", txtToEmail.Text, txtSubject.Text, txtBody.Text); SmtpClient mail_client = new SmtpClient("SMTP.y7mail.com"); NetworkCredential Authentic = new NetworkCredential("[email protected]", "xxxxx"); mail_client.UseDefaultCredentials = true; mail_client.Credentials = Authentic; mail_message.IsBodyHtml = true; mail_message.Priority = MailPriority.High; try { mail_client.Send(mail_message); lblStatus.Text = "Mail Sent Successfully"; } catch (Exception ex) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(ex.Message); lblStatus.Text = "Mail Sending Failed\r\n" + ex.Message; } } catch (Exception ex) { lblStatus.Text = "Mail Sending Failed\r\n" + ex.Message; }

  Read the article

• pthread condition variables on Linux, odd behaviour.

  - by janesconference

  Hi. I'm synchronizing reader and writer processes on Linux. I have 0 or more process (the readers) that need to sleep until they are woken up, read a resource, go back to sleep and so on. Please note I don't know how many reader processes are up at any moment. I have one process (the writer) that writes on a resource, wakes up the readers and does its business until another resource is ready (in detail, I developed a no starve reader-writers solution, but that's not important). To implement the sleep / wake up mechanism I use a Posix condition value, pthread_cond_t. The clients call a pthread_cond_wait() on the variable to sleep, while the server does a pthread_cond_broadcast() to wake them all up. As the manual says, I surround these two calls with a lock/unlock of the associated pthread mutex. The condition variable and the mutex are initialized in the server and shared between processes through a shared memory area (because I'm not working with threads, but with separate processes) an I'm sure my kernel / syscall support it (because I checked _POSIX_THREAD_PROCESS_SHARED). What happens is that the first client process sleeps and wakes up perfectly. When I start the second process, it blocks on its pthread_cond_wait() and never wakes up, even if I'm sure (by the logs) that pthread_cond_broadcast() is called. If I kill the first process, and launch another one, it works perfectly. In other words, the condition variable pthread_cond_broadcast() seems to wake up only one process a time. If more than one process wait on the very same shared condition variable, only the first one manages to wake up correctly, while the others just seem to ignore the broadcast. Why this behaviour? If I send a pthread_cond_broadcast(), every waiting process should wake up, not just one (and, however, not always the same one).

  Read the article

• NSURLConnection receives data even if no data was thrown back

  - by Anna Fortuna

  Let me explain my situation. Currently, I am experimenting long-polling using NSURLConnection. I found this and I decided to try it. What I do is send a request to the server with a timeout interval of 300 secs. (or 5 mins.) Here is a code snippet: NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlString]; NSURLRequest *request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url cachePolicy:NSURLCacheStorageAllowedInMemoryOnly timeoutInterval:300]; NSData *data = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&resp error:&err]; Now I want to test if the connection will "hold" the request if no data was thrown back from the server, so what I did was this: if (data != nil) [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(dataReceived:) withObject:data waitUntilDone:YES]; And the function dataReceived: looks like this: - (void)dataReceived:(NSData *)data { NSLog(@"DATA RECEIVED!"); NSString *string = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:[data bytes]]; NSLog(@"THE DATA: %@", string); } Server-side, I created a function that will return a data once it fits the arguments and returns none if nothing fits. Here is a snippet of the PHP function: function retrieveMessages($vardata) { if (!empty($vardata)) { $result = check_data($vardata) //check_data is the function which returns 1 if $vardata //fits the arguments, and 0 if it fails to fit if ($result == 1) { $jsonArray = array('Data' => $vardata); echo json_encode($jsonArray); } } } As you can see, the function will only return data if the $result is equal to 1. However, even if the function returns nothing, NSURLConnection will still perform the function dataReceived: meaning the NSURLConnection still receives data, albeit an empty one. So can anyone help me here? How will I perform long-polling using NSURLConnection? Basically, I want to maintain the connection as long as no data is returned. So how will I do it? NOTE: I am new to PHP, so if my code is wrong, please point it out so I can correct it.

  Read the article

• wrapping user controls in a transaction

  - by Hans Gruber

  I'm working on heavily dynamic and configurable CMS system. Therefore, many pages are composed of a dynamically loaded set of user controls. To enable loose coupling between containers (pages) and children (user controls), all user controls are responsible for their own persistence. Each User Control is wired up to its data/service layer dependencies via IoC. They also implement an IPersistable interface, which allows the container .aspx page to issue a Save command to its children without knowledge of the number or exact nature of these user controls. Note: what follows is only pseudo-code: public class MyUserControl : IPersistable, IValidatable { public void Save() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } public bool IsValid() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } public partial class MyPage { public void btnSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { foreach (IValidatable control in Controls) { if (!control.IsValid) { throw new Exception("error"); } } foreach (IPersistable control in Controls) { if (!control.Save) { throw new Exception("error"); } } } } I'm thinking of using declarative transactions from the System.EnterpriseService namespace to wrap the btnSave_Click in a transaction in case of an exception, but I'm not sure how this might be achieved or any pitfalls to such an approach.

  Read the article

• How to hide labels in html

  - by user225269

  I have this code which depends on this javascript from dynamic drive: http://dynamicdrive.com/dynamicindex16/formdependency.htm Its a form dependency manager. Which will show or hide elements depending on what you choose from the forms that are revealed: I don't know why but If I alter the code from this: <td> <label>ID Number<input type="checkbox" name="id" class="DEPENDS ON info BEING student"></label> </td> </tr> To this: <td> <input type="hidden" class="DEPENDS ON info BEING student"> <label style="margin-bottom: 1em; padding-bottom: 1em; border-bottom: 3px silver groove;"></label> <tr> <td> <input type="checkbox" name="id" class="DEPENDS ON info BEING student"><label>ID Number</label> </td> </tr> Note: The only change that I did here is to transfer the label from the left side of the checkbox to the right side so that they will look better. But when I do this. The labels will be visible even if I did not yet click on the button that will make it visible(but without the checkboxes). And when I click on that button, that's the only time when the checkbox will appear on the left side of the labels. The checkbox is ok, but the label is not. And the javascript is working properly. What do I do so that the checkbox and label will go together?

  Read the article

• Replace relative urls to absolute

  - by Rocky Singh

  I have the html source of a page in a form of string with me: <html> <head> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="/css/all.css" /> </head> <body> <a href="/test.aspx">Test</a> <a href="http://mysite.com">Test</a> <img src="/images/test.jpg"/> <img src="http://mysite.com/images/test.jpg"/> </body> </html> I want to convert all the relative paths to absolute. I want the output be: <html> <head> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="http://mysite.com/css/all.css" /> </head> <body> <a href="http://mysite.com/test.aspx">Test</a> <a href="http://mysite.com">Test</a> <img src="http://mysite.com/images/test.jpg"/> <img src="http://mysite.com/images/test.jpg"/> </body> </html> Note: I want only the relative paths to be converted to absolute ones in that string. The absolute ones which are already in that string should not be touched, they are fine to me as they are already absolute. Can this be done by regex or other means?

  Read the article

• Tell me SQL Server Full-Text searcher is crazy, not me.

  - by Ian Boyd

  i have some customers with a particular address that the user is searching for: 123 generic way There are 5 rows in the database that match: ResidentialAddress1 ============================= 123 GENERIC WAY 123 GENERIC WAY 123 GENERIC WAY 123 GENERIC WAY 123 GENERIC WAY i run a FT query to look for these rows. i'll show you each step as i add more criteria to the search: SELECT ResidentialAddress1 FROM Patrons WHERE CONTAINS(Patrons.ResidentialAddress1, '"123*"') ResidentialAddress1 ========================= 123 MAPLE STREET 12345 TEST 123 MINE STREET 123 GENERIC WAY 123 FAKE STREET ... (30 row(s) affected) Okay, so far so good, now adding the word "generic": SELECT ResidentialAddress1 FROM Patrons WHERE CONTAINS(Patrons.ResidentialAddress1, '"123*"') AND CONTAINS(Patrons.ResidentialAddress1, '"generic*"') ResidentialAddress1 ============================= 123 GENERIC WAY 123 GENERIC WAY 123 GENERIC WAY 123 GENERIC WAY 123 GENERIC WAY (5 row(s) affected) Excellent. And now i'l add the final keyword that the user wants to make sure exists: SELECT ResidentialAddress1 FROM Patrons WHERE CONTAINS(Patrons.ResidentialAddress1, '"123*"') AND CONTAINS(Patrons.ResidentialAddress1, '"generic*"') AND CONTAINS(Patrons.ResidentialAddress1, '"way*"') ResidentialAddress1 ------------------------------ (0 row(s) affected) Huh? No rows? What if i query for just "way*": SELECT ResidentialAddress1 FROM Patrons WHERE CONTAINS(Patrons.ResidentialAddress1, '"way*"') ResidentialAddress1 ------------------------------ (0 row(s) affected) At first i thought that perhaps it's because of the *, and it's requiring that the root way have more characters after it. But that's not true: Searching for "123*" matches "123" Searching for "generic*" matches "generic" Books online says, The asterisk matches zero, one, or more characters What if i remove the * just for s&g: SELECT ResidentialAddress1 FROM Patrons WHERE CONTAINS(Patrons.ResidentialAddress1, '"way"') Server: Msg 7619, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 A clause of the query contained only ignored words. So one might think that you are just not allowed to even search for way, either alone, or as a root. But this isn't true either: SELECT * FROM Patrons WHERE CONTAINS(Patrons.*, '"way*"') AccountNumber FirstName Lastname ------------- --------- -------- 33589 JOHN WAYNE So sum up, the user is searching for rows that contain all the words: 123 generic way Which i, correctly, translate into the WHERE clauses: SELECT * FROM Patrons WHERE CONTAINS(Patrons.*, '"123*"') AND CONTAINS(Patrons.*, '"generic*"') AND CONTAINS(Patrons.*, '"way*"') which returns no rows. Tell me this just isn't going to work, that it's not my fault, and SQL Server is crazy. Note: i've emptied the FT index and rebuilt it.

  Read the article

• Replacing accented/umlauted characters with their unadorned counterparts in C# [closed]

  - by Andrew Rollings

  Duplicate of 249087 I have a bunch of user generated addresses that may contain characters with diacritic marks. What is the most effective (i.e. generic) way (apart from a straightforward replace) to automatically convert any such characters to their closest English equivalent? E.g. any of àâãäå would become a æ would become the two separate letters ae ç would become c any of èéêë would become e etc. for all possible letter variations (preferably without having to find and encode lookups for each diacritic form of the letter). (Note: I have to pass these addresses on to third party software that is incapable of printing anything other than English characters. I'd rather the software was capable of handling them, but I have no control over that.) EDIT: Never mind... Found the answer [here][2]. It showed up in the "Related" section to the right of the question after I posted, but not in my prior search or as a pre-post suggestion. Hmm. I added the 'diacritics' tag to the other question in any case. EDIT 2: Jeez! Who voted this -1 after I closed it?

  Read the article

• Are MEF's ComposableParts contracts instance-based?

  - by Dave

  I didn't really know how to phrase the title of my questions, so my apologies in advance. I read through parts of the MEF documentation to try to find the answer to my question, but couldn't find it. I'm using ImportMany to allow MEF to create multiple instances of a specific plugin. That plugin Imports several parts, and within calls to a specific instance, it wants these Imports to be singletons. However, what I don't want is for all instances of this plugin to use the same singleton. For example, let's say my application ImportManys Blender appliances. Every time I ask for one, I want a different Blender. However, each Blender Imports a ControlPanel. I want each Blender to have its own ControlPanel. To make things a little more interesting, each Blender can load BlendPrograms, which are also contained within their own assemblies, and MEF takes care of this loading. A BlendProgram might need to access the ControlPanel to get the speed, but I want to ensure that it is accessing the correct ControlPanel (i.e. the one that is associated with the Blender that is associated with the program!) This diagram might clear things up a little bit: As the note shows, I believe that the confusion could come from an inherently-poor design. The BlendProgram shouldn't touch the ControlPanel directly, and instead perhaps the BlendProgram should get the speed via the Blender, which will then delegate the request to its ControlPanel. If this is the case, then I assume the BlendProgram needs to have a reference to a specific Blender. In order to do this, is the right way to leverage MEF and use an ImportingConstructor for BlendProgram, i.e. [ImportingConstructor] public class BlendProgram : IBlendProgram { public BlendProgram( Blender blender) {} } And if this is the case, how do I know that MEF will use the intended Blender plugin?

  Read the article

• Java: easiest way to package both Java 1.5 and 1.6 code

  - by WizardOfOdds

  I want to package a piece of code that absolutely must run on Java 1.5. There's one part of the code where the program can be "enhanced" if the VM is an 1.6 VM. Basically it's this method: private long[] findDeadlockedThreads() { // JDK 1.5 only supports the findMonitorDeadlockedThreads() // method, so you need to comment out the following three lines if (mbean.isSynchronizerUsageSupported()) return mbean.findDeadlockedThreads(); else return mbean.findMonitorDeadlockedThreads(); } What would be easiest way to have this compile on 1.5 and yet do the 1.6 method calls when on 1.6 ? In the past I've done something similar by compiling a unique 1.6 class that I would package with my app and instantiate using a ClassLoader when on 1.6 (because an 1.6 JVM is perfectly fine mixing 0x32 and 0x31 classes), but I think it's a bit overkill (and a bit painful because during the build process you have to build both 0x31 and 0x32 .class files). How should I go if I wanted to compile the above method on 1.5? Maybe using reflection but then how (I'm not familiar at all with reflection) Note: if you're curious, the above method comes from this article: http://www.javaspecialists.eu/archive/Issue130.html (but I don't want to "comment the three lines" like in the article, I want this to compile and run on both 1.5 and 1.6)

  Read the article

• How can I pass a const array or a variable array to a function in C?

  - by CSharperWithJava

  I have a simple function Bar that uses a set of values from a data set that is passed in in the form of an Array of data structures. The data can come from two sources: a constant initialized array of default values, or a dynamically updated cache. The calling function determines which data is used and should be passed to Bar. Bar doesn't need to edit any of the data and in fact should never do so. How should I declare Bar's data parameter so that I can provide data from either set? union Foo { long _long; int _int; } static const Foo DEFAULTS[8] = {1,10,100,1000,10000,100000,1000000,10000000}; static Foo Cache[8] = {0}; void Bar(Foo* dataSet, int len);//example function prototype Note, this is C, NOT C++ if that makes a difference; Edit Oh, one more thing. When I use the example prototype I get a type qualifier mismatch warning, (because I'm passing a mutable reference to a const array?). What do I have to change for that?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425  | Next Page >