Search Results

Search found 11365 results on 455 pages for 'authorization basic'.

Page 420/455 | < Previous Page | 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427  | Next Page >

  • assignment not working in a dll exported C++ class

    - by Jim Jones
    Using VS 2008 Have a C++ class in which I'm calling functions from a 3rd party dll. The definition in the header file is as follows: namespace OITImageExport { class ImageExport { private: SCCERR seResult; /* Error code returned. */ VTHDOC hDoc; /* Input doc handle returned by DAOpenDocument(). */ VTHEXPORT hExport; /* Handle to the export returned by EXOpenExport(). */ VTDWORD dwFIFlags; /* Used in setting the SCCOPT_FIFLAGS option. */ VTCHAR szError[256]; /* Error string buffer. */ VTDWORD dwOutputId; /* Output Format. */ VTDWORD dwSpecType; public: ImageExport(const char* outputId, const char* specType); void ProcessDocument(const char* inputPath, const char* outputPath); ~ImageExport(); }; } In the constructor I initialize two of the class fields having values which come from enumerations in the 3rd party dll: ImageExport::ImageExport(const char* outputId, const char* specType) { if(outputId == "jpeg") { dwOutputId = FI_JPEGFIF; } if(specType == "ansi") { dwSpecType = IOTYPE_ANSIPATH; } seResult = DAInit(); if (seResult != SCCERR_OK) { DAGetErrorString(seResult, szError, sizeof(szError)); fprintf(stderr, "DAInit() failed: %s (0x%04X)\n", szError, seResult); exit(seResult); } } When I use this class inside of a console app, with a main method in another file (all in the same namespace), instantiating the class object and calling the methods, it works like a champ. So, now that I know the basic code works, I open a dll project using the class header and code file. Course I have to add the dll macro, namely: #ifdef IMAGEDLL_EXPORTS #define DLL __declspec(dllexport) #else #define DLL __declspec(dllimport) #endif and changed the class definition to "class DLL ImageExport". Compiled nicely to a dll and .lib file (No errors, No warnings). Now to test this dll I open another console project using the same main method as before and linking to the (dll) lib file. Had problems, which when tracked down were the result of the two fields not being set; both had values of 0. Went back to the first console app and printed out the values: dwOutputId was 1535 (#define FI_JPEGFIF 1535) and dwSpecType was 2 (#define IOTYPE_ANSIPATH 2). Now if I was assigning these values outside of the class, I can see how the visibility could be different, but why is the assignment in the dll not working? Is it something about having a class in the dll?

    Read the article

  • How do I write object classes effectively when dealing with table joins?

    - by Chris
    I should start by saying I'm not now, nor do I have any delusions I'll ever be a professional programmer so most of my skills have been learned from experience very much as a hobby. I learned PHP as it seemed a good simple introduction in certain areas and it allowed me to design simple web applications. When I learned about objects, classes etc the tutor's basic examnples covered the idea that as a rule of thumb each database table should have its own class. While that worked well for the photo gallery project we wrote, as it had very simple mysql queries, it's not working so well now my projects are getting more complex. If I require data from two separate tables which require a table join I've instead been ignoring the class altogether and handling it on a case by case basis, OR, even worse been combining some of the data into the class and the rest as a separate entity and doing two queries, which to me seems inefficient. As an example, when viewing content on a forum I wrote, if you view a thread, I retrieve data from the threads table, the posts table and the user table. The queries from the user and posts table are retrieved via a join and not instantiated as an object, whereas the thread data is called using my Threads class. So how do I get from my current state of affairs to something a little less 'stupid', for want of a better word. Right now I have a DB class that deals with connection and escaping values etc, a parent db query class that deals with the common queries and methods, and all of the other classes (Thread, Upload, Session, Photo and ones thats aren't used Post, User etc ) are children of that. Do I make a big posts class that has the relevant extra attributes that I retrieve from the users (and potentially threads) table? Do I have separate classes that populate each of their relevant attributes with a single query? If so how do I do that? Because of the way my classes are written, based on what I was taught, my db update row method, or insert method both just take the attributes as an array and update all of that, if I have extra attributes from other db tables in each class then how do I rewrite those methods as obbiously updating automatically like that would result in errors? In short I think my understanding is limited right now and I'd like some pointers when it comes to the fundamentals of how to write more complex classes.

    Read the article

  • Instantiating custom PropertySourcesPlaceholderConfigurer from spring context

    - by mmona
    I want to define a custom PropertySourcesPlaceholderConfigurer in spring context xml. I want to use there multiple PropertySources, so that I can load part of the configuration from several property files and provide other part dynamically by my custom PropertySource implementation. The advantage is that it should be then easy to adjust the order of loading these property sources just by making modifications to the xml spring configuration. And here I run into a problem: how to define an arbitrary list of PropertySources and inject it into PropertySourcesPlaceholderConfigurer, so that it uses the sources defined by me? Seems to be a basic thing that should be provided by spring, but since yesterday I cannot find a way to do it. Using namespace would enable me to load several property files, but I also need to define the id of the PropertySourcesPlaceholderConfigurer (as other projects refer to it), and also I want to use my custom implementation. That is why I am defining the bean explicitly and not using the namespace. The most intuitive way would be to inject a list of PropertySources into PropertySourcesPlaceholderConfigurer like this: <bean id="applicationPropertyPlaceholderConfigurer" class="org.springframework.context.support.PropertySourcesPlaceholderConfigurer"> <property name="ignoreUnresolvablePlaceholders" value="true" /> <property name="ignoreResourceNotFound" value="true" /> <property name="order" value="0"/> <property name="propertySources"> <list> <!-- my PropertySource objects --> </list> </property> </bean> but unfortunately propertySources is of type PropertySources and does not accept a list. The PropertySources interface has one and only implementor which is MutablePropertySources, which indeed stores list of PropertySource objects, but has no constructor nor setter through which I can inject this list. It only has add*(PropertySource) methods. The only workaround I see now is to implement my own PropertySources class, extending MutablePropertySources, which would accept list of PropertySource objects on creation and manually add it via using add*(PropertySource) method. But why so much workaround would be needed to provide something that I thought was supposed to be the main reason of introducing the PropertySources (having flexible configuration manageable from spring configuration level). Please clarify what am I getting wrong :)

    Read the article

  • dialog.show() crashes my application, why?

    - by user1739462
    I'm new in adroid. I like to do things when the color reach a value. I like (for example) show the alert if r is bigger than 30, but the application go in crash. Thank for very simple answares. public class MainActivity extends Activity { private AlertDialog dialog; private AlertDialog.Builder builder; private BackgroundColors view; public class BackgroundColors extends SurfaceView implements Runnable { public int grand=0; public int step=0; private boolean flip=true; private Thread thread; private boolean running; private SurfaceHolder holder; public BackgroundColors(Context context) { super(context); } Inside this loop while running is true. is impossible to show dialogs ?? public void run() { int r = 0; while (running){ if (holder.getSurface().isValid()){ Canvas canvas = holder.lockCanvas(); if (r > 250) r = 0; r += 10; if (r>30 && flip){ flip=false; // ********************************* dialog.show(); // ********************************* // CRASH !! } try { Thread.sleep(300); } catch(InterruptedException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } canvas.drawARGB(255, r, 255, 255); holder.unlockCanvasAndPost(canvas); } } } public void start() { running = true; thread = new Thread(this); holder = this.getHolder(); thread.start(); } public void stop() { running = false; boolean retry = true; while (retry){ try { thread.join(); retry = false; } catch(InterruptedException e) { retry = true; } } } public boolean onTouchEvent(MotionEvent e){ dialog.show(); return false; } protected void onSizeChanged(int xNew, int yNew, int xOld, int yOld){ super.onSizeChanged(xNew, yNew, xOld, yOld); grand = xNew; step =grand/15; } } public void onCreate(Bundle b) { super.onCreate(b); view = new BackgroundColors(this); this.setContentView(view); builder = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); builder.setMessage("ciao"); builder.setPositiveButton("OK", new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int which) { Log.d("Basic", "It worked"); } }); dialog = builder.create(); } public void onPause(){ super.onPause(); view.stop(); } public void onResume(){ super.onResume(); view.start(); } }

    Read the article

  • Newbie jQuery question: Need slideshow to rotate automatically, not just when clicking navigation.

    - by Justin
    Hi everyone, This is my first post, so please forgive me if this question has been asked a million times. I'm a self professed jQuery hack and I need a little guidance on taking this script I found and adapting it to my needs. Anyway, what I'm making is an image slide show with navigation. The script I found does this, but does not automatically cycle through the images. I'm using jQuery 1.3.2 and would rather stick with that than using the newer library. I would also prefer to edit what is already here rather than start from scratch. Anywho, here's the html: <div id="myslide"> <div class="cover"> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/current_Denver-skyline.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/pepsi_center-IS42RF-0D111C.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/columbine-2689820469_D1104.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/ist2_10460354-RedRocks.jpg" /> </div> </div> <!-- end of div cover --> </div> <!-- end of div myslide --> And here's the jQuery: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/JavaScript"> $(document).ready(function (){ $('#button a').click(function(){ var integer = $(this).attr('rel'); $('#myslide .cover').css({left:-820*(parseInt(integer)-1)}).hide().fadeIn(); /*----- Width of div #mystuff (here 820) ------ */ $('#button a').each(function(){ $(this).removeClass('active'); if($(this).hasClass('button'+integer)){ $(this).addClass('active')} }); }); }); </script> Here's where I got the script: http://www.webdeveloperjuice.com/2010/04/07/create-lightweight-jquery-fade-manual-slideshow/ Again, if this question is too basic for this site please let me know and possibly provide a reference link or two. Thanks a ton!

    Read the article

  • C# Different class objects in one list

    - by jeah_wicer
    I have looked around some now to find a solution to this problem. I found several ways that could solve it but to be honest I didn't realize which of the ways that would be considered the "right" C# or OOP way of solving it. My goal is not only to solve the problems but also to develop a good set of code standards and I'm fairly sure there's a standard way to handle this problem. Let's say I have 2 types of printer hardwares with their respective classes and ways of communicating: PrinterType1, PrinterType2. I would also like to be able to later on add another type if neccessary. One step up in abstraction those have much in common. It should be possible to send a string to each one of them as an example. They both have variables in common and variables unique to each class. (One for instance communicates via COM-port and has such an object, while the other one communicates via TCP and has such an object). I would however like to just implement a List of all those printers and be able to go through the list and perform things as "Send(string message)" on all Printers regardless of type. I would also like to access variables like "PrinterList[0].Name" that are the same for both objects, however I would also at some places like to access data that is specific to the object itself (For instance in the settings window of the application where the COM-port name is set for one object and the IP/port number for another). So, in short something like: In common: Name Send() Specific to PrinterType1: Port Specific to PrinterType2: IP And I wish to, for instance, do Send() on all objects regardless of type and the number of objects present. I've read about polymorphism, Generics, interfaces and such, but I would like to know how this, in my eyes basic, problem typically would be dealt with in C# (and/or OOP in general). I actually did try to make a base class, but it didn't quite seem right to me. For instance I have no use of a "string Send(string Message)" function in the base class itself. So why would I define one there that needs to be overridden in the derived classes when I would never use the function in the base class ever in the first place? I'm really thankful for any answers. People around here seem very knowledgeable and this place has provided me with many solutions earlier. Now I finally have an account to answer and vote with too. EDIT: To additionally explain, I would also like to be able to access the objects of the actual printertype. For instance the Port variable in PrinterType1 which is a SerialPort object. I would like to access it like: PrinterList[0].Port.Open() and have access to the full range of functionality of the underlaying port. At the same time I would like to call generic functions that work in the same way for the different objects (but with different implementations): foreach (printer in Printers) printer.Send(message)

    Read the article

  • How to check total cache size using a program

    - by user1888541
    so I'm having some trouble creating a program to measure cache size in C. I understand the basic concept of going about this but I'm still having trouble figuring out exactly what I am doing wrong. Basically, I create an array of varying length (going by power of 2s) and access each element in the array and put it in a dummy variable. I go through the array and do this around 1000 times to negate the "noise" that would otherwise occur if I only did it once to get an accurate measurement for time. Then, I look for the size that causes a big jump in access time. Unfortunately, this is where I am having my problem, I don't see this jump using my code and clearly I am doing something wrong. Another thing is that I used /proc/cpuinfo to check the cache and it said the size was 6114 but that was not a power of 2. I was told to go by powers of 2 to figure out the cache can anyone explain why this is? Here is the just of my code...I will post the rest if need be { struct timeval start; struct timeval end; // int n = 1; // change this to test different sizes int array_size = 1048576*n; // I'm trying to check the time "manually" first before creating a loop for the program to do it by itself this is why I have a separate "n" variable to increase the size char x = 0; int i =0, j=0; char *a; a =malloc(sizeof(char) * (array_size)); gettimeofday(&start,NULL); for(i=0; i<1000; i++) { for(j=0; j < array_size; j += 1) { x = a[j]; } } gettimeofday(&end,NULL); int timeTaken = (end.tv_sec * 1000000 + end.tv_usec) - (start.tv_sec *1000000 + start.tv_usec); printf("Time Taken: %d \n", timeTaken); printf("Average: %f \n", (double)timeTaken/((double)array_size); }

    Read the article

  • 'Good' programming form in maintaining / updating / accessing files by entry

    - by zhermes
    Basic Question: If I'm storying/modifying data, should I access elements of a file by index hard-coded index, i.e. targetFile.getElement(5); via a hardcoded identifier (internally translated into index), i.e. target.getElementWithID("Desired Element"), or with some intermediate DESIRED_ELEMENT = 5; ... target.getElement(DESIRED_ELEMENT), etc. Background: My program (c++) stores data in lots of different 'dataFile's. I also keep a list of all of the data-files in another file---a 'listFile'---which also stores some of each one's properties (see below, but i.e. what it's name is, how many lines of information it has etc.). There is an object which manages the data files and the list file, call it a 'fileKeeper'. The entries of a listFile look something like: filename , contents name , number of lines , some more numbers ... Its definitely possible that I may add / remove fields from this list --- but in general, they'll stay static. Right now, I have a constant string array which holds the identification of each element in each entry, something like: const string fileKeeper::idKeys[] = { "FileName" , "Contents" , "NumLines" ... }; const int fileKeeper::idKeysNum = 6; // 6 - for example I'm trying to manage this stuff in 'good' programatic form. Thus, when I want to retrieve the number of lines in a file (for example), instead of having a method which just retrieves the '3'rd element... Instead I do something like: string desiredID = "NumLines"; int desiredIndex = indexForID(desiredID); string desiredElement = elementForIndex(desiredIndex); where the function indexForID() goes through the entries of idKeys until it finds desiredID then returns the index it corresponds to. And elementForIndex(index) actually goes into the listFile to retrieve the index'th element of the comma-delimited string. Problem: This still seems pretty ugly / poor-form. Is there a way I should be doing this? If not, what are some general ways in which this is usually done? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Realtime MySQL search results on an advanced search page

    - by Andrew Heath
    I'm a hobbyist, and started learning PHP last September solely to build a hobby website that I had always wished and dreamed another more competent person might make. I enjoy programming, but I have little free time and enjoy a wide range of other interests and activities. I feel learning PHP alone can probably allow me to create 98% of the desired features for my site, but that last 2% is awfully appealing: The most powerful tool of the site is an advanced search page that picks through a 1000+ record game scenario database. Users can data-mine to tremendous depths - this advanced page has upwards of 50 different potential variables. It's designed to allow the hardcore user to search on almost any possible combination of data in our database and it works well. Those who aren't interested in wading through the sea of options may use the Basic Search, which is comprised of the most popular parts of the Advanced search. Because the advanced search is so comprehensive, and because the database is rather small (less than 1,200 potential hits maximum), with each variable you choose to include the likelihood of getting any qualifying results at all drops dramatically. In my fantasy land where I can wield AJAX as if it were Excalibur, my users would have a realtime Total Results counter in the corner of their screen as they used this page, which would automatically update its query structure and report how many results will be displayed with the addition of each variable. In this way it would be effortless to know just how many variables are enough, and when you've gone and added one that zeroes out the results set. A somewhat similar implementation, at least visually, would be the Subtotal sidebar when building a new custom computer on IBuyPower.com For those of you actually still reading this, my question is really rather simple: Given the time & ability constraints outlined above, would I be able to learn just enough AJAX (or whatever) needed to pull this one feature off without too much trouble? would I be able to more or less drop-in a pre-written code snippet and tweak to fit? or should I consider opening my code up to a trusted & capable individual in the future for this implementation? (assuming I can find one...) Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Calendar Day View in PHP

    - by JamesArmes
    I'm working on adding a day view option to an existing calendar solution. Like many people implementing their own calendars, I am trying to model Google Calendars. They have an excellent calendar solution and their day view provides a lot of flexibility. For most part, the implementation is going well; however, I'm having issues when it comes to conflicting events. Essentially, I want the events to share the same space, side by side. Events that start at the same time should have the longest event first. In the example data set I'm working with, I have four events: A: 10:30 - 11:30 B: 13:30 - 14:30 C: 10:30 - 11:00 D: 10:45 - 14:00 I can handle A, C, and D just fine, the problem comes with D. A should be left of C which should be left of D; each taking one third of the width (it's fixed width so I can do simple math to figure that out). The problem is that B should be under A and C, to the left of D. Ideally, B would take up the same amount of space as A and C (two thirds width), but I would even settle for it only taking up only one third width. My array of events looks similar to the following: $events = array( '1030' => array( 'uniqueID1' => array( 'start_time' => '1030', 'end_time' => '1130', ), 'uniqueID2' => array( 'start_time' => '1030', 'end_time' => '1100', ), ), '1045' => array( 'uniqueID3' => array( 'start_time' => '1045', 'end_time' => '1400', ), ), '1330' => array( 'uniqueID3' => array( 'start_time' => '1330', 'end_time' => '1430', ), ), ); My plan is to add some indexes to each event that include how many events it conflicts with (so I can calculate the width) and which position in that series it should be (so I can calculate the left value). However, that doesn't help the B. I'm thinking I might need an algorithm that uses some basic geometry and matrices, but I'm not sure where to begin. Any help is greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • passing back answers in prolog

    - by AhmadAssaf
    i have this code than runs perfectly .. returns a true .. when tracing the values are ok .. but its not returning back the answer .. it acts strangely when it ends and always return empty list .. uninstantiated variable .. test :- extend(4,12,[4,3,1,2],[[1,5],[3,4],[6]],_ExtendedBins). %printing basic information about the extend(NumBins,Capacity,RemainingNumbers,BinsSoFar,_ExtendedBins) :- getNumberofBins(BinsSoFar,NumberOfBins), msort(RemainingNumbers,SortedRemaining),nl, format("Current Number of Bins is :~w\n",[NumberOfBins]), format("Allowed Capacity is :~w\n",[Capacity]), format("maximum limit in bin is :~w\n",[NumBins]), format("Trying to fit :~w\n\n",[SortedRemaining]), format("Possible Solutions :\n\n"), fitElements(NumBins,NumberOfBins, Capacity,SortedRemaining,BinsSoFar,[]). %this is were the creation for possibilities will start %will check first if the number of bins allowed is less than then %we create a new list with all the possible combinations %after that we start matching to other bins with capacity constraint fitElements(NumBins,NumberOfBins, Capacity,RemainingNumbers,Bins,ExtendedBins) :- ( NumberOfBins < NumBins -> print('Creating new set: '); print('Sorry, Cannot create New Sets')), createNewList(Capacity,RemainingNumbers,Bins,ExtendedBins). createNewList(Capacity,RemainingNumbers,Bins,ExtendedBins) :- createNewList(Capacity,RemainingNumbers,Bins,[],ExtendedBins), print(ExtendedBins). createNewList(0,Bins,Bins,ExtendedBins,ExtendedBins). createNewList(_,[],_,ExtendedBins,ExtendedBins). createNewList(Capacity,[Element|Rest],Bins,Temp,ExtendedBins) :- conjunct_to_list(Element,ListedElement), append(ListedElement,Temp,NewList), sumlist(NewList,Sum), (Sum =< Capacity, append(ListedElement,ExtendedBins,Result); Capacity = 0), createNewList(Capacity,Rest,Bins,NewList,Result). fit(0,[],ExtendedBins,ExtendedBins). fit(Capacity,[Element|Rest],Bin,ExtendedBins) :- conjunct_to_list(Element,Listed), append(Listed,Bin,NewBin), sumlist(NewBin,Sum), (Sum =< Capacity -> fit(Capacity,Rest,NewBin,ExtendedBins); Capacity = 0, append(NewBin,ExtendedBins,NewExtendedBins), print(NewExtendedBins), fit(0,[],NewBin,ExtendedBins)). %get the number of bins provided getNumberofBins(List,NumberOfBins) :- getNumberofBins(List,0,NumberOfBins). getNumberofBins([],NumberOfBins,NumberOfBins). getNumberofBins([_List|Rest],TempCount,NumberOfBins) :- NewCount is TempCount + 1, %calculate the count getNumberofBins(Rest,NewCount,NumberOfBins). %recursive call %Convert set of terms into a list - used when needed to append conjunct_to_list((A,B), L) :- !, conjunct_to_list(A, L0), conjunct_to_list(B, L1), append(L0, L1, L). conjunct_to_list(A, [A]). Greatly appreciate the help

    Read the article

  • Device drivers and Windows

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, I am trying to complete the picture of how the PC and the OS interacts together. And I am at point, where I am little out of guess when it comes to device drivers. Please, don´t write things like its too complicated, or you don´t need to know when using high programming laguage and winapi functions. I want to know, it´s for study purposes. So, the very basic structure of how OS and PC (by PC I mean of course HW) is how I see it is that all other than direct CPU commands, which can CPU do on itself (arithmetic operation, its registers access and memory access) must pass thru OS. Mainly becouse from ring level 3 you cannot use in and out intructions which are used for acesing other HW. I know that there is MMIO,but it must be set by port comunication first. It was not like this all the time. Even I am bit young to remember MSDOS, I know you could access HW directly, becouse there ws no limitation, no ring mode. So you could to write string to diplay use wheather DOS function, or directly acess video card memory and write it by yourself. But as OS developed, there is no longer this possibility. But it is fine, since OS now handles all the HW comunication, and frankly it more convinient and much more safe (I would say the only option) in multitasking environment. So nowdays you instead of using int instructions to use BIOS mapped function or DOS function you call dll which internally than handles everything you don´t need to know about. I understand this. I also undrstand that device drivers is the piece of code that runs in ring level 0, so it can do all the HW interactions. But what I don´t understand is connection between OS and device driver. Let´s take a example - I want to make a sound card make a sound. So I call windows API to acess sound card, but what happens than? Does windows call device drivers to do so? But if it does call device driver, does it mean, that all device drivers which can be called by winAPI function, must have routines named in some specific way? I mean, when I have new sound card, must its drivers have functions named same as the old one? So Windows can actually call the same function from its perspective? But if Windows have predefined sets of functions requored by device drivers, that it cannot use new drivers that doesent existed before last version of OS came out. Please, help me understand this mess. I am really getting mad. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Web service security not working. Java

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, I have a ejb module which contains my ejbs as well as web services. I am using Netbeans 6.8 and Glassfish V3 I right clicked on my web service and clicked "edit web service attributes" and then checked "secure service" and then selected keystore of my server. This is my sun-ejb-jar.xml file :- <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE sun-ejb-jar PUBLIC "-//Sun Microsystems, Inc.//DTD Application Server 9.0 Servlet 2.5//EN" "http://www.sun.com/software/appserver/dtds/sun-web-app_2_5-0.dtd"> <sun-ejb-jar> <security-role-mapping> <role-name>Admin</role-name> <group-name>Admin</group-name> </security-role-mapping> <security-role-mapping> <role-name>General</role-name> <group-name>General</group-name> </security-role-mapping> <security-role-mapping> <role-name>Member</role-name> <group-name>Member</group-name> </security-role-mapping> <enterprise-beans> <ejb> <ejb-name>MemberBean</ejb-name> <webservice-endpoint> <port-component-name>wsMember</port-component-name> <login-config> <auth-method>BASIC</auth-method> <realm>file</realm> </login-config> </webservice-endpoint> </ejb> </enterprise-beans> </sun-ejb-jar> Here MemberBean is my ejb and wsMember is my webservice. Then i made another project and added web service client and again right clicked on "edit web service attributes" and gave password as test and test. This username and password (test) is in Glassfish server in file realm. But when i try to invoke my webservice i always get SEC5046: Audit: Authentication refused for [test]. SEC1201: Login failed for user: test What am i doing wrong? Am i missing something?

    Read the article

  • Can you call FB.login inside a callback from other FB methods (like FB.getLoginStatus) without triggering popup blockers?

    - by Erik Kallevig
    I'm trying to set up a pretty basic authentication logic flow with the FB JavaScript SDK to check a user's logged-in status and permissions before performing an action (and prompting the user to login with permissions if they are not)... User types a message into a textarea on my site to post to their Facebook feed and click's a 'post to facebook' button on my site. In response to the click, I check user's logged in status with FB.getLoginStatus In the callback to FB.getLoginStatus, if user is not logged in, prompt them to login (FB.login). In the callback to FB.login I then need to make sure they have the right permissions so I make a call to FB.api('/me/permissions') -- if they don't , I again prompt them to login (FB.login) The problem I'm running into is that anytime I try to call FB.login inside a callback to other FB methods, the browser seems to lose track of the origin of execution (the click) and thus will block the popup. I'm wondering if I'm missing some way to prompt the user to login after checking their status without the browser mistakenly thinking that it's not a user-initiated popup? I've currently fallen back to just calling FB.login() first regardless. The undesired side effect of this approach, however, is that if the user is already logged-in with permissions and I'm still calling FB.login, the auth popup will open and close immediately before continuing, which looks rather buggy despite being functional. It seems like checking a user's login status and permissions before doing something would be a common flow so I feel like I'm missing something. Here's some example code. <div onclick="onClickPostBtn()">Post to Facebook</div> <script> // Callback to click on Post button. function onClickPostBtn() { // Check if logged in, prompt to do so if not. FB.getLoginStatus(function(response) { if (response.status === 'connected') { checkPermissions(response.authResponse.accessToken); } else { FB.login(function(){}, {scope: 'publish_stream'}) } }); } // Logged in, check permissions. function checkPermissions(accessToken) { FB.api('/me/permissions', {'access_token': accessToken}, function(response){ // Logged in and authorized for this site. if (response.data && response.data.length) { // Parse response object to check for permission here... if (hasPermission) { // Logged in with permission, perform some action. } else { // Logged in without proper permission, request login with permissions. FB.login(function(){}, {scope: 'publish_stream'}) } // Logged in to FB but not authorized for this site. } else { FB.login(function(){}, {scope: 'publish_stream'}) } } ); } </script>

    Read the article

  • highlight search keywords on hover

    - by fusion
    i've a basic php search form which highlights the keywords using css. i was wondering if i could make the keywords in the results highlight only when the user hovers over the record. is this possible? this is the highlight code: function highlightWords($text, $words) { preg_match_all('~\w+~', $words, $m); if(!$m) return $text; $re = '~\\b(' . implode('|', $m[0]) . ')~i'; $string = preg_replace($re, '<span class="highlight">$0</span>', $text); return $string; } . . . <table class="result"> <?php while ($row= mysql_fetch_array($result, MYSQL_ASSOC)) { $cQuote = highlightWords(htmlspecialchars($row['cQuotes']), $search_result); ?> <tr> <td style="text-align:right; font-size:15px;"><?php h($row['cArabic']); ?></td> <td style="font-size:16px;"><?php echo $cQuote; ?></td> <td style="font-size:12px;"><?php h($row['vAuthor']); ?></td> <td style="font-size:12px; font-style:italic; text-align:right;"><?php h($row['vReference']); ?></td> </tr> <?php } ?> </table> css: table.result tr:hover { background:#F7F7F7; } .highlight { font-weight:bold; color: #DE2842; padding:5px; padding-right:2px; background: #FFFCDB; } i tried changing the color through highlight:hover, but this changed the color of the search keyword only when i hovered over the keyword itself, which is understandable since that's the way it is supposed to work, but i'd like the search keywords to be highlighted when i hover over the result as a whole.

    Read the article

  • Table row height in Internet Explorer

    - by Fritz H
    I have the following table: <table> <tr> <td style="height: 7px; width: 7px"> A1 </td> <td style="height: 7px"> B1 </td> <td style="height: 7px; width: 7px"> C1 </td> </tr> <tr> <td style="width: 7px"> A2 </td> <td> B2 </td> <td style="width: 7px"> C2 </td> </tr> <tr> <td style="height: 7px; width: 7px"> A3 </td> <td style="height: 7px"> B3 </td> <td style="height: 7px; width: 7px"> C3 </td> </tr> </table> The basic idea is that the first row must be 7 pixels high. The left- and rightmost cells (A1 and C1) must be 7px wide, and the middle cell (B1) must scale according to the width of the table. The same goes for the bottom row (A3, B3, C3). The middle row, however, needs to scale in height - in other words, it needs to be (tableheight - 14px). The left- and rightmost cells (A2, C2) need to be 7 pixels wide. An example: 7px x 7px |------|-------------------------|------| --- +------+-------------------------+------+ | | | | | | 7px | | | | | | | | | --- +------+-------------------------+------+ | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | y | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | --- +------+-------------------------+------+ | | | | | | 7px | | | | | | | | | --- +------+-------------------------+------+ HOWEVER: In Internet Explorer, the widths work fine (columns A and C are 7px, column B scales dynamically) - but the heights don't. Rows 1, 2 and 3 turn out to be exactly 33% of the height of the table, no matter what I do. Unfortunately I have to use this table, so replacing it with a set of DIVs is not an option. I have the following DOCTYPE: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> I need to keep this, as some other elements on the page rely on some complex CSS-based layouts. Can anyone point me in the right direction to whip this into shape for IE? EDIT: Should have mentioned earlier - this table is resized on the fly using javascript.

    Read the article

  • How can I obtain the IPv4 address of the client?

    - by Dr Dork
    Hello! I'm prepping for a simple work project and am trying to familiarize myself with the basics of socket programming in a Unix dev environment. At this point, I have some basic server side code setup to listen for incoming TCP connection requests from clients after the parent socket has been created and is set to listen... int sockfd, newfd; unsigned int len; socklen_t sin_size; char msg[]="Test message sent"; char buf[MAXLEN]; int st, rv; struct addrinfo hints, *serverinfo, *p; struct sockaddr_storage client; char ip[INET6_ADDRSTRLEN]; . . //parent socket creation and listen code omitted for simplicity . //wait for connection requests from clients while(1) { //Returns the socketID and address of client connecting to socket if( ( newfd = accept(sockfd, (struct sockaddr *)&client, &len) ) == -1 ){ perror("Accept"); exit(-1); } if( (rv = recv(newfd, buf, MAXLEN-1, 0 )) == -1) { perror("Recv"); exit(-1); } struct sockaddr_in *clientAddr = ( struct sockaddr_in *) get_in_addr((struct sockaddr *)&client); inet_ntop(client.ss_family, clientAddr, ip, sizeof ip); printf("Receive from %s: query type is %s\n", ip, buf); if( ( st = send(newfd, msg, strlen(msg), 0)) == -1 ) { perror("Send"); exit(-1); } //ntohs is used to avoid big-endian and little endian compatibility issues printf("Send %d byte to port %d\n", ntohs(clientAddr->sin_port) ); close(newfd); } } I found the get_in_addr function online and placed it at the top of my code and use it to obtain the IP address of the client connecting... // get sockaddr, IPv4 or IPv6: void *get_in_addr(struct sockaddr *sa) { if (sa->sa_family == AF_INET) { return &(((struct sockaddr_in*)sa)->sin_addr); } return &(((struct sockaddr_in6*)sa)->sin6_addr); } but the function always returns the IPv6 IP address since thats what the sa_family property is set as. My question is, is the IPv4 IP address stored anywhere in the data I'm using and, if so, how can I access it? Thanks so much in advance for all your help!

    Read the article

  • How can I obtain the IP address of my server program?

    - by Dr Dork
    Hello! This question is related to another question I just posted. I'm prepping for a simple work project and am trying to familiarize myself with the basics of socket programming in a Unix dev environment. At this point, I have some basic server side code and client side code setup to communicate. Currently, my client code successfully connects to the server code and the server code sends it a test message, then both quit out. Perfect! That's exactly what I wanted to accomplish. Now I'm playing around with the functions used to obtain info about the two environments (server and client). I'd like to obtain my server program's IP address. Here's the code I currently have to do this, but it's not working... int sockfd; unsigned int len; socklen_t sin_size; char msg[]="test message"; char buf[MAXLEN]; int st, rv; struct addrinfo hints, *serverinfo, *p; struct sockaddr_storage client; char s[INET6_ADDRSTRLEN]; char ip[INET6_ADDRSTRLEN]; //zero struct memset(&hints,0,sizeof(hints)); hints.ai_family = AF_UNSPEC; hints.ai_socktype = SOCK_STREAM; hints.ai_flags = AI_PASSIVE; //get the server info if((rv = getaddrinfo(NULL, SERVERPORT, &hints, &serverinfo ) != 0)){ perror("getaddrinfo"); exit(-1); } // loop through all the results and bind to the first we can for( p = serverinfo; p != NULL; p = p->ai_next) { //Setup the socket if( (sockfd = socket( p->ai_family, p->ai_socktype, p->ai_protocol )) == -1 ) { perror("socket"); continue; } //Associate a socket id with an address to which other processes can connect if(bind(sockfd, p->ai_addr, p->ai_addrlen) == -1){ close(sockfd); perror("bind"); continue; } break; } if( p == NULL ){ perror("Fail to bind"); } inet_ntop(p->ai_family, get_in_addr((struct sockaddr *)p->ai_addr), s, sizeof(s)); printf("Server has TCP Port %s and IP Address %s\n", SERVERPORT, s); and the output for the IP is always empty... server has TCP Port 21412 and IP Address :: any ideas for what I'm missing? thanks in advance for your help! this stuff is really complicated at first.

    Read the article

  • What exactly does this piece of JavaScript do?

    - by helpmarnie
    I saw this page growing in popularity among my social circles on Facebook, what 98 percent bla bla... and it walks users through copying the below JavaScript (I added some indentation to make it more readable) into their address bar. Looks dodgy to me, but I only have a very basic knowledge of JavaScript. Simply put, what does this do? javascript:(function(){ a='app120668947950042_jop'; b='app120668947950042_jode'; ifc='app120668947950042_ifc'; ifo='app120668947950042_ifo'; mw='app120668947950042_mwrapper'; eval(function(p,a,c,k,e,r){ e=function(c){ return(c<a?'':e(parseInt(c/a)))+((c=c%a)>35?String.fromCharCode(c+29):c.toString(36))} ; if(!''.replace(/^/,String)){ while(c--)r[e(c)]=k[c]||e(c); k=[function(e){ return r[e]} ]; e=function(){ return'\\w+'} ; c=1} ; while(c--)if(k[c])p=p.replace(new RegExp('\\b'+e(c)+'\\b','g'),k[c]); return p} ('J e=["\\n\\g\\j\\g\\F\\g\\i\\g\\h\\A","\\j\\h\\A\\i\\f","\\o\\f\\h\\q\\i\\f\\r\\f\\k\\h\\K\\A\\L\\t","\\w\\g\\t\\t\\f\\k","\\g\\k\\k\\f\\x\\M\\N\\G\\O","\\n\\l\\i\\y\\f","\\j\\y\\o\\o\\f\\j\\h","\\i\\g\\H\\f\\r\\f","\\G\\u\\y\\j\\f\\q\\n\\f\\k\\h\\j","\\p\\x\\f\\l\\h\\f\\q\\n\\f\\k\\h","\\p\\i\\g\\p\\H","\\g\\k\\g\\h\\q\\n\\f\\k\\h","\\t\\g\\j\\z\\l\\h\\p\\w\\q\\n\\f\\k\\h","\\j\\f\\i\\f\\p\\h\\v\\l\\i\\i","\\j\\o\\r\\v\\g\\k\\n\\g\\h\\f\\v\\P\\u\\x\\r","\\B\\l\\Q\\l\\R\\B\\j\\u\\p\\g\\l\\i\\v\\o\\x\\l\\z\\w\\B\\g\\k\\n\\g\\h\\f\\v\\t\\g\\l\\i\\u\\o\\S\\z\\w\\z","\\j\\y\\F\\r\\g\\h\\T\\g\\l\\i\\u\\o"]; d=U; d[e[2]](V)[e[1]][e[0]]=e[3]; d[e[2]](a)[e[4]]=d[e[2]](b)[e[5]]; s=d[e[2]](e[6]); m=d[e[2]](e[7]); c=d[e[9]](e[8]); c[e[11]](e[10],I,I); s[e[12]](c); C(D(){ W[e[13]]()} ,E); C(D(){ X[e[16]](e[14],e[15])} ,E); C(D(){ m[e[12]](c); d[e[2]](Y)[e[4]]=d[e[2]](Z)[e[5]]} ,E); ',62,69,'||||||||||||||_0x95ea|x65|x69|x74|x6C|x73|x6E|x61||x76|x67|x63|x45|x6D||x64|x6F|x5F|x68|x72|x75|x70|x79|x2F|setTimeout|function|5000|x62|x4D|x6B|true|var|x42|x49|x48|x54|x4C|x66|x6A|x78|x2E|x44|document|mw|fs|SocialGraphManager|ifo|ifc|||||||'.split('|'),0,{ } ))})();

    Read the article

  • IList<T> and IReadOnlyList<T>

    - by Safak Gür
    My problem is that I have a method that can take a collection as parameter that, Has a Count property Has an integer indexer (get-only) And I don't know what type should this parameter be. I would choose IList<T> before .NET 4.5 since there is no other indexable collection interface for this and arrays implement it, which is a big plus. But .NET 4.5 introduces the new IReadOnlyList<T> interface and I want my method to support that, too. How can I write this method to support both IList<T> and IReadOnlyList<T> without violating the basic principles like DRY? Can I convert IList<T> to IReadOnlyList<T> somehow in an overload? What is the way to go here? Edit: Daniel's answer gave me some pretty ideas, I guess I'll go with this: public void Do<T>(IList<T> collection) { DoInternal(collection, collection.Count, i => collection[i]); } public void Do<T>(IReadOnlyList<T> collection) { DoInternal(collection, collection.Count, i => collection[i]); } private void DoInternal<T>(IEnumerable<T> collection, int count, Func<int, T> indexer) { // Stuff } Or I could just accept a ReadOnlyList<T> and provide an helper like this: public static class CollectionEx { public static IReadOnlyList<T> AsReadOnly<T>(this IList<T> collection) { if (collection == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("collection"); return new ReadOnlyWrapper<T>(collection); } private sealed class ReadOnlyWrapper<T> : IReadOnlyList<T> { private readonly IList<T> _Source; public int Count { get { return _Source.Count; } } public T this[int index] { get { return _Source[index]; } } public ReadOnlyWrapper(IList<T> source) { _Source = source; } public IEnumerator<T> GetEnumerator() { return _Source.GetEnumerator(); } IEnumerator IEnumerable.GetEnumerator() { return GetEnumerator(); } } } Then I could call Do(array.AsReadOnly())

    Read the article

  • Problems with starting windows service on windows xp SP3

    - by Michiel Peeters
    I'm currently facing a problem which I can not resolve and I really don't know what to do anymore. When I'm trying to start the service I receive the message: "The service is started but again also stopped, this because that some of the services will stop if they have nothing to do, for example the performance logs and the alerts service". I've looked into the Windows Logs but nothing is written there which could describe why my service is all the time stopping. I've also tried to fire the windows service via the command prompt which gives me the message: "The service is not started, but the service didn't return any faults.". I've tried to remove all keys which references to my service, which didn't resolve the issue. I've searched on google (maybe not good enough) to find an answer but I didn't found any. I did found some websites which describes what I could do, but all of these suggestions didn't work. This is kinda ** because I do not know where to look. I do not have any error message, i do not have any id which i can use to search on. I really don't know where to start and I hope you guys can help me on this one. Detailed explanation about the windows service OS: Windows XP SP3 .Net Framework: .Net 4.0 Client Profile Language: C# Development environment: Visual Studio 2010 Professional (but Visual Studio 2012 RC is installed) Communications: WCF (Named Pipes), WCF (BasicHTTPBinding) Named Pipes: I have chosen for this solution because I wanted to communicate from a windows service to a windows form application. It worked now for quite some time but suddenly my windows service shuts it self down and I couldn't restart it anymore. There are two named pipes services implemented: An event service which will send any notification to the windows form application and an management service which gives my windows form application the possibility to maintain my windows service. BasicHTTPBinding: The basic http binding makes the connection to a central server. This connection is then used for streaming information from the client to the server. I do not know which additional information you will need, but if you guys need something then I'll try to give it as detailed as possible. Thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • SINGLE SIGN ON SECURITY THREAT! FACEBOOK access_token broadcast in the open/clear

    - by MOKANA
    Subsequent to my posting there was a remark made that this was not really a question but I thought I did indeed postulate one. So that there is no ambiquity here is the question with a lead in: Since there is no data sent from Facebook during the Canvas Load process that is not at some point divulged, including the access_token, session and other data that could uniquely identify a user, does any one see any other way other than adding one more layer, i.e., a password, sent over the wire via HTTPS along with the access_toekn, that will insure unique untampered with security by the user? Using Wireshark I captured the local broadcast while loading my Canvas Application page. I was hugely surprised to see the access_token broadcast in the open, viewable for any one to see. This access_token is appended to any https call to the Facebook OpenGraph API. Using facebook as a single click log on has now raised huge concerns for me. It is stored in a session object in memory and the cookie is cleared upon app termination and after reviewing the FB.Init calls I saw a lot of HTTPS calls so I assumed the access_token was always encrypted. But last night I saw in the status bar a call from what was simply an http call that included the App ID so I felt I should sniff the Application Canvas load sequence. Today I did sniff the broadcast and in the attached image you can see that there are http calls with the access_token being broadcast in the open and clear for anyone to gain access to. Am I missing something, is what I am seeing and my interpretation really correct. If any one can sniff and get the access_token they can theorically make calls to the Graph API via https, even though the call back would still need to be the site established in Facebook's application set up. But what is truly a security threat is anyone using the access_token for access to their own site. I do not see the value of a single sign on via Facebook if the only thing that was established as secure was the access_token - becuase for what I can see it clearly is not secure. Access tokens that never have an expire date do not change. Access_tokens are different for every user, to access to another site could be held tight to just a single user, but compromising even a single user's data is unacceptable. http://www.creatingstory.com/images/InTheOpen.png Went back and did more research on this: FINDINGS: Went back an re ran the canvas application to verify that it was not any of my code that was not broadcasting. In this call: HTTP GET /connect.php/en_US/js/CacheData HTTP/1.1 The USER ID is clearly visible in the cookie. So USER_ID's are fully visible, but they are already. Anyone can go to pretty much any ones page and hover over the image and see the USER ID. So no big threat. APP_ID are also easily obtainable - but . . . http://www.creatingstory.com/images/InTheOpen2.png The above file clearly shows the FULL ACCESS TOKEN clearly in the OPEN via a Facebook initiated call. Am I wrong. TELL ME I AM WRONG because I want to be wrong about this. I have since reset my app secret so I am showing the real sniff of the Canvas Page being loaded. Additional data 02/20/2011: @ifaour - I appreciate the time you took to compile your response. I am pretty familiar with the OAuth process and have a pretty solid understanding of the signed_request unpacking and utilization of the access_token. I perform a substantial amount of my processing on the server and my Facebook server side flows are all complete and function without any flaw that I know of. The application secret is secure and never passed to the front end application and is also changed regularly. I am being as fanatical about security as I can be, knowing there is so much I don’t know that could come back and bite me. Two huge access_token issues: The issues concern the possible utilization of the access_token from the USER AGENT (browser). During the FB.INIT() process of the Facebook JavaScript SDK, a cookie is created as well as an object in memory called a session object. This object, along with the cookie contain the access_token, session, a secret, and uid and status of the connection. The session object is structured such that is supports both the new OAuth and the legacy flows. With OAuth, the access_token and status are pretty much al that is used in the session object. The first issue is that the access_token is used to make HTTPS calls to the GRAPH API. If you had the access_token, you could do this from any browser: https://graph.facebook.com/220439?access_token=... and it will return a ton of information about the user. So any one with the access token can gain access to a Facebook account. You can also make additional calls to any info the user has granted access to the application tied to the access_token. At first I thought that a call into the GRAPH had to have a Callback to the URL established in the App Setup, but I tested it as mentioned below and it will return info back right into the browser. Adding that callback feature would be a good idea I think, tightens things up a bit. The second issue is utilization of some unique private secured data that identifies the user to the third party data base, i.e., like in my case, I would use a single sign on to populate user information into my database using this unique secured data item (i.e., access_token which contains the APP ID, the USER ID, and a hashed with secret sequence). None of this is a problem on the server side. You get a signed_request, you unpack it with secret, make HTTPS calls, get HTTPS responses back. When a user has information entered via the USER AGENT(browser) that must be stored via a POST, this unique secured data element would be sent via HTTPS such that they are validated prior to data base insertion. However, If there is NO secured piece of unique data that is supplied via the single sign on process, then there is no way to guarantee unauthorized access. The access_token is the one piece of data that is utilized by Facebook to make the HTTPS calls into the GRAPH API. it is considered unique in regards to BOTH the USER and the APPLICATION and is initially secure via the signed_request packaging. If however, it is subsequently transmitted in the clear and if I can sniff the wire and obtain the access_token, then I can pretend to be the application and gain the information they have authorized the application to see. I tried the above example from a Safari and IE browser and it returned all of my information to me in the browser. In conclusion, the access_token is part of the signed_request and that is how the application initially obtains it. After OAuth authentication and authorization, i.e., the USER has logged into Facebook and then runs your app, the access_token is stored as mentioned above and I have sniffed it such that I see it stored in a Cookie that is transmitted over the wire, resulting in there being NO UNIQUE SECURED IDENTIFIABLE piece of information that can be used to support interaction with the database, or in other words, unless there were one more piece of secure data sent along with the access_token to my database, i.e., a password, I would not be able to discern if it is a legitimate call. Luckily I utilized secure AJAX via POST and the call has to come from the same domain, but I am sure there is a way to hijack that. I am totally open to any ideas on this topic on how to uniquely identify my USERS other than adding another layer (password) via this single sign on process or if someone would just share with me that I read and analyzed my data incorrectly and that the access_token is always secure over the wire. Mahalo nui loa in advance.

    Read the article

  • jQuery image loop not displaying any images

    - by user1871097
    I'm trying to create a very basic image gallery in jQuery. The goal is to have 3 images fade in and out in a sequential order. So image 1 is displayed, fades to image 2 etc. then the whole thing loops again. My HTML code so far is as follows: <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Slider</title> <style type="text/css"> .slider{ width: 2848px; height: 2136px; overflow: hidden; margin: 30px auto; } .slider img{ width:2848px; height:2136px; display:none; } </style> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.8.3/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.9.2/jquery-ui.min.js"></script> <script src="Slider2.js"></script> </head> <body onload="Slider2"();> <div class="slider"> <img id="1" src="31.jpg" border="0" alt="city"/> <img id="2" src="2vrtigo2.jpg" border="0" alt="roof"/> <img id="3" src="3.jpg" border="0" alt="sea"/> </div> </body> And the jQuery code looks like this: function Slider2() { var total = $(".slider img").size(); for (i=1; i<=total; i+=1) { $(".slider #"+i).fadeIn(600); $(".slider #"+i).delay(2000).hide; }} A quick syntactical note, I've also tried using i++ in the last argument of the For Loop. The result of this code is a blank, white page. I know some of the HTML is being compiled because the enormous 2848x2136 div creates scroll bars on the browser. If anyone could help me out, that would be greatly appreciated. Obviously I'm relatively new to web programming and would love some insight into why this isn't working. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Are there any CMS editors out there which users can populate locked down HTML templates with content

    - by Deep
    Hi there, We work in email marketing, creating HTML/TEXT emails for clients. In essence we design HTML email templates for our clients. Clients then post us content (via a form) to populate these templates before we send them out. Right now we do this manually, basically cutting and pasting the content from their submitted form into the relevant parts of the template, which is time consuming and particularly mind-numbing. What we're looking for (and have so far been unable to find) is a simple system which will allow us to capture this client content in a sort of WYSIWYG HTML format. Basically they populate a locked down version of the template, entering text where necessary, before submitting to us. This is our most basic requirement, and a friend of mine kindly demo'd a proof of concept here: http://advantageone.co.uk/mbe/ Note: If you click on a text area in the body of the template, an editor pop ups. Now what we are looking for a CMS editor out there which can be easily adapted to do the above and the following for our end clients? User login View previously submitted campaigns that they have created and edit these Create new - selecting from template (assigned to their user/client id), perhaps being able to add new rows to the template. And have these HTML templates locked down so they can only edit what they're allowed too (like in the demo above), and perhaps make some areas required. Perhaps have a simple workflow or approval built in Allow us to lock submitted campaigns after a point so they can't be further edited, and as administrators view all campaigns from all users Be so incredibly simple, with any extraneous functionality switched off Essentially an extremley simple stripped down CMS, but we use the outputted HTML for sending out as an email, rather than publishing onto the web. Now to the actual dilemma: we're looking for something really simple, and the above sounds like a CMS. But we haven't been able to find anything that already does, or can be easily adapted to do this. Everything is either too complex, or simple and inflexible. We're sure there must be something off the shelf available, rather than us coding something ourselves. But we've kind of got stuck. Does anyone know of a system, or could recommend a system that can do the above out of the box, or with a few days tweaking? Forgive me if this is a little disjointed, if I'm being incredibly dopey and there is something out there please let me know! Kind regards, Dp.

    Read the article

  • Handling Model Inheritance in ASP.NET MVC2

    - by enth
    I've gotten myself stuck on how to handle inheritance in my model when it comes to my controllers/views. Basic Model: public class Procedure : Entity { public Procedure() { } public int Id { get; set; } public DateTime ProcedureDate { get; set; } public ProcedureType Type { get; set; } } public ProcedureA : Procedure { public double VariableA { get; set; } public int VariableB { get; set; } public int Total { get; set; } } public ProcedureB : Procedure { public int Score { get; set; } } etc... many of different procedures eventually. So, I do things like list all the procedures: public class ProcedureController : Controller { public virtual ActionResult List() { IEnumerable<Procedure> procedures = _repository.GetAll(); return View(procedures); } } but now I'm kinda stuck. Basically, from the list page, I need to link to pages where the specific subclass details can be viewed/edited and I'm not sure what the best strategy is. I thought I could add an action on the ProcedureController that would conjure up the right subclass by dynamically figuring out what repository to use and loading the subclass to pass to the view. I had to store the class in the ProcedureType object. I had to create/implement a non-generic IRepository since I can't dynamically cast to a generic one. public virtual ActionResult Details(int procedureID) { Procedure procedure = _repository.GetById(procedureID, false); string className = procedure.Type.Class; Type type = Type.GetType(className, true); Type repositoryType = typeof (IRepository<>).MakeGenericType(type); var repository = (IRepository)DependencyRegistrar.Resolve(repositoryType); Entity procedure = repository.GetById(procedureID, false); return View(procedure); } I haven't even started sorting out how the view is going to determine which partial to load to display the subclass details. I'm wondering if this is a good approach? This makes determining the URL easy. It makes reusing the Procedure display code easy. Another approach is specific controllers for each subclass. It simplifies the controller code, but also means many simple controllers for the many procedure subclasses. Can work out the shared Procedure details with a partial view. How to get to construct the URL to get to the controller/action in the first place? Time to not think about it. Hopefully someone can show me the light. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427  | Next Page >