Search Results

Search found 33344 results on 1334 pages for 'helper method'.

Page 424/1334 | < Previous Page | 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430 431  | Next Page >

  • c++/cli pass (managed) delegate to unmanaged code

    - by Ron Klein
    How do I pass a function pointer from managed C++ (C++/CLI) to an unmanaged method? I read a few articles, like this one from MSDN, but it describes two different assemblies, while I want only one. Here is my code: 1) Header (MyInterop.ManagedCppLib.h): #pragma once using namespace System; namespace MyInterop { namespace ManagedCppLib { public ref class MyManagedClass { public: void DoSomething(); }; }} 2) CPP Code (MyInterop.ManagedCppLib.cpp) #include "stdafx.h" #include "MyInterop.ManagedCppLib.h" #pragma unmanaged void UnmanagedMethod(int a, int b, void (*sum)(const int)) { int result = a + b; sum(result); } #pragma managed void MyInterop::ManagedCppLib::MyManagedClass::DoSomething() { System::Console::WriteLine("hello from managed C++"); UnmanagedMethod(3, 7, /* ANY IDEA??? */); } I tried creating my managed delegate and then I tried to use Marshal::GetFunctionPointerForDelegate method, but I couldn't compile.

    Read the article

  • What's the proper way to use sqlite at xCode?

    - by Elliot Chen
    Hi, Experts: Can you please give some suggestions on sqlite using at xcode? Within my application, I use a sqlite DB to store all local data. Two methods can be used to retrieve those data during running time. 1, Load all the data into memory at initialization stage. (More memory used, less DB open/close operation needed) 2, Read corresponding records when necessary, free the occupied memory after using. (Good habit for memory using, but much DB open/close operations needs). I prefer to use method 2, but not sure whether too many DB opening/closing operations could affect app's efficiency. Or do you think I can 'upgrade' method 2 by opening DB when app launches and closing DB when app quits? Thanks for your suggestions very much!

    Read the article

  • How do I avoid boxing/unboxing when extending System.Object?

    - by Robert H.
    I'm working on an extension method that's only applicable to reference types. I think, however, it's currently boxing and unboxing the the value. How can I avoid this? namespace System { public static class SystemExtensions { public static TResult GetOrDefaultIfNull<T, TResult>(this T obj, Func<T, TResult> getValue, TResult defaultValue) { if (obj == null) return defaultValue; return getValue(obj); } } } Example usage: public class Foo { public int Bar { get; set; } } In some method: Foo aFooObject = new Foo { Bar = 1 }; Foo nullReference = null; Console.WriteLine(aFooObject.GetOrDefaultIfNull((o) => o.Bar, 0)); // results: 1 Console.WriteLine(nullReference.GetOrDefaultIfNull((o) => o.Bar, 0)); // results: 0

    Read the article

  • MVC Model Binding to a collection where collection does not begin with a 0 index

    - by FloatLeft
    I'm trying to perform remote validation on a property of an item within a collection. The validation works OK on the first item of the collection. The http request to the validation method looks like: /Validation/IsImeiAvailable?ImeiGadgets[0].ImeiNumber=123456789012345 However on the 2nd item where the url looks like below, the validation doesn't work /Validation/IsImeiAvailable?ImeiGadgets[1].ImeiNumber=123456789012345 Now I'm pretty sure the reason for this, is that binding wont work on a collection that doesn't begin with a zero index. My validation method has a signature as below: public JsonResult IsImeiAvailable([Bind(Prefix = "ImeiGadgets")] Models.ViewModels.ImeiGadget[] imeiGadget) Because I'm passing an item within a collection I have to bind like this yet what I'm really passing is just a single value. Is there anyway I can deal with this other than just binding it as a plain old query string. Thanks Edit: This is the quick fix to get the Imei variable but I'd rather use the model binding: string imeiNumber = Request.Url.AbsoluteUri.Substring(Request.Url.AbsoluteUri.IndexOf("=")+1);

    Read the article

  • How to color a mesh with values at the vertices in WPF 3D?

    - by Christo
    We've got a sphere which we want to display in 3D and color given a fuction that depends on spherical coordinates. The sphere was triangulated using a regular grid in (theta, phi), but this produced a lot of small triangles near the poles. In an attempt to reduce the number triangles at the poles, we've changed out mesh generation to produce more evenly sized triangles over the surface. The first triangulation method had the advantage that we could easily create a texture and drape it over the surface. It seems that in WPF it isn't possible to assign colors to vertices the way one would go about in OpenGL or Direct3D. With the second triangulation method it isn't apparent how to go about generating the texture and setting the texture coordinates, since the vertices aren't aligned to a grid anymore. Maybe it would be possible to create a linear texture containing a color for each vertex, but then how will that effect the coloring? Will it still render smoothly over the triangle surfaces as one would expect by applying per vertex coloring?

    Read the article

  • MySQL Throws NullReferenceException in Finalize... How are you coping with this?

    - by Cyril Gupta
    I am using MySQL with the .Net connector on 64 bit Windows. For some reason Mysql is throwing a NullReferenceException in Finalize. This is the problem here and it seems that its due to a bug described here. This bug was reported in 6.22, but I am getting the issue with 6.23 too so apparently it is not fixed. I am using MySQL both with the helper classes, and by instantiating the connection and the Mysqlcommand object. Does anybody have any idea what part of my code do I need to change to fix this issue? Cause even though this is a bug in Mysql this is not universal because I am not getting the problem in my other projects. MySQL bug report has no details on how to reproduce it either. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Unit testing class in a web service in .net

    - by Dan Bailiff
    After some digging here, I took the advice in this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/371961/how-to-unit-test-c-web-service-with-visual-studio-2008 I've created a separate class and my web service class is just a wrapper for that one. The problem is that when I try to create a unit test project in VS2008, it insists on creating a unit test that acts like I'm testing the web service calls instead of the class I specified. I can't get to the class I'm trying to test. I have a web service "subscription_api.asmx". The code behind is "subscription_api.cs" which contains the web method wrapper calls to the real code at "subscription.cs". I would expect to be able to do the following: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription sub = new subscription(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatusTest(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } But instead I get this mess which is autogenerated from VS'08: /// <summary> ///A test for GetSystemStatus ///</summary> // TODO: Ensure that the UrlToTest attribute specifies a URL to an ASP.NET page (for example, // http://.../Default.aspx). This is necessary for the unit test to be executed on the web server, // whether you are testing a page, web service, or a WCF service. [TestMethod()] [HostType("ASP.NET")] [AspNetDevelopmentServerHost("C:\\CVSROOT\\rnr\\pro\\product\\wms\\ss\\subscription_api", "/subscription_api")] [UrlToTest("http://localhost/subscription_api")] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription_Accessor target = new subscription_Accessor(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode expected = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode actual; actual = target.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); Assert.Inconclusive("Verify the correctness of this test method."); } Additionally, there is a "subscription_api.accessor" in the Test References folder. When I try this: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest2() { subscription_Accessor sub = new subscription_Accessor(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } I get an error: Test method subscription_api.Test.subscriptionTest.GetSystemStatusTest2 threw exception: System.TypeInitializationException: The type initializer for 'subscription_Accessor' threw an exception. ---> System.ArgumentNullException: Value cannot be null. I'm really new to unit testing and feel lost. How can I create a unit test just for my subscription class in "subscription.cs" without testing the web service? Am I limited to testing within the same project (I hope not)? Do I have to put the target class in its own project outside of the web service project?

    Read the article

  • More than one profile in Django?

    - by JPC
    Is it possible to use Django's user authentication features with more than one profile? Currently I have a settings.py file that has this in it: AUTH_PROFILE_MODULE = 'auth.UserProfileA' and a models.py file that has this in it: from django.db import models from django.contrib.auth.models import User class UserProfileA(models.Model): company = models.CharField(max_length=30) user = models.ForeignKey(User, unique=True) that way, if a user logs in, I can easily get the profile because the User has a get_profile() method. However, I would like to add UserProfileB. From looking around a bit, it seems that the starting point is to create a superclass to use as the AUTH_PROFILE_MODULE and have both UserProfileA and UserProfileB inherit from that superclass. The problem is, I don't think the get_profile() method returns the correct profile. It would return an instance of the superclass. I come from a java background (polymorphism) so I'm not sure exactly what I should be doing. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Help modifying QuartzDemo example application

    - by BittenApple
    Can anyone please, oh sweet pain, please take me out of my misery by writing a simple example on how the heck you pass a number (int value) which gets created in 1 .m file to another .m file. In the apple demo application called QuartzDemo, there is a file called QuartzImages.m This file has the following line of code: [CODE]CGPDFPageRef page = CGPDFDocumentGetPage(pdf, 1);[/CODE] Notice the (pdf, 1) in that line. This number should be replaced with an integer variable. Now, there is also a file called MainViewController.m. In that file, there is a method? called -(void)viewDidLoad In that method, I want to assign a number to the integer variable which would replace the damn "1" with whatever number I want. I have been pulling my hair trying to get this done, reading beginning iPhone 3 Development book, dev documentation and God knows what not, without results. Any help would be greatly appreciated... Sigh.

    Read the article

  • Trouble Copying custom class initialization

    - by Parad0x13
    I have a custom class of type NSObject that contains a single NSMutableArray. This class is called Mutable2DArray and is designed to emulate a 2 dimensional array of type NSMutableArray. There is a custom init method - (id)initWithX:(int)x Y:(int)y that asks for the dimensions for the array and allocates the required arrays within the only array the class owns. My issue is when I try to copy an instance of Mutable2DArray I get an error saying the copyWithZone is an unrecognized selector. I thought copy was a base method of NSObject so I'm confused why I cant create a copy of the instance like this: Mutable2DArray *Array1 = [[Mutable2DArray alloc] initWithX:10 Y:10]; Mutable2DArray *Array2 = [Array1 copy]; Am I missing something so obvious here?

    Read the article

  • jQuery variables and scope

    - by Peuge
    I am writing a jQuery plugin and am running into a few problems with regard to variables. For example I have the following skeleton structure for my plugin, which is going to act on a textbox. In my init function I want to set a variable and bind a keypress event to my textbox. That keypress event needs to call another function, in which I need the variable. Is this possible? (function($){ var methods = { init : function(options){ return this.each(function(){ var $this = $(this); var someVar = 'somevar'; $this.keypress(function(event){ //I want to call my customFunction }); }); }, customFunction : function(){ //I am wanting to access 'someVar' here }; $.fn.mynamespace = function(method){ //handle which method to call here }; })(jQuery); Many thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Explicit call of Runnable.run

    - by klaudio
    Hi, I have a question. Somebody, who was working on my code before me, created some method and passed Runnable as parameter, more likely: void myMethod(Runnable runnable){ runnable.run(); } Then calling myMethod out of main looks like: public static void main(String args[]) { try { myMethod(new Runnable(){ public void run() { //do something...; }}); } catch (Throwable t) { } } So, to supply parameter to myMethod I need to instantiate object of (in this case anonymous) class implementing Runnable. My question is: is it necessary to use Runnable in this example? Can I use any different interface? I mean I can create new interface with single method i.e. interface MyInterface{ void doThis(); } then change look of myMethod: void myMethod(MyInterface myObject){ myObject.doThis(); } And of course client too: public static void main(String args[]) { try { myMethod(new MyInterface (){ public void doThis() { //do something...; }}); } catch (Throwable t) { } } Or maybe something is about Runnable?!

    Read the article

  • better understanding of JSF Life cycle

    - by gurupriyan.e
    I need your help to understand this better. This is my case. I have a custom validator for each of my input controls in the form. So when there is any validation error,I add a corresponding FacesMessage in the validate method. My understanding was that when there is any validation error - or when there are any FacesMessages added in the validate method of the Custom Validator, it would skip the INVOKE APPLICATION phase and would directly call the RENDER RESPONSE PHASE - showing the FacesMessage that was added in the PROCESS VALIDATION Phase - Is this correct? The problem I'm facing is - I add a FacesMessage in the PROCESS VALIDATION Phase - because of a validation error - and I add a confirmation message for the action that was taken by the user in the INVOKE APPLICATION PHASE - Now both are shown in the page in the RENDER RESPONSE Phase ? - If my understanding is correct in the above question - is it the best practice to conditionally add a confirmation FacesMessage after confirming that there are no FacesMessages in the currect FacesContext ? Appreciate your help.

    Read the article

  • problem with HttpWebRequest.GetResponse perfomance in multithread applcation

    - by Nikita
    I have very bad perfomance of HttpWebRequest.GetResponse method when it is called from different thread for different URLs. For example if we have one thread and execute url1 it requires 3sec. If we ececute url1 and url2 in parallet it requires 10sec, first request ended after 8sec and second after 10sec. If we exutet 10 URLs url1, url2, ... url0 it requires 1min 4 sec!!! first request ended after 50 secs! I use GetResponse method. I tried te set DefaultConnectionLimit but it doesn't help. If use BeginGetRequest/EndGetResponse methods it works very fast but only if this methods called from one thread. If from different it is also very slowly. I need to execute Http requests from many threads at one time. ?an anyone ever encountered such a problem? Thank you for any suggestions.

    Read the article

  • binding an object to the global scope

    - by elduderino
    I have the following code: var myVar = (function (window) { myobj = {}; myobj.boo = function() { alert('hi'); }; window.myVar = myobj; })(window); myVar.boo(); Why don't I get back the alert when I call myVar.boo() ? I've created an anonymous self-executing function and fed in the window object. Inside that I have another object with a method assigned to it. I then assign the global myVar variable to this obj. This should provide an alias to the my myobj object. However when I call the function I get an Cannot call method 'boo' of undefined error

    Read the article

  • jQuery: How to stop propagation of a bound function not the entire event?

    - by Dale
    I have a click function bound to many elements. It is possible that sometimes these elements may sit within one another. So, the click event is bound to a child and also bound to its parent. The method is specific to the element clicked. Naturally, because of event bubbling, the child's event is fired first, and then the parents. I cannot have them both called at the same time because the parents event overwrites the event of the child. So I could use event.stopPropagation() so only the first element clicked receives the event. The problem is that there are other click events also attached to the element, for example, I am using jQuery's draggable on these elements. If I stop the propagation of the click event, then draggable doesn't work, and the following click events are not called. So my question is: Is there a way to stop the event bubbling of the method the event will call and not the entire event?

    Read the article

  • Managing Data Prefetching and Dependencies with .NET Typed Datasets

    - by Derek Morrison
    I'm using .NET typed datasets on a project, and I often get into situations where I prefetch data from several tables into a dataset and then pass that dataset to several methods for processing. It seems cleaner to let each method decide exactly which data it needs and then load the data itself. However, several of the methods work with the same data, and I want the performance benefit of loading data in the beginning only once. My problem is that I don't know of a good way or pattern to use for managing dependencies (I want to be sure I load all the data that I'm going to need for each class/method that will use the dataset). Currently, I just end up looking through the code for the various classes that will use the dataset to make sure I'm loading everything appropriately. What are good approaches or patterns to use in this situation? Am I doing something fundamentally wrong? Although I'm using typed datasets, this seems like it would be a common situation where prefetching data is used. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Spring + Hibernate session management

    - by toc777
    I have been reading about using Spring with Hibernate and I am really confused about session management. Hopefully someone can clear a few things up for me, First of all I have no idea how sessions are managed when using HibernateTemplate. Is a session opened and closed when you call a method Eg Save() on the template? When you use the find() method, are detached objects returned? I have read the Spring section on transactions but it mostly talks about handling exceptions. I was hoping to find some way of binding a hibernate session to a Spring transaction so that I can commit changes to hibernate objects when the transaction finishes. Is there a way to achieve this?

    Read the article

  • Why does every thread in my application use a different hibernate session?

    - by Ittai
    Hi, I have a web-application which uses hibernate and for some reason every thread (httprequest or other threads related to queueing) uses a different session. I've implemented a HibernateSessionFactory class which looks like this: public class HibernateSessionFactory { private static final ThreadLocal<Session> threadLocal = new ThreadLocal<Session>(); private static Configuration configuration = new AnnotationConfiguration(); private static org.hibernate.SessionFactory sessionFactory; static { try { configuration.configure(configFile); sessionFactory = configuration.buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Exception e) {} } private HibernateSessionFactory() {} public static Session getSession() throws HibernateException { Session session = (Session) threadLocal.get(); if (session == null || !session.isOpen()) { if (sessionFactory == null) { rebuildSessionFactory();//This method basically does what the static init block does } session = (sessionFactory != null) ? sessionFactory.openSession(): null; threadLocal.set(session); } return session; } //More non relevant methods here. Now from my testing it seems that the threadLocal member is indeed initialized only once when the class is first loaded by the JVM but for some reason when different threads access the getSession() method they use different sessions. When a thread first accesses this class (Session) threadLocal.get(); will return null but as expected all other access requests will yeild the same session. I'm not sure how this can be happening as the threadLocal variable is final and the method threadLocal.set(session) is only used in the above context (which I'm 99.9% sure has to yeild a non null session as I would have encountered a NullPointerException at a different part of my app). I'm not sure this is relevant but these are the main parts of my hibernate.cfg.xml file: <hibernate-configuration> <session-factory> <property name="connection.url">someURL</property> <property name="connection.driver_class"> com.microsoft.sqlserver.jdbc.SQLServerDriver</property> <property name="dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.SQLServerDialect</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.isolation">1</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.username">User</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.password">Password</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.pool_size">10</property> <property name="show_sql">false</property> <property name="current_session_context_class">thread</property> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">update</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_second_level_cache">false</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">org.hibernate.cache.NoCacheProvider</property> <!-- Mapping files --> I'd appreciate any help granted and of course if anyone has any questions I'd be happy to clarify. Ittai

    Read the article

  • Task.wait not working as I imagined

    - by user2357446
    I am trying to download a file, wait for the file to finish downloading, and then read the file afterwards. I have the following methods to do this: private async Task startDownload(string link, string savePath) { WebClient client = new WebClient(); client.DownloadProgressChanged += new DownloadProgressChangedEventHandler(client_DownloadProgressChanged); client.DownloadFileCompleted += new AsyncCompletedEventHandler(client_DownloadFileCompleted); await client.DownloadFileTaskAsync(new Uri(link), savePath); } private void checkUpdateButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Task task = Task.Factory.StartNew(() => startDownload(versionLink, versionSaveTo)); task.Wait(); if (task.IsCompleted) { checkVersion(); } } The checkVersion() method reads the file that was downloaded. This is throwing an IOException saying that the file is in use by something else and cannot be read. I thought that having task.Wait would prevent the rest of the method from executing until the task was finished?

    Read the article

  • has_many through and partials

    - by user307428
    I have a User model, a Post model, and an Interest model. Using User has_many posts through interests Using User has_many interests Using Post has_many users through interests Using Post has_many interests Using Interest belongs to Post Using Interest belongs to User Application_Controller is as follows: class ApplicationController < ActionController::Base before_filter :login_from_cookie before_filter :find_user_interests helper :all # include all helpers, all the time session :session_key = '_blah_session' include AuthenticatedSystem def find_user_interests @user_interests = current_user ? current_user.interests : [] true end Application.html.erb has as follows: <%= render :partial = "users/interests", :object = @user_interests % _interests.html.erb partial is as follows: ul <% unless current_user.nil? then -% <% @user_interests.each do |interest| -% li<%= interest.post.title %/li <% end % <% end -% /ul Given all this when I at localhost:3000/posts/1 my partial shows up fine, but when in localhost:3000/posts I get an error "undefined method `title' for nil:NilClass" thus an error in the line li<%= interest.post.title %/li shown above in the _interests.html.erb partial. What the heck would be the issue? TIA end

    Read the article

  • Passing ViewData to PartialView returned from using Html.Action

    - by RWGodfrey
    I want to embed a partial view in an ASP.NET MVC page by returning it from an action method. In my base view, I would have: <%= Html.Action("MyPartialViewAction") %> My controller would have an action method like: [ChildActionOnly] public ActionResult MyPartialViewAction() { return PartialView("MyPartialView"); } I expected the returned partial view (MyPartialView) to have access to the ViewData that was set in the base page's controller action but that doesn't appear to be the case. If I insert the partial view by using the following in my base view it works: <% Html.RenderPartial("MyPartialView") %> I don't want to do that though because I want my "MyPartialViewAction" to execute logic to determine WHICH partial view to return.

    Read the article

  • How to Check .Net 2.0 assembly for Calls to .Net 3.5

    - by Paul Farry
    I've found an issue I believe where an assembly is making a call to a .Net3.5 method in a .Net2.0 only environment. (None on the .Net service packs nor .Net 3.5 is installed) I'd like to know if there are any programs that I can run like FXCop to check an assembly for adherence to only making method calls that are available in .Net 2.0 without the 3.5 extensions that were added. I've been bitten by this before and I'd like to have a way to check assemblies so that before they are released they can be checked to prevent these kinds of issues. Please don't say require .Net 3.5 because whilst I'd like to go to this, it's just not possible at this point.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430 431  | Next Page >