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• TFS merging for users that are used to VSS

  - by JacksonD

  I just migrated a team of 7 developers from VSS to TFS. I migrated all of their code into a DEV folder which I then branched into a QA folder (which I branched into a PROD folder). The developers usually don't work on the same files, but there are some shared utility classes. All of the code is for a large ASP.NET web site. When the developers are ready to merge from DEV to QA, they only want to merge their changes. For example, let's say that Developer1 has been working on a project for the last 3 months and he's ready to merge all of his code into QA. However, Developer2 has been working on a different project for the last 2 months which is not ready to be merged. Developer1 and Developer2's changes are not in any way dependent on each other, but they are not separated into different folder structures and they each regularly do a get latest. There doesn't seem to be a way for developer1 to only merge his changes without also merging all of developer2's changes. Currently, developer1 is going through the Pending Changes window and 'Undoing Pending Changes' for all of Developer2's changes, but this is time consuming. They could merge each file individually, but this is also time consuming. Is there an easier way? I am going to have a coronary if I hear one more person explain how much easier it was to work in VSS.

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• Comparing lists of field-hashes with equivalent AR-objects.

  - by Tim Snowhite

  I have a list of hashes, as such: incoming_links = [ {:title => 'blah1', :url => "http://blah.com/post/1"}, {:title => 'blah2', :url => "http://blah.com/post/2"}, {:title => 'blah3', :url => "http://blah.com/post/3"}] And an ActiveRecord model which has fields in the database with some matching rows, say: Link.all => [<Link#2 @title='blah2' @url='...post/2'>, <Link#3 @title='blah3' @url='...post/3'>, <Link#4 @title='blah4' @url='...post/4'>] I'd like to do set operations on Link.all with incoming_links so that I can figure out that <Link#4 ...> is not in the set of incoming_links, and {:title => 'blah1', :url =>'http://blah.com/post/1'} is not in the Link.all set, like so: #pseudocode #incoming_links = as above links = Link.all expired_links = links - incoming_links missing_links = incoming_links - links expired_links.destroy missing_links.each{|link| Link.create(link)} One route I've tried: I'd rather not rewrite Array#- and such, and I'm okay with converting incoming_links to a set of unsaved Link objects; so I've tried overwriting hash eql? and so on in Link so that it ignored the id equality that AR::Base provides by default. But this is the only place this sort of equality should be considered in the application - in other places the Link#id default identity is required. Is there some way I could subclass Link and apply the hash, eql?, etc overwriting there? The other route I've tried is to pull out the attributes hash for each Link and doing a .slice('id',...etc) to prune the hashes down. But this requires writing seperate methods for keeping track of the Link objects while doing set operations on the hashes, or writing seperate Collection classes to wrap the incoming_links hash-list and Link-list which seems a bit overkill. What is the best way to design this interaction? Extra credit for cleanliness.

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• EF4 querying through the generations

  - by Hans Kesting

  I have a model withs Parents, Children and Grandchildren, in a many-to-many relationship. Using this article I created POCO classes that work fine, except for one thing I can't yet figure out. When I query the Parents or Children directly using LINQ, the SQL reflects the LINQ query (a .Count() executes a COUNT in the database and so on) - fine. The Parent class has a Children property, to access it's children. But (and now for the problem) this doesn't expose an IQueryable interface but an ICollection. So when I access the Children property on a particular parent all the Parent's Children are read. Even worse, when I access the Grandchildren (theParent.Children.SelectMany(child => child.GrandChildren).Count()) then for each and every child a separate request is issued to select it's grandchildren. Changing the type of the Children property from ICollection to IQueryable doesn't solve this. Apart from missing needed methods like Add() and Remove(), EF just doesn't recognize the property then. Are there correct ways (as in: low database interaction) of querying through children (and what are they)? Or is this just not possible?

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• Generic Func<> as parameter to base method

  - by WestDiscGolf

  I might be losing the plot, but I hope someone can point me in the right direction. What am I trying to do? I'm trying to write some base methods which take Func< and Action so that these methods handle all of the exception handling etc. so its not repeated all over the place but allow the derived classes to specify what actions it wants to execute. So far this is the base class. public abstract class ServiceBase<T> { protected T Settings { get; set; } protected ServiceBase(T setting) { Settings = setting; } public void ExecAction(Action action) { try { action(); } catch (Exception exception) { throw new Exception(exception.Message); } } public TResult ExecFunc<T1, T2, T3, TResult>(Func<T1, T2, T3, TResult> function) { try { /* what goes here?! */ } catch (Exception exception) { throw new Exception(exception.Message); } } } I want to execute an Action in the following way in the derived class (this seems to work): public void Delete(string application, string key) { ExecAction(() => Settings.Delete(application, key)); } And I want to execute a Func in a similar way in the derived class but for the life of me I can't seem to workout what to put in the base class. I want to be able to call it in the following way (if possible): public object Get(string application, string key, int? expiration) { return ExecFunc(() => Settings.Get(application, key, expiration)); } Am I thinking too crazy or is this possible? Thanks in advance for all the help.

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• Refactoring huge if ( ... instanceof ...)

  - by Chris

  I'm currently trying to refactor a part of a project that looks like this: Many classes B extends A; C extends A; D extends C; E extends B; F extends A; ... And somewhere in the code: if (x instanceof B){ B n = (B) x; ... }else if (x instanceof C){ C n = (C) x; ... }else if (x instanceof D){ D n = (D) x; ... }else if (x instanceof E){ E n = (E) x; ... }else if (x instanceof G){ G n = (G) x; ... }... Above if-construct currently sits in a function with a CC of 19. Now my question is: Can I split this if-construct up in mutliple functions and let Java's OO do the magic? Or are there any catches I have to look out for? My idea: private void oopMagic(C obj){ ... Do the stuff from the if(x instanceof C) here} private void oopMagic(D obj){ ... Do the stuff from the if(x instanceof D) here} private void oopMagic(E obj){ ... Do the stuff from the if(x instanceof E) here} .... and instead of the huge if: oopMagic(x);

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• Extending the CI_DB_active_record class in codeigniter 2.0

  - by ctrane

  I am writing my first program with Codeigniter, and have run into a problem. I will start with a focused description of the problem and can broaden it if I need to: I need to write a multi-dimensional array to the DB and want to use the insert_batch function from the CI_DB_active_record class to do so. The problem is that I need to write empty values as NULL for some fields while other fields need to be empty strings. The current function wraps all values with single quotes, and I cannot find a way to write null values to the database for specified fields. I would also like to increase the number of records per batch. I see how to extend models, libraries, etc., but is there a way to extend the CI_DB_active_record class without modifying core classes? The minimal amount of core class modification to make this work that I have found is modifying the following lines in the DB.php file (changing the require_once file to the new file that extends the CI_DB_active_record class and changing the CI_DB_active_record class name to the new class name): require_once(BASEPATH.'database/DB_active_rec'.EXT); if ( ! class_exists('CI_DB')) { eval('class CI_DB extends CI_DB_active_record { }'); } Can I do better?

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• Automatically Persisting a Complex Java Object

  - by VeeArr

  For a project I am working on, I need to persist a number of POJOs to a database. The POJOs class definitions are sometimes highly nested, but they should flatten okay, as the nesting is tree-like and contains no cycles (and the base elements are eventually primitives/Strings). It is preferred that the solution used create one table per data type and that the tables will have one field per primitive member in the POJO. Subclassing and similar problems are not issues for this particular project. Does anybody know of any existing solutions that can: Automatically generate a CREATE TABLE definition from the class definition Automatically generate a query to persist an object to the database, given an instance of the object Automatically generate a query to retrieve an object from the database and return it as a POJO, given a key. Solutions that can do this with minimum modifications/annotions to the class files and minimum external configuration are preferred. Example: Java classes //Class to be persisted class TypeA { String guid; long timestamp; TypeB data1; TypeC data2; } class TypeB { int id; int someData; } class TypeC { int id; int otherData; } Could map to CREATE TABLE TypeA ( guid CHAR(255), timestamp BIGINT, data1_id INT, data1_someData INT, data2_id INt, data2_otherData INT ); Or something similar.

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• What to throw in a C++ class wrapping a C library ?

  - by ereOn

  I have to create a set of wrapping C++ classes around an existing C library. For many objects of the C library, the construction is done by calling something like britney_spears* create_britney_spears() and the opposite function void free_britney_spears(britney_spears* brit). If the allocation of a britney_spears fails, create_britney_spears() returns NULL. This is, as far as I know, a very common pattern. Now I want to wrap this inside a C++ class. //britney_spears.hpp class BritneySpears { public: BritneySpears(); private: boost::shared_ptr<britney_spears> m_britney_spears; }; And here is the implementation: // britney_spears.cpp BritneySpears::BritneySpears() : m_britney_spears(create_britney_spears(), free_britney_spears) { if (!m_britney_spears) { // Here I should throw something to abort the construction, but what ??! } } So the question is in the code sample: What should I throw to abort the constructor ? I know I can throw almost anything, but I want to know what is usually done. I have no other information about why the allocation failed. Should I create my own exception class ? Is there a std exception for such cases ? Many thanks.

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• Automatic adition of `using` in CodeRush.

  - by drasto

  I just installed CodeRush Pro (evaluation trial) for Visual Studio and I can say I like it much so far. Comparing to Resharper there is only one type of feature I'm really missing. It is the way CodeRush deals with using. When I type some class name that is not declared in some package listed in using, CodeRush underlines it red as an error(what it is) but if I hover over it with cursor it does not offer me to add using, it merely says it is "Undeclared element". I have to use VS default using addition (move caret to the identifier, hover cursor over that really small box that appears under first letter, click the button that appears and choose for example using System form a drop down menu). Is there a way how to configure CodeRush to offer mi add using when I hover a cursor over highlighted "issue"(that says Undeclared element)? The second part of this is that Resharper has somethink called Type name completion. It some improved intellisense. Lets say you have no using declaration in your file. Then you type something like ICompar and press CTRL+SPACE. Of cause there will be no suggestions. But with Resharper you can press CTRL+ALT+SPACE and you get suggestions of all classes starting with ICompar even if they are not in using. When you choose one of them the correct using is automatically added for you. Is there a way to make CodeRush behave this way ?

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• Is there a Twitter Bootstrap class that means "initially hidden"?

  - by bgp

  Using Bootstrap 3, I have an element on a page I want to show later in response to the user clicking a button. Example: <div id="search_results"> ... gets populated from ajax data later ... </div> <button id="search_button" type="button" class="btn btn-primary pull-right">Search</button> <script> $('#search_button').click(function() { // ... do the call to search // and in the callback: $('#search_results').show(); }); </script> The search_results div should be initially hidden. Is there some normal/best practice way of doing this with bootstrap? Yes, I do realize I can just put style="display:none" on search_results, but is that the best way to do it? It would seem to be a bit better to have a style that semantically means "initially hidden". (NOTE: The hidden or hide classes don't do this as they are !important and show(), toggle(), etc. use an inline style which does not override them, i.e. setting "hidden" as the class makes it unshowable from jQuery.)

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• MVC3 Custom view engine

  - by eth0

  I have a custom View Engine that derives from WebFormViewEngine. There's a lot of stuff going on in here, mostly caching. I want to be able to use WebFormViewEngine AND RazorViewEngine at the same time, is this possible? Ideally I'd like to do; ViewEngines.Add(new MyViewEngine<WebFormsViewEngine>()); ViewEngines.Add(new MyViewEngine<RazorViewEngine>()); if a .ascx/.aspx/.master file exists then use WebForms, otherwise use Razor is a .cshtml file exists. EDIT: I should of worded my question better. As my custom view engine derives from WebFormViewEngine it obviously uses WebForms, I can't derive from two classes. I can derive from RazorViewEngine but then I'll loose WebForms. I can duplicate my code entirely, derive from RazorViewEngine and edit the views file extensions, etc. but as I said I've got a lot of custom code in my view engine and would be duplicating hundreds of lines. WebFormViewEngine and RazorViewEngine derive from BuildManagerViewEngine which in turn implements IViewEngine. The problem with that is I have to implement methods CreatePartialView() and CreateView() but how would I know what to return (WebForms/Razor?) using generics?

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• Initializing an object to all zeroes

  - by dash-tom-bang

  Oftentimes data structures' valid initialization is to set all members to zero. Even when programming in C++, one may need to interface with an external API for which this is the case. Is there any practical difference between: some_struct s; memset(s, 0, sizeof(s)); and simply some_struct s = { 0 }; Do folks find themselves using both, with a method for choosing which is more appropriate for a given application? For myself, as mostly a C++ programmer who doesn't use memset much, I'm never certain of the function signature so I find the second example is just easier to use in addition to being less typing, more compact, and maybe even more obvious since it says "this object is initialized to zero" right in the declaration rather than waiting for the next line of code and seeing, "oh, this object is zero initialized." When creating classes and structs in C++ I tend to use initialization lists; I'm curious about folks thoughts on the two "C style" initializations above rather than a comparison against what is available in C++ since I suspect many of us interface with C libraries even if we code mostly in C++ ourselves.

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• two view controllers and reusability with delegate

  - by netcharmer

  Newbie question about design patterns in objC. I'm writing a functionality for my iphone app which I plan to use in other apps too. The functionality is written over two classes - Viewcontroller1 and Viewcontroller2. Viewcontroller1 is the root view of a navigation controller and it can push Viewcontroller2. Rest of the app will use only ViewController1 and will never access Viewcontroller2 directly. However, triggered by user events, Viewcontroller2 has to send a message to the rest of the app. My question is what is the best way of achieving it? Currently, I use two level of delegation to send the message out from Viewcontroller2. First send it to Viewcontroller1 and then let Viewcontroller1 send it to rest of the app or the application delegate. So my code looks like - //Viewcontroller1.h @protocol bellDelegate -(int)bellRang:(int)size; @end @interface Viewcontroller1 : UITableViewController <dummydelegate> { id <bellDelegate> delegate; @end //Viewcontroller1.m @implementation Viewcontroller1 -(void)viewDidLoad { //some stuff here Viewcontroller2 *vc2 = [[Viewcontroller2 alloc] init]; vc2.delegate = self; [self.navigationController pushViewController:vc2 animated:YES]; } -(int)dummyBell:(int)size { return([self.delegate bellRang:size]); } //Viewcontroller2.h @protocol dummyDelegate -(int)dummyBell:(int)size; @end @interface Viewcontroller2 : UITableViewController { id <dummyDelegate> delegate; @end //Viewcontroller2.m @implementation Viewcontroller2 -(int)eventFoo:(int)size { rval = [self.delegate dummyBell:size]; } @end

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• what's a good technique for building and running many similar unit tests?

  - by jcollum

  I have a test setup where I have many very similar unit tests that I need to run. For example, there are about 40 stored procedures that need to be checked for existence in the target environment. However I'd like all the tests to be grouped by their business unit. So there'd be 40 instances of a very similar TestMethod in 40 separate classes. Kinda lame. One other thing: each group of tests need to be in their own solution. So Business Unit A will have a solution called Tests.BusinessUnitA. I'm thinking that I can set this all up by passing a configuration object (with the name of the stored proc to check, among other things) to a TestRunner class. The problem is that I'm losing the atomicity of my unit tests. I wouldn't be able to run just one of the tests, I'd have to run all the tests in the TestRunner class. This is what the code looks like at this time. Sure, it's nice and compact, but if Test 8 fails, I have no way of running just Test 8. TestRunner runner = new TestRunner(config, this.TestContext); var runnerType = typeof(TestRunner); var methods = runnerType.GetMethods() .Where(x => x.GetCustomAttributes(typeof(TestMethodAttribute), false) .Count() > 0).ToArray(); foreach (var method in methods) { method.Invoke(runner, null); } So I'm looking for suggestions for making a group of unit tests that take in a configuration object but won't require me to generate many many TestMethods. This looks like it might require code-generation, but I'd like to solve it without that.

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• Additional information in ASP.Net MVC View

  - by Max Malmgren

  I am attempting to implement a custom locale service in an MVC 2 webpage. I have an interface IResourceDictionary that provides a couple of methods for accessing resources by culture. This is because I want to avoid the static classes of .Net resources. The problem is accessing the chosen IResourceDictionary from the views. I have contemplated using the ViewDataDictionary given, creating a base controller from which all my controllers inherits that adds my IResourceDictionary to the ViewData before each action executes. Then I could call my resource dictionary this way: (ViewData["Resources"] as IResourceDictionary).GetEntry(params); Admittedly, this is extremely verbose and ugly, especially in inline code as we are encouraged to use in MVC. Right now I am leaning towards static class access ResourceDictionary.GetEntry(params); because it is slightly more elegant. I also thought about adding it to my typed model for each page, which seems more robust than adding it to the ViewData.. What is the preferred way to access my ResourceDictionary from the views? All my views will be using this dictionary.

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• How to keep jquery from descending too far?

  - by Earlz

  Hello, I am having a problem with jquery going a bit too far on pattern matching of CSS classes and IDs. I have some markup that looks like this: <div id="blah"> <div class="level2"> <input type="text" /> </div> <div class="levelA"> <div class="level2"> <input type="text" value="foo"/> </div> </div> </div> <input type="text" value="bar" /> I want for the 3 inputs to say Hello Foo Bar so I have this line of jquery: $('#blah .level2 input').val('hello'); the problem now is that jquery is a bit too liberal in it's pattern matches and matches both the first and second. How can I prevent this kind of thing from happening? A live example is at http://jsbin.com/opelo3/4

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• c# How to implement a collection of generics

  - by Amy

  I have a worker class that does stuff with a collection of objects. I need each of those objects to have two properties, one has an unknown type and one has to be a number. I wanted to use an interface so that I could have multiple item classes that allowed for other properties but were forced to have the PropA and PropB that the worker class requires. This is the code I have so far, which seemed to be OK until I tried to use it. A list of MyItem is not allowed to be passed as a list of IItem even though MyItem implements IItem. This is where I got confused. Also, if possible, it would be great if when instantiating the worker class I don't need to pass in the T, instead it would know what T is based on the type of PropA. Can someone help get me sorted out? Thanks! public interface IItem<T> { T PropA { get; set; } decimal PropB { get; set; } } public class MyItem : IItem<string> { public string PropA { get; set; } public decimal PropB { get; set; } } public class WorkerClass<T> { private List<T> _list; public WorkerClass(IEnumerable<IItem<T>> items) { doStuff(items); } public T ReturnAnItem() { return _list[0]; } private void doStuff(IEnumerable<IItem<T>> items) { foreach (IItem<T> item in items) { _list.Add(item.PropA); } } } public void usage() { IEnumerable<MyItem> list= GetItems(); var worker = new WorkerClass<string>(list);//Not Allowed }

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• Function Triggered before fadeOut(); is finished

  - by willmcneilly

  Hi I'm new to javascript/jQuery this really has me stumped. What I'm trying to achieve here is On toggling a#sameDayTab jquery will look for .changeAlert and fadeOut it's container div, when toggled again the div will fade in (this works well.) Each toggle will also call a function that tells me how many .changeAlert's are present on the page and updates the number appropriately in a span. The problem is when I first click the toggled anchor the number of visible should be 0 as the .changeAlert has been hidden by fadeOut instead it returns the number of classes present on page load this value never changes no matter how many times the toggle is activated. Any help greatly appreciated. function totalNumFares () { var n = $('.changeAlert:visible').size(); $('.numFares').replaceWith('<span class=\"numFares\">'+ n +'</span>'); } totalNumFares(); //Toggle On/off Same Day Connections $('a#sameDayTab').toggle(function() { $('.changeAlert').parent().parent().parent().parent().parent().fadeOut(); totalNumFares(); },function(){ $('.changeAlert').parent().parent().parent().parent().parent().fadeIn(); totalNumFares(); });

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• Joomla get plugin id

  - by Christian Sciberras

  I wrote a Joomla plugin which will eventually load a library. The path to library is a plugin parameter, as such when the path is incorrect, a message pops up in the backend, together with a link to edit the plugin parameters: /administrator/index.php?option=com_plugins&view=plugin&client=site&task=edit&cid[]=36 See the 36 at the end? That's my plugin's id in the database (table jos_plugins). My issue is that this id changes on installation, ie, on different installs, it would be something else. So I need to find this id programmatically. The problem is that I couldn't find this id from the plugin object itself (as to why not, that would be joomla's arguably short-sighted design decision). So unless you know about some neat trick, (I've checked and double checked JPlugin and JPluginHelper classes), I'll be using the DB. Edit; Some useful links: http://docs.joomla.org/Plugin_Developer_Overview http://api.joomla.org/Joomla-Framework/Plugin/JPlugin.html http://api.joomla.org/Joomla-Framework/Plugin/JPluginHelper.html http://forum.joomla.org/viewtopic.php?p=2227737 Guess I'll be using the wisdom from that last link...

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• split a string into a key => value array in php

  - by andy-score

  +2-1+18*+7-21+3*-4-5+6x29 The above string is an example of the kind of string I'm trying to split into either a key = value array or something similar. The numbers represent the id of a class and -,+ and x represent the state of the class (minimised, expanded or hidden), the * represents a column break. I can split this into the columns easily using explode which gives and array with 3 $key = $value associations. eg. $column_layout = array( [0] => '+2-1+18' , [1] => '+7-21+3' , [2] => '-4-5+6x29' ) I then need to split this into the various classes from there, keeping the status and id together. eg. $column1 = array( '+' => 2 , '-' => 1 , '+' => 18 ) ... or $column1 = array( array( '+' , 2 ) , array( '-' , 1 ) , array( '+' , 18 ) ) ... I can't quite get my head round this and what the best way to do it is, so any help would be much appreciated.

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• Null reference but it's not?

  - by Clint Davis

  This is related to my previous question but it is a different problem. I have two classes: Server and Database. Public Class Server Private _name As String Public Property Name() As String Get Return _name End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _name = value End Set End Property Private _databases As List(Of Database) Public Property Databases() As List(Of Database) Get Return _databases End Get Set(ByVal value As List(Of Database)) _databases = value End Set End Property Public Sub LoadTables() Dim db As New Database(Me) db.Name = "test" Databases.Add(db) End Sub End Class Public Class Database Private _server As Server Private _name As String Public Property Name() As String Get Return _name End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _name = value End Set End Property Public Property Server() As Server Get Return _server End Get Set(ByVal value As Server) _server = value End Set End Property Public Sub New(ByVal ser As Server) Server = ser End Sub End Class Fairly simple. I use like this: Dim s As New Server s.Name = "Test" s.LoadTables() The problem is in the LoadTables in the Server class. When it hits Databases.Add(db) it gives me a NullReference error (Object reference not set). I don't understand how it is getting that, all the objects are set. Any ideas? Thanks.

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• How do I code a tree of objects in Haskell with pointers to parent and children?

  - by axilmar

  I've got the following problem: I have a tree of objects of different classes where an action in the child class invalidates the parent. In imperative languages, it is trivial to do. For example, in Java: public class A { private List<B> m_children = new LinkedList<B>(); private boolean m_valid = true; public void invalidate() { m_valid = false; } public void addChild(B child) { m_children.add(child); child.m_parent = this; } } public class B { public A m_parent = null; private int m_data = 0; public void setData(int data) { m_data = 0; m_parent.invalidate(); } } public class Main { public static void main(String[] args) { A a = new A(); B b = new B(); b.setData(0); //invalidates A } } How do I do the above in Haskell? I cannot wrap my mind around this, since once I construct an object in Haskell, it cannot be changed. I would be much obliged if the relevant Haskell code is posted.

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• Defining implicit and explicit casts for C# interfaces

  - by ehdv

  Is there a way to write interface-based code (i.e. using interfaces rather than classes as the types accepted and passed around) in C# without giving up the use of things like implicit casts? Here's some sample code - there's been a lot removed, but these are the relevant portions. public class Game { public class VariantInfo { public string Language { get; set; } public string Variant { get; set; } } } And in ScrDictionary.cs, we have... public class ScrDictionary: IScrDictionary { public string Language { get; set; } public string Variant { get; set; } public static implicit operator Game.VariantInfo(ScrDictionary s) { return new Game.VariantInfo{Language=sd.Language, Variant=sd.Variant}; } } And the interface... public interface IScrDictionary { string Language { get; set; } string Variant { get; set; } } I want to be able to use IScrDictionary instead of ScrDictionary, but still be able to implicitly convert a ScrDictionary to a Game.VariantInfo. Also, while there may be an easy way to make this work by giving IScrDictionary a property of type Game.VariantInfo my question is more generally: Is there a way to define casts or operator overloading on interfaces? (If not, what is the proper C# way to maintain this functionality without giving up interface-oriented design?)

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• Why can't these generic type parameters be inferred?

  - by Jon M

  Given the following interfaces/classes: public interface IRequest<TResponse> { } public interface IHandler<TRequest, TResponse> where TRequest : IRequest<TResponse> { TResponse Handle(TRequest request); } public class HandlingService { public TResponse Handle<TRequest, TResponse>(TRequest request) where TRequest : IRequest<TResponse> { var handler = container.GetInstance<IHandler<TRequest, TResponse>>(); return handler.Handle(request); } } public class CustomerResponse { public Customer Customer { get; set; } } public class GetCustomerByIdRequest : IRequest<CustomerResponse> { public int CustomerId { get; set; } } Why can't the compiler infer the correct types, if I try and write something like the following: var service = new HandlingService(); var request = new GetCustomerByIdRequest { CustomerId = 1234 }; var response = service.Handle(request); // Shouldn't this know that response is going to be CustomerResponse? I just get the 'type arguments cannot be inferred' message. Is this a limitation with generic type inference in general, or is there a way to make this work?

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• C++ Instantiate class and add name to array/vector then cycle through update functions from the array

  - by SD42

  I have a bunch of classes in a basic (and badly coded!) game engine that are currently instantiated in the code and have to have their individual update functions called. What I want to do is be able to create an instance of a class, pass the name to an array, and then subsequently cycle through the array to call the update functions of each class. I'm unsure as to whether or not this is an impossible or spectacularly stupid way of trying to manage objects, so please tell me if it is. So currently I might have manually instantiated Enemy class a couple of times: Enemy enem1; Enemy enem2; I then have to update them manually in the game loop: enem1.update(); enem2.update(); What method should I use to be able to spawn and destroy instances of the enemy class during gametime? Is it possible to populate an array with instantiated names and then do something like (and i'm aware this doesn't work); array[x].update(); Then iterate through the names in the array? Anything that even points me in the right direction would be greatly appreciated!

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