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• ASP.NET Applications Requests/Sec suddenly jumps to a value of about 70 million/sec. on 8 core web

  - by Subhrajit Roy

  We are doing performance testing of an ASP.NET web application with VSTS 2008. We start with 2000 users and slowly ramp up to 5000 users (reaches this user load at around 2.5 hours after the tests start, after this we stay at this user load). The total test duration is of about 6 hours During these runs we have found that the counter Requests/Sec (under category ASP.NET applications) suddenly spikes to a values of 36-72 millions !!!. This keeps on happening intermittently i.e we see this issue once in every 3 performance runs that we give on the same application. In our testing environment we have 4 web servers and interestingly enough we have found that this issue occurs only in the 8 core web servers. Summarizing ... Issue : The counter Requests/Sec (under category ASP.NET Applications) suddenly jumps to a value of about 70 million/sec. on 8 core web servers. This results in an increase in SQL server connections opened by the application. Response time goes for a toss. Error rates also show similar behaviour. However the counter ISAPI Extention Requests/sec does not show any abnormal increase. The graph of this counter almost overlaps with that of counter Requests/Sec till the time of the appearance of the spike.When the spike appears , this counter (ISAPI Extention Requests/sec) actually shows a drop. Test Settings : Performance test run with Visual Studio Team System 2008. Soak test run for 6 hours. Maximum user load 5000 users. This is load is attained at about 2.5 hours into the run and mainted for remaining duration.(i.e for around 3.5 more hrs) This issue is reproducible though happens intermittently. (i.e occurs one in three or four runs) Test Environment : Web site deployed on 4 Web Servers (Windows Server 2003). Of these 2 are 4 core machines and the remaining 2 are 8 core ones. .NET Framework 3.5 SP1 installed on all 4 web servers. Application hosted on IIS 6.0 run in Worker process isolation mode.

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• This property cannot be set after writing has started! on a C# WebRequest Object

  - by EBAGHAKI

  I want to reuse a WebRequest object so that cookies and session would be saved for later request to the server. Below is my code. If i use Post function twice on the second time at request.ContentLength = byteArray.Length; it will throw an exception This property cannot be set after writing has started! But as you can see dataStream.Close(); Should close the writing process! Anybody knows what's going on? static WebRequest request; public MainForm() { request = WebRequest.Create("http://localhost/admin/admin.php"); } static string Post(string url, string data) { request.Method = "POST"; byte[] byteArray = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(data); request.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; request.ContentLength = byteArray.Length; Stream dataStream = request.GetRequestStream(); dataStream.Write(byteArray, 0, byteArray.Length); dataStream.Close(); WebResponse response = request.GetResponse(); Console.WriteLine(((HttpWebResponse)response).StatusDescription); dataStream = response.GetResponseStream(); StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(dataStream); string responseFromServer = reader.ReadToEnd(); Console.WriteLine(responseFromServer); reader.Close(); dataStream.Close(); response.Close(); request.Abort(); return responseFromServer; }

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• Understanding CABasicAnimation when spinning an object from a random angle....

  - by user157733

  I have spent ages trying to figure this out and I am still having problems. I want to rotate an image a random number of time - say 5 and a bit - then have it stop. I then want to rotate it again FROM ITS STOPPED POSITION. I am having difficulty with this so maybe someone can advise me on the right way to do it. Ok so I am using a CABasicAnimation for the spin like this... CABasicAnimation* rotationAnimation; rotationAnimation = [NSNumber numberWithFloat: 0.0]; rotationAnimation.toValue = [NSNumber numberWithFloat: M_PI * 1.0]; rotationAnimation.duration = 100; rotationAnimation.cumulative = YES; rotationAnimation.repeatCount = 5.2; rotationAnimation.removedOnCompletion = NO; rotationAnimation.fillMode = kCAFillModeForwards; [myView.layer addAnimation:rotationAnimation forKey:@"rotationAnimation"]; This works fine. I use a animationDidStop function to transform the image to the new angle so that it actually in the new position (not just appearing that way). This is where my problems start. I have tried the following... removing the toValue line which means the animation starts from where it currently is but when the animation block is repeated it jumps back to this start position every time the block is run storing the value of the end rotation and using this in the toValue so the 2 lines of code become... rotationAnimation = [NSNumber numberWithFloat: previousVal]; rotationAnimation.toValue = [NSNumber numberWithFloat: (M_PI * 1.0)+previousVal]; when I do this the animation still jumps because it is flicking back to the previousVal everytime the block is repeated Therefore my final thought is to check to see if the image is at zero, if not then rotate it to zero, then impliment the block of code to spin multiple times. This seems complicated but is this the ONLY way to achieve this? I am concerned about getting the timings smooth with this method. Any suggestions would be amazing! Thanks

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• How to "escape" the JavaScript class keyword to specify a CSS class value.

  - by Robert Claypool

  C# allows a reserved word to be used as a property name via the ampersand. e.g. // In ASP.NET MVC, we use @class to define // the css class attribute for some HtmlHelper methods. var htmlObject = new { readonly = "readonly", @class = "ui-state-highlight" } I want to do the same in JavaScript. e.g. function makeGrid(grid, pager) { grid.jqGrid({ caption: 'Configurations', colNames: ['Id', 'Name'], colModel: [ { name: 'Id', index: 'Id' }, { name: 'Name', index: 'Name', editable: true, editoptions: { readonly: 'readonly', class: 'FormElement readonly' } }, ], pager: pager, url: 'www.example.com/app/configurations") %>', editurl: 'www.example.com/app/configurations/edit") %>' }).navGrid(pager, { edit: true, add: false, del: false, search: false }, {}, {}, {}); } Note class: 'FormElement readonly' is supposed to set the css class value on jqGrid's edit dialog, but IE errors out on the reserved word. Is there an escape character in JavaScript too? #class? @class? &class? Otherwise, how might I tell jqGrid to set the css class on the popup editor? Thank you.

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• Best practices on using URIs as parameter value in REST calls.

  - by dafmetal

  I am designing a REST API where some resources can be filtered through query parameters. In some cases, these filter values would be resources from the same REST API. This makes for longish and pretty unreadable URIs. While this is not too much of a problem in itself because the URIs are meant to be created and manipulated programmatically, it makes for some painful debugging. I was thinking of allowing shortcuts to URIs used as filter values and I wonder if this is allowed according to the REST architecture and if there are any best practices. For example: I have a resource that gets me Java classes. Then the following request would give me all Java classes: GET http://example.org/api/v1/class Suppose I want all subclasses of the Collection Java class, then I would use the following request: GET http://example.org/api/v1/class?has-supertype=http://example.org/api/v1/class/collection That request would return me Vector, ArrayList and all other subclasses of the Collection Java class. That URI is quite long though. I could already shorten it by allowing hs as an alias for has-supertype. This would give me: GET http://example.org/api/v1/class?hs=http://example.org/api/v1/class/collection Another way to allow shorter URIs would be to allow aliases for URI prefixes. For example, I could define class as an alias for the URI prefix http://example.org/api/v1/class/. Which would give me the following possibility: GET http://example.org/api/v1/class?hs=class:collection Another possibility would be to remove the class alias entirely and always prefix the parameter value with http://example.org/api/v1/class/ as this is the only thing I would support. This would turn the request for all subtypes of Collection into: GET http://example.org/api/v1/class?hs=collection Do these "simplifications" of the original request URI still conform to the principles of a REST architecture? Or did I just go off the deep end?

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• Is it possible to store controls(Panel) as object, serialize it and store it as a file?

  - by ikky

  The topic says it all. Using Compact Framework C# I'm tiling (order/sequence is important) some images that i download from an url, into a Panel(each image is a PictureBox). This can be a huge process, and may take some time. Therefor i only want the user to download the images and tile them once. So the next time the user uses the Tile Application, the Panel that was created the first time is already stored in a file and is loaded from that file. So what i want is a method to store a Panel as a file. Is this possible, or do you think i should do it another way? I've tried something like this: BinaryWriter panelStorage = new BinaryWriter(new FileStream("imagePanel.panel", FileMode.OpenOrCreate, FileAccess.Write, FileShare.None)); Byte[] bImageObject = new Byte[20000]; bImageObject = (byte[])(object)this.imagePanel; panelStorage .Write(bMapObject); panelStorage .Close(); But the casting was not very legal :P "InvalidCastException" Can anyone help me with this problem? Thank you in advance!

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• How would I make a mouse controlled physics object in Box2D / AS3?

  - by Marty Wallace

  I recently created this tennis game using my own basic physics: http://martywallace.com/sandbox/tennis/ Basically a tennis racquet sticks to your mouse and you can hit the tennis balls upward. The physics aren't that great, and I want to make a more interesting version of this game with milestones and levels in Flash. I am planning to use Box2D because I have moderate experience with it. I'm not sure how to go about creating the racquet - as far as I understand Box2D, the racquet needs a velocity to influence the velocities of the balls when you hit them (so that you can hit them harder or softer upward to keep them up). With that said, I'm assuming I can't just have a kinematic body that will have its position set to the mouse, because it won't affect the velocities of the balls as expected. I've also thought about setting the velocity to the difference between the racquet position and the mouse each frame, but I am concerned that won't provide accurate positioning and am also thinking that the velocity could end up really large if you move the mouse quickly. What is the correct way to have a physics object locked to the mouse but also to have its displacement in the last frame (from where it was to the mouse) affect the balls?

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• How to get SQL Function run a different query and return value from either query?

  - by RoguePlanetoid

  I need a function, but cannot seem to get it quite right, I have looked at examples here and elsewhere and cannot seem to get this just right, I need an optional item to be included in my query, I have this query (which works): SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT SKU, Description, LEN(CONVERT(VARCHAR (1000),Description)) AS LenDesc FROM tblItem WHERE Title = @Title AND Manufacturer = @Manufacturer ORDER BY LenDesc DESC This works within a Function, however the Manufacturer is Optional for this search - which is to find the description of a similar item, if none is present, the other query is: SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT SKU, Description, LEN(CONVERT(VARCHAR (1000),Description)) AS LenDesc FROM tblItem WHERE Title = @Title ORDER BY LenDesc DESC Which is missing the Manufacturer, how to I get my function to use either query based on the Manufacturer Value being present or not. The reason is I will have a function which first checks an SKU for a Description, if it is not present - it uses this method to get a Description from a Similar Product, then updates the product being added with the similar product's description. Here is the function so far: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[GetDescriptionByTitleManufacturer] ( @Title varchar(400), @Manufacturer varchar(160) ) RETURNS TABLE AS RETURN ( SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT SKU, Description, LEN(CONVERT(VARCHAR (1000),Description)) AS LenDesc FROM tblItem WHERE Title = @Title AND Manufacturer = @Manufacturer ORDER BY LenDesc DESC ) I've tried adding BEGINs and IF...ELSEs but get errors or syntax problems each way I try it, I want to be able to do something like this pseudo-function (which does not work): ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[GetDescriptionByTitleManufacturer] ( @Title varchar(400), @Manufacturer varchar(160) ) RETURNS TABLE AS BEGIN IF (@Manufacturer = Null) RETURN ( SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT SKU, Description, LEN(CONVERT(VARCHAR (1000),Description)) AS LenDesc FROM tblItem WHERE Title = @Title ORDER BY LenDesc DESC ) ELSE RETURN ( SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT SKU, Description, LEN(CONVERT(VARCHAR (1000),Description)) AS LenDesc FROM tblItem WHERE Title = @Title AND Manufacturer = @Manufacturer ORDER BY LenDesc DESC ) END

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• Can a function return an object? Objective-C and NSMutableArray

  - by seaworthy

  I have an NSMutableArray. It's members eventually become members of an array instance in a class. I want to put the instantiantion of NSMutable into a function and to return an array object. If I can do this, I can make some of my code easier to read. Is this possible? Here is what I am trying to figure out. //Definition: > function Objects (float a, float b) { > NSMutableArray *array = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; > [array addObject:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:a]]; > [array addObject:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:b]]; > //[release array]; ???????? return array; > } //Declaration: Math *operator = [[Math alloc] init]; [operator findSum:Objects(20.0,30.0)]; My code compiles if I instantiate NSMutableArray right before I send the message to the receiver. I know I can have an array argument along with the method. What I have problem seeing is how to use a function and to replace the argument with a function call. Any help is appreciated. I am interested in the concept not in suggestions to replace the findSum method.

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• How to test if raising an event results in a method being called conditional on value of parameters

  - by MattC

  I'm trying to write a unit test that will raise an event on a mock object which my test class is bound to. What I'm keen to test though is that when my test class gets it's eventhandler called it should only call a method on certain values of the eventhandlers parameters. My test seems to pass even if I comment the code that calls ProcessPriceUpdate(price); I'm in VS2005 so no lambdas please :( So... public delegate void PriceUpdateEventHandler(decimal price); public interface IPriceInterface{ event PriceUpdateEventHandler PriceUpdate; } public class TestClass { IPriceInterface priceInterface = null; TestClass(IPriceInterface priceInterface) { this.priceInterface = priceInterface; } public void Init() { priceInterface.PriceUpdate += OnPriceUpdate; } public void OnPriceUpdate(decimal price) { if(price > 0) ProcessPriceUpdate(price); } public void ProcessPriceUpdate(decimal price) { //do something with price } } And my test so far :s public void PriceUpdateEvent() { MockRepository mock = new MockRepository(); IPriceInterface pi = mock.DynamicMock<IPriceInterface>(); TestClass test = new TestClass(pi); decimal prc = 1M; IEventRaiser raiser; using (mock.Record()) { pi.PriceUpdate += null; raiser = LastCall.IgnoreArguments().GetEventRaiser(); Expect.Call(delegate { test.ProcessPriceUpdate(prc); }).Repeat.Once(); } using (mock.Playback()) { test.Init(); raiser.Raise(prc); } }

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• How can I read the properties of an object that I assign to the Session in ASP.NET MVC?

  - by quakkels

  Hey all, I'm trying my hand at creating a session which stores member information which the application can use to reveal certain navigation and allow access to certain pages and member role specific functionality. I've been able to assign my MemberLoggedIn object to the session in this way: //code excerpt start... MemberLoggedIn loggedIn = new MemberLoggedIn(); if (computedHash == member.Hash) { loggedIn.ID = member.ID; loggedIn.Username = member.Username; loggedIn.Email = member.Email; loggedIn.Superuser = member.Superuser; loggedIn.Active = member.Active; Session["loggedIn"] = loggedIn; } else if (ModelState.IsValid) { ModelState.AddModelError("Password", "Incorrect Username or Password."); } return View(); That works great. I then can send the properties of Session["loggedIn"] to the View in this way: [ChildActionOnly] public ActionResult Login() { if (Session["loggedIn"] != null) ViewData.Model = Session["loggedIn"]; else ViewData.Model = null; return PartialView(); } In the Partial View I can reference the session data by using Model.Username or Model.Superuser. However, it doesn't seem to work that way in the controller or in a custom Action Filter. Is there a way to get the equivalent of Session["loggedIn"].Username?

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• How do I efficiently write a "toggle database value" function in AJAX?

  - by AmbroseChapel

  Say I have a website which shows the user ten images and asks them to categorise each image by clicking on buttons. A button for "funny", a button for "scary", a button for "pretty" and so on. These buttons aren't exclusive. A picture can be both funny and scary. The user clicks the "funny" button. An AJAX request is sent off to the database to mark that image as funny. The "funny" button lights up, by assigning a class in the DOM to mark it as "on". But the user made a mistake. They meant to hit the next button over. They should click "funny" again to turn it off, right? At this point I'm not sure whats the most efficient way to proceed. The database knows that the "funny" flag is set, but it's inefficient to query the database every time a button is clicked to say, is this flag set or not, then go on with a second database call to toggle it. Should I infer the state of the database flag from the DOM, i.e. if that button has the class "on" then the flag must be set, and branch at that point? Or would it be better to have a data structure in Javascript in the page which duplicates the state of each image in the database, so that every time I set the database flag to true, I also set the value in the Javascript data to true and so on?

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• C/C++: Passing a structure by value, with another structure as one of its members, changes values of

  - by jellyfisharepretty

  Sorry for the confusing title, but it basically says it all. Here's the structures I'm using (found in OpenCV) : struct CV_EXPORTS CvRTParams : public CvDTreeParams { bool calc_var_importance; int nactive_vars; CvTermCriteria term_crit; CvRTParams() : CvDTreeParams( 5, 10, 0, false, 10, 0, false, false, 0 ), calc_var_importance(false), nactive_vars(0) { term_crit = cvTermCriteria( CV_TERMCRIT_ITER+CV_TERMCRIT_EPS, 50, 0.1 ); } } and typedef struct CvTermCriteria { int type; int max_iter; double epsilon; } CvTermCriteria; CV_INLINE CvTermCriteria cvTermCriteria( int type, int max_iter, double epsilon ) { CvTermCriteria t; t.type = type; t.max_iter = max_iter; t.epsilon = (float)epsilon; return t; } Now, I initialize a CvRTParams structure and set values for its members : CvRTParams params; params.max_depth = 8; params.min_sample_count = 10; params.regression_accuracy = 0; params.use_surrogates = false; params.max_categories = 10; params.priors = priors; params.calc_var_importance = true; params.nactive_vars = 9; params.term_crit.max_iter = 33; params.term_crit.epsilon = 0.1; params.term_crit.type = 3; Then call a function of an object, taking params in as a parameter : CvRTrees* rt = new CvRTrees; rt->train(t, CV_ROW_SAMPLE, r, 0, 0, var_type, 0, params) What happens now ? Values of... params.term_crit.max_iter params.term_crit.epsilon params.term_crit.type have changed ! They are no longer 33, 0.1 and 3, but something along the lines of 3, 7.05541e-313 and 4, and this, for the whole duration of the CvRtrees::train() function...

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• Is there anyway to carry a value in php forward to a second page?

  - by Henry Aspden

  I have created a php site, and previously it was listing only products with defined values. I have now changed it to include an array of products for example all products WHERE id = "spotlights" and this works great so it means I can add new products just to the database, but I still have to add the second page manually. e.g going from the product div on the main page, through to www.example.com/spotlight_1.php Is there anyway in PHP to carry the data from my index.php e.g. the ID through to the next page? so that I can have a template product.php page, and I can use a database pull to echo the product information required. So on index.php i click on the product with ID="1" and on the product.php page, it loads the relevant data for product 1. I can write the php SQL/mySQL calls myself, its just the way to carry accross a value from the previous page which I dont understand Regards Henry p.s. all the IDs and things are stored in the database already as 1 to 3digit values e.g. 3 or or 93 or 254 Any advice as always is greatly appreciated Regards Henry

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• How can I create a new Person object correctly in Javascript?

  - by TimDog

  I'm still struggling with this concept. I have two different Person objects, very simply: ;Person1 = (function() { function P (fname, lname) { P.FirstName = fname; P.LastName = lname; return P; } P.FirstName = ''; P.LastName = ''; var prName = 'private'; P.showPrivate = function() { alert(prName); }; return P; })(); ;Person2 = (function() { var prName = 'private'; this.FirstName = ''; this.LastName = ''; this.showPrivate = function() { alert(prName); }; return function(fname, lname) { this.FirstName = fname; this.LastName = lname; } })(); And let's say I invoke them like this: var s = new Array(); //Person1 s.push(new Person1("sal", "smith")); s.push(new Person1("bill", "wonk")); alert(s[0].FirstName); alert(s[1].FirstName); s[1].showPrivate(); //Person2 s.push(new Person2("sal", "smith")); s.push(new Person2("bill", "wonk")); alert(s[2].FirstName); alert(s[3].FirstName); s[3].showPrivate(); The Person1 set alerts "bill" twice, then alerts "private" once -- so it recognizes the showPrivate function, but the local FirstName variable gets overwritten. The second Person2 set alerts "sal", then "bill", but it fails when the showPrivate function is called. The new keyword here works as I'd expect, but showPrivate (which I thought was a publicly exposed function within the closure) is apparently not public. I want to get my object to have distinct copies of all local variables and also expose public methods -- I've been studying closures quite a bit, but I'm still confused on this one. Thanks for your help.

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• Why I got a "sent to freed object error"?

  - by Tattat

  I have a Table View, and CharTableController, the CharTableController works like this: .h: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface CharTableController : UITableViewController <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource>{ // IBOutlet UILabel *debugLabel; NSArray *listData; } //@property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UILabel *debugLabel; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSArray *listData; @end The .m: #import "CharTableController.h" @implementation CharTableController @synthesize listData; - (void)viewDidLoad { NSArray *array = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"Sleepy", @"Sneezy", @"Bashful", @"Happy", @"Doc", @"Grumpy", @"Dopey", @"Thorin", @"Dorin", @"Nori", @"Ori", @"Balin", @"Dwalin", @"Fili", @"Kili", @"Oin", @"Gloin", @"Bifur", @"Bofur", @"Bombur", nil]; self.listData = array; [array release]; [super viewDidLoad]; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return [self.listData count]; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *SimpleTableIdentifier = @"SimpleTableIdentifier"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier: SimpleTableIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:SimpleTableIdentifier] autorelease]; NSUInteger row = [indexPath row]; cell.textLabel.text = [listData objectAtIndex:row]; } return cell; } @end And I Use the IB to link the TableView's dataSource and delegate to the CharTableController. In the CharTableController's view is the TableView in IB obviously. Reference Object in dataSource TableView and delegate TableView. What's wrong with my setting? thz.

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• How to get an xml node element value using XDocument?

  - by Krishnan

  Here I am listing an xml. < ? xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ? < data < dataitemqqqqqqq< / dataitem < templatedata < Year2001< /Year < /templatedata < mailmergedata < row < facilitynameABC Corporation< /facilityname < dueamount200.00< /dueamount < /row < row < facilitynameXYZ Corporation< /facilityname < DueAmount50.00< /DueAmount < /row < /mailmergedata < /data I want to retrive the value of the node facilityname Anybody pls help Thanks & Regards Krishnan

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• Should I release NSString before assigning a new value to it?

  - by Elliot Chen

  Hi, Please give me some suggestions about how to change a NSString variable. At my class, I set a member var: NSString *m_movieName; ... @property(nonatomic, retain) NSString *m_movieName; At viewDidLoad method, I assign a default name to this var: -(void)viewDidLoad{ NSString *s1 = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"Forrest Gump"]; self.m_movieName = s1; ... [s1 release]; [super viewDidLoad] } At some function, I want to give a new name to this var, so I did like: -(void)SomeFunc{ NSString *s2 = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"Brave Heart"]; //[self.movieName release]; // ??????? Should perform here? self.m_moiveName = s2; [s2 release]; } I know, NSString* var is just a pointer to an allocated memory block, and 'assign' operation will increment this memory block's using count. For my situation, should I release m_movieName before assigning a value to it? If I do not release it (via [self.movieName release]), when and where will the previous block be released? Thanks for your help very much!

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• What are the hibernate annotations used to persist a value typed Map with an enumerated type as a ke

  - by Jason Novak

  I am having trouble getting the right hibernate annotations to use on a value typed Map with an enumerated class as a key. Here is a simplified (and extremely contrived) example. public class Thing { public String id; public Letter startLetter; public Map<Letter,Double> letterCounts = new HashMap<Letter, Double>(); } public enum Letter { A, B, C, D } Here are my current annotations on Thing @Entity public class Thing { @Id public String id; @Enumerated(EnumType.STRING) public Letter startLetter; @CollectionOfElements @JoinTable(name = "Thing_letterFrequencies", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "thingId")) @MapKey(columns = @Column(name = "letter", nullable = false)) @Column(name = "count") public Map<Letter,Double> letterCounts = new HashMap<Letter, Double>(); } Hibernate generates the following DDL to create the tables for my MySql database create table Thing (id varchar(255) not null, startLetter varchar(255), primary key (id)) type=InnoDB; create table Thing_letterFrequencies (thingId varchar(255) not null, count double precision, letter tinyblob not null, primary key (thingId, letter)) type=InnoDB; Notice that hibernate tries to define letter (my map key) as a tinyblob, however it defines startLetter as a varchar(255) even though both are of the enumerated type Letter. When I try to create the tables I see the following error BLOB/TEXT column 'letter' used in key specification without a key length I googled this error and it appears that MySql has issues when you try to make a tinyblob column part of a primary key, which is what hibernate needs to do with the Thing_letterFrequencies table. So I would rather have letter mapped to a varchar(255) the way startLetter is. Unfortunately, I've been fussing with the MapKey annotation for a while now and haven't been able to make this work. I've also tried @MapKeyManyToMany(targetEntity=Product.class) without success. Can anyone tell me what are the correct annotations for my letterCounts map so that hibernate will treat the letterCounts map key the same way it does startLetter?

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• Merge the sub array if it has the save id value?

  - by sophie

  I have an array and I want to merge the sub array that have the same id value together: <?php $a = Array( Array ( "id" => 1, "id_categorie" => 1, "nb" => 18 ), Array ( "id" => 1, "id_categorie" => 8, "nb" => 14 ), Array ( "id" => 2, "id_categorie" => 10, "nb" => 15 ) ); $result = array(); foreach ($a as $k=>$v){ $result[$v['id']] =$v; } echo '<pre>'; print_r($result); echo '</pre>'; ?> I GOT: Array ( [1] => Array ( [id] => 1 [id_categorie] => 8 [nb] => 14 ) [2] => Array ( [id] => 2 [id_categorie] => 10 [nb] => 15 ) ) BUT WHAT I WANT IS : Array ( [1] => Array ( Array ( "id_categorie" => 1, "nb" => 18 ), Array ( "id_categorie" => 8, "nb" => 14 ) ) [2] => Array ( [id_categorie] => 10 [nb] => 15 ) ) Anyone could tell me how to do this? thanks

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• Best way to get a single value from a DataTable?

  - by PiersMyers

  I have a number of static classes that contain tables like this: using System; using System.Data; using System.Globalization; public static class TableFoo { private static readonly DataTable ItemTable; static TableFoo() { ItemTable = new DataTable("TableFoo") { Locale = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture }; ItemTable.Columns.Add("Id", typeof(int)); ItemTable.Columns["Id"].Unique = true; ItemTable.Columns.Add("Description", typeof(string)); ItemTable.Columns.Add("Data1", typeof(int)); ItemTable.Columns.Add("Data2", typeof(double)); ItemTable.Rows.Add(0, "Item 1", 1, 1.0); ItemTable.Rows.Add(1, "Item 2", 1, 1.0); ItemTable.Rows.Add(2, "Item 3", 2, 0.75); ItemTable.Rows.Add(3, "Item 4", 4, 0.25); ItemTable.Rows.Add(4, "Item 5", 1, 1.0); } public static DataTable GetItemTable() { return ItemTable; } public static int Data1(int id) { DataRow[] dr = ItemTable.Select("Id = " + id); if (dr.Length == 0) { throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException("id", "Out of range."); } return (int)dr[0]["Data1"]; } public static double Data2(int id) { DataRow[] dr = ItemTable.Select("Id = " + id); if (dr.Length == 0) { throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException("id", "Out of range."); } return (double)dr[0]["Data2"]; } } Is there a better way of writing the Data1 or Data2 methods that return a single value from a single row that matches the given id?

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• Memory leak when changing Text field of a Scintilla object.

  - by PlaZmaZ

  I have a relatively large program that I'm optimizing for ASCII input files around 10-80mB in size. The program reads every line of the file into a stringbuilder and then sets the Text field of the ScintillNET object to the stringbuilder. The stringbuilder is then set to null. private void ReloadFile(string sFile) { txt_log.ResetText(); try { StringBuilder sLine = new StringBuilder(""); using (StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(sFile)) { while (true) { string temp = sr.ReadLine(); if (temp == null) break; sLine.AppendLine(temp); } sr.Close(); } txt_log.Text = sLine.ToString(); sLine = null; } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(this, "An error occurred opening this file.\n\n" + ex.Message, "File Open Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); } GC.Collect(); } The program has an option to reload or open a file. This is irrelevant, as any call to txt_log.Text seems to not get rid of the previous memory used for the .Text field. Commenting out the txt_log.Text line gives proper memory behavior. The GC.Collect() line seems pointless, and I have tried both with and without it. Is there something I'm missing here? I HIGHLY doubt it's a problem with the ScintillaNET component itself--rather something in this code.

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• Why am I getting "Message sent to deallocated object" in Objective-C?

  - by Dave C

  I have several buttons on my app that are being created dynamically. They are all pointed at the button click event when pressed. When the button pressed method is called, the sender's tag (int value) is parsed into the controller's house ID. It works with one of the buttons — the first one created, to be specific — but the others throw the following error: -[CFNumber intValue]: message sent to deallocated instance 0xc4bb0ff0 I am not releasing these buttons anywhere in my code. I haven't set them to autorelease or anything like that. I'm just wondering why they are doing this on the click. The button click event: - (IBAction) ButtonClick: (id) sender { HouseholdViewController *controller = [[HouseholdViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"HouseholdViewController" bundle:nil]; controller.delegate = self; controller.HouseID = [(NSInteger)[(UIButton *)sender tag] intValue]; //this line throws an error controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; } Where I am creating the buttons: UIButton *button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; button.frame = CGRectMake(MyLongInScreenCoords, MyLatInScreenCoords, 50, 50); UIImage *buttonImageNormal = [UIImage imageNamed:@"blue_pin.png"]; UIImage *strechableButtonImageNormal = [buttonImageNormal stretchableImageWithLeftCapWidth:50 topCapHeight:50]; [button setBackgroundImage:strechableButtonImageNormal forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [self.view addSubview:button]; button.tag = [NSNumber numberWithInt:[[words objectAtIndex: i] intValue]]; ButtonPoints[CurrentHouseCount][0] = button; ButtonPoints[CurrentHouseCount][1] = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(MyActualLat, MyActualLong)]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(ButtonClick:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; CurrentHouseCount++;

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• How can I print the argument value that caused Exception in Java?

  - by Sanoj

  I am writing a parser for csv-files, and sometimes I get NumberFormatException. Is there an easy way to print the argument value that caused the exception? For the moment do I have many try-catch blocks that look like this: String ean; String price; try { builder.ean(Long.parseLong(ean)); } catch (NumberFormatException e) { System.out.println("EAN: " + ean); e.printStackTrace(); } try { builder.price(new BigDecimal(price)); } catch (NumberFormatException e) { System.out.println("Price: " + price); e.printStackTrace(); } I would like to be able to write something like: try { builder.ean(Long.parseLong(ean)); } catch (NumberFormatException e) { e.printMethod(); // Long.parseLong() e.printArgument(); // should print the string ean "99013241.23" e.printStackTrace(); } Is there any way that I at least can improve my code? And do this kind of printing/logging more programmatically?

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• How can I SELECT rows with MAX(Column value), DISTINCT by another column in SQL?

  - by Kaptah

  My table is: id home datetime player resource ---|-----|------------|--------|--------- 1 | 10 | 04/03/2009 | john | 399 2 | 11 | 04/03/2009 | juliet | 244 5 | 12 | 04/03/2009 | borat | 555 3 | 10 | 03/03/2009 | john | 300 4 | 11 | 03/03/2009 | juliet | 200 6 | 12 | 03/03/2009 | borat | 500 7 | 13 | 24/12/2008 | borat | 600 8 | 13 | 01/01/2009 | borat | 700 I need to select each distinct "home" holding the maximum value of "datetime". Result would be: id home datetime player resource ---|-----|------------|--------|--------- 1 | 10 | 04/03/2009 | john | 399 2 | 11 | 04/03/2009 | juliet | 244 5 | 12 | 04/03/2009 | borat | 555 7 | 13 | 24/12/2008 | borat | 600 8 | 13 | 01/01/2009 | borat | 700 I have tried: // 1 ..by the MySQL manual: SELECT DISTINCT home, id, datetime as dt, player, resource FROM topten t1 WHERE datetime = (SELECT MAX(t2.datetime) FROM topten t2 GROUP BY home ) GROUP BY daytime ORDER BY daytime DESC Doesn't work. Result-set has 130 rows although database holds 187. Result includes some dublicates of 'home'. // 2 ..join SELECT s1.id, s1.home, s1.datetime, s1.player, s1.resource FROM topten s1 JOIN (SELECT id, MAX(datetime) AS dt FROM topten GROUP BY id) AS s2 ON s1.id = s2.id ORDER BY daytime Nope. Gives all the records. // 3 ..something exotic: With various results.

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