Search Results

Search found 12376 results on 496 pages for 'active pattern'.

Page 427/496 | < Previous Page | 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430 431 432 433 434  | Next Page >

• gdb: Cannot find new threads: generic error

  - by Alexander Gladysh

  When I run GDB against a program which loads a .so which is linked to pthreads, GDB reports error "Cannot find new threads: generic error". I probably miss something in my Ubuntu configuration (as it was installed from minimal install). Any clues? $ gdb --args lua -lluarocks.require GNU gdb (GDB) 7.0-ubuntu Copyright (C) 2009 Free Software Foundation, Inc. License GPLv3+: GNU GPL version 3 or later This is free software: you are free to change and redistribute it. There is NO WARRANTY, to the extent permitted by law. Type "show copying" and "show warranty" for details. This GDB was configured as "x86_64-linux-gnu". For bug reporting instructions, please see: <http://www.gnu.org/software/gdb/bugs/>... Reading symbols from /usr/bin/lua...(no debugging symbols found)...done. (gdb) run Starting program: /usr/bin/lua -lluarocks.require Lua 5.1.4 Copyright (C) 1994-2008 Lua.org, PUC-Rio require 'ev' [Thread debugging using libthread_db enabled] Cannot find new threads: generic error (gdb) q A debugging session is active. Inferior 1 [process 4986] will be killed. Quit anyway? (y or n) y This function gets called on require 'ev': http://github.com/brimworks/lua-ev/blob/master/lua_ev.c#L25-65 Additional information about my system: $ uname -a Linux localhost 2.6.31-20-generic #58-Ubuntu SMP Fri Mar 12 04:38:19 UTC 2010 x86_64 GNU/Linux $ lsb_release -a No LSB modules are available. Distributor ID: Ubuntu Description: Ubuntu 9.10 Release: 9.10 Codename: karmic

  Read the article

• Mac OS X Status Bar Application - Hiding it from Cmd/Alt menu?

  - by Moddy

  I'm trying to whip up a simple little Status Bar Application in Obj-C/Cocoa. So I have done it pragmatically - declaring an NSStatusItem, adding it to the NSStatusBar and then giving it a NSMenu object. A bit like this... NSStatusBar *bar = [NSStatusBar systemStatusBar]; theItem = [bar statusItemWithLength:NSVariableStatusItemLength]; [theItem retain]; [theItem setTitle: NSLocalizedString(@"Tablet",@"")]; [theItem setHighlightMode:YES]; [theItem setMenu:theMenu]; (Example taken from "Status Bar Programming Topics", Apple Documentation) Now ideally, I'd like this application to run and not be accessible from the CMD/ALT window changing "menu" (for lack of a better word), I've seen applications do it before and would like that really. The idea is I just want it to be accessible from every window, whilst not having its own NSMenu on the status bar, and whilst not being able to have it as the active application ( - so its not able to take over the whole Status Bar, and its not able to be seen through CMD/ALT) Additionally, I was wondering if the StatusBarItem supports the ability to drag-n-drop an item onto it? I'm not sure if thats a limitation of the NSStatusBar though. I've read up on deamons and agents, but that seems far too low level/over kill for such a simplistic app! Cheers in advance!

  Read the article

• css style remains after click

  - by rod

  Hi All, I have a simple test page with a single styled button. I'm using a:hover when you hover over the button. However, when you click the button the a:hover style remains until I click on something else. How would I fix this and why is this happening? Thanks, rod. <asp:Content ID="indexContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% using (Ajax.BeginForm(new AjaxOptions { })) { %> <div id="detailActions"> <a href="#">Delete User</a> </div> <% } %> </asp:Content> My CSS: #detailActions { margin-bottom: 7px; padding: 3px 0px 5px 0px; } #detailActions { padding: 1px 7px 1px 7px; margin: 0px 5px 0px 0px; border: solid 1px gray; background-color: #ADD8E6; cursor: pointer; width: auto !important; font-weight: bold; text-decoration: none; color: #003366; font-size: 1.2em; } #detailActions a:hover, #detailActions a:active, #detailActions a:focus { color: White; background-color: #00008B; }

  Read the article

• rails Rake and mysql ssh port forwarding.

  - by rube_noob

  Hello, I need to create a rake task to do some active record operations via a ssh tunnel. The rake task is run on a remote windows machine so I would like to keep things in ruby. This is my latest attempt. desc "Syncronizes the tablets DB with the Server" task(:sync => :environment) do require 'rubygems' require 'net/ssh' begin Thread.abort_on_exception = true tunnel_thread = Thread.new do Thread.current[:ready] = false hostname = 'host' username = 'tunneluser' Net::SSH.start(hostname, username) do|ssh| ssh.forward.local(3333, "mysqlhost.com", 3306) Thread.current[:ready] = true puts "ready thread" ssh.loop(0) { true } end end until tunnel_thread[:ready] == true do end puts "tunnel ready" Importer.sync rescue StandardError => e puts "The Database Sync Failed." end end The task seems to hang at "tunnel ready" and never attempts the sync. I have had success when running first a rake task to create the tunnel and then running the rake sync in a different terminal. I want to combine these however so that if there is an error with the tunnel it will not attempt the sync. This is my first time using ruby Threads and Net::SSH forwarding so I am not sure what is the issue here. Any Ideas!? Thanks

  Read the article

• [Delphi] How would you refactor this code?

  - by Al C

  This hypothetical example illustrates several problems I can't seem to get past, even though I keep trying!! ... Suppose the original code is a long event handler, coded in the UI, triggered when a user clicks a cell in a grid. Expressed as pseudocode it's: if Condition1=true then begin //loop through every cell in row, //if aCell/headerCellValue>1 then //color aCell red end else if Condition2=true then begin //do some other calculation adding cell and headerCell values, and //if some other product>2 then //color the whole row green end else show an error message I look at this and say "Ah, refactor to the strategy pattern! The code will be easier to understand, easier to debug, and easier to later extend!" I get that. And I can easily break the code into multiple procedures. The problem is ultimately scope related. Assume the pseudocode makes extensive use of grid properties, values displayed in cells, maybe even built-in grid methods. How do you move all that to another unit, without referencing the grid component in the UI--which would break all the "rules" about loose coupling that make OOP valuable? ... I'm really looking forward to responses. Thanks, as always -- Al C.

  Read the article

• Array of templated structs

  - by Jakub Mertlik

  I have structs templated by int derived from a Base struct. struct Base { int i; double d; }; template< int N > struct Derv : base { static const int mN = N; }; I need to make an array of Derv< N where N can vary for each struct in that array. I know C/C++ does not allow arrays of objects of different types, but is there a way around this? I was thinking of separating the type information somehow (hints like pointers to Base struct or usage of union spring to my mind, but with all of these I don't know how to store the type information of each array element for usage DURING COMPILE TIME). As you can see, the memory pattern of each Derv< N is the same. I need to access the type of each array element for template specialization later in my code. The general aim of this all is to have a compile-time dispatch mechanism without the need to do a runtime "type switch" somewhere in the code. Thank you.

  Read the article

• Wicket: How to implement an IDataProvider/LoadableDetachableModel for indexed lists

  - by cretzel

  What's the best way to implement an IDataProvider and a LoadableDetachable in Wicket for an indexed list? Suppose I have a Customer who has a list of Adresses. class Customer { List adresses; } Now I want to implement a data provider/ldm for the adresses of a customer. I suppose the usual way is an IDataProvider as an inner class which refers to the customer model of the component, like: class AdressDataProvider implements IDataProvider { public Iterator iterator() { Customer c = (Customer)Component.this.getModel(); // somehow get the customer model return c.getAdresses().iterator(); } public IModel model(Object o) { Adress a = (Adress) o; // Return an LDM which loads the adress by id. return new AdressLoadableDetachableModel(a.getId()); } } Question: How would I implement this, when the adress does not have an ID (e.g. it's a Hibernate Embeddable/CollectionOfElements) but can only be identified by its index in the customer.adresses list? How do I keep reference to the owning entity and the index? In fact, I know a solution, but I wonder if there's a common pattern to do this.

  Read the article

• Should a Trim method generally in the Data Access Layer or with in the Domain Layer?

  - by jpierson

  I'm dealing with a database that contains data with inconsistencies such as white leading and trailing white space. In general I see a lot of developers practice defensive coding by trimming almost all strings that come from the database that may have been entered by a user at some point. In my oppinoin it is better to do such formating before data is persisted so that it is done only once and then the data can be in a consistent and reliable state. Unfortunatley this is not the case however which leads me to the next best solution, using a Trim method. If I trim all data as part of my data access layer then I don't have to concern myself with defensive trimming within the business objects of my domain layer. If I instead put the trimming responsibility in my business objects, such as with set accessors of my C# properties, I should get the same net results however the trim will be operating on all values assigned to my business objects properties not just the ones that come from the inconsistent database. I guess as a somewhat philisophical question that may determine the answer I could ask "Should the domain later be responsible for defensive/coercive formatting of data?" Would it make sense to have a set accessor for a PhoneNumber property on a business object accept a unformatted or formatted string and then attempt to format it as required or should this responsibility be pushed to the presentation and data access layers leaving the domain layer more strict in the type of data that it will accept? I think this may be the more fundamental question. Update: Below are a few links that I thought I should share about the topic of data cleansing. Information service patterns, Part 3: Data cleansing pattern LINQ to SQL - Format a string before saving? How to trim values using Linq to Sql?

  Read the article

• IIS Restrict Access to Directory for table of users

  - by Dave

  I am trying to restrict access to files in a directory and it's sub directories based user rights. My user rights are stored in an MS SQL database in a custom format, however it is easy to query the list of users with rights to this directory. I need to know how to apply this to a web config on the server to authenticate against a query of a database table to determine if the username is authenticated and allowed to view the file. Of course if they are not they should be blocked / given a 404. I am using IIS and ASP.Net MVC3 with a form based security as opposed to the built in roles and responsibilities that was custom made for us and that works great. There are over 10k users tied to this non-Active Directory authentication so I am not planning to change my authentication type so please don't go there. It is not my decision on the choice of platform, or I would have gone with a LAMP server and been done with this. Edit 11-13-2012 @ 8:57a: In the web config can you put the result of an SQL query?

  Read the article

• Structuring input of data for localStorage

  - by WmasterJ

  It is nice when there isn't a DB to maintain and users to authenticate. My professor has asked me to convert a recent research project of his that uses Bespin and calculates errors made by users in a code editor as part of his research. The goal is to convert from MySQL to using HTML5 localStorage completely. Doesn't seem so hard to do, even though digging in his code might take some time. Question: I need to store files and state (last placement of cursor and active file). I have already done so by implementing the recommendations in another stackoverflow thread. But would like your input considering how to structure the content to use. My current solution Hashmap like solution with javascript objects: files = {}; // later, saving files[fileName] = data; And then storing in localStorage using some recommendations localStorage.setObject(files): Currently I'm also considering using some type of numeric id. So that names can be changed without any hassle renaming the key in the hashmap. What is your opinion on the way it is solved and would you do it any differently?

  Read the article

• WPF/MVVM - keep ViewModels in application component or separate?

  - by Anders Juul

  Hi all, I have a WPF application where I'm using the MVVM pattern. I get the VM activated for actions that require user input and thus need to activate views from the VM. I've started out separating the VMs into a separate component/assembly, partly because I see them as the unit testable part, partly because views should rely on VM, not the other way round. But when I then need to bring up a window, the window is not known by the VM. All introductions I find place the VM in the WPF/App component, thus eliminating the problem. This article recommends keeping them in separate layers : http://waf.codeplex.com/wikipage?title=Architecture%20-%20Get%20The%20Big%20Picture&referringTitle=Home As I see it, I have the following choices Move VMs to the WPF/App assembly to allow VMs to access the windows directly. Place interfaces of views in VM-assembly, implement views in WPF/App assembly and register the connection through IOC or alternative ways. File a 'request' from the VM into some mechanism/bus that routes the request (but which mechanism!? E.g something in Prism?!) What's the recommendation? Thanks for any comments, Anders, Denmark

  Read the article

• Avoiding a fork()/SIGCHLD race condition

  - by larry

  Please consider the following fork()/SIGCHLD pseudo-code. // main program excerpt for (;;) { if ( is_time_to_make_babies ) { pid = fork(); if (pid == -1) { /* fail */ } else if (pid == 0) { /* child stuff */ print "child started" exit } else { /* parent stuff */ print "parent forked new child ", pid children.add(pid); } } } // SIGCHLD handler sigchld_handler(signo) { while ( (pid = wait(status, WNOHANG)) > 0 ) { print "parent caught SIGCHLD from ", pid children.remove(pid); } } In the above example there's a race-condition. It's possible for "/* child stuff */" to finish before "/* parent stuff */" starts which can result in a child's pid being added to the list of children after it's exited, and never being removed. When the time comes for the app to close down, the parent will wait endlessly for the already-finished child to finish. One solution I can think of to counter this is to have two lists: started_children and finished_children. I'd add to started_children in the same place I'm adding to children now. But in the signal handler, instead of removing from children I'd add to finished_children. When the app closes down, the parent can simply wait until the difference between started_children and finished_children is zero. Another possible solution I can think of is using shared-memory, e.g. share the parent's list of children and let the children .add and .remove themselves? But I don't know too much about this. EDIT: Another possible solution, which was the first thing that came to mind, is to simply add a sleep(1) at the start of /* child stuff */ but that smells funny to me, which is why I left it out. I'm also not even sure it's a 100% fix. So, how would you correct this race-condition? And if there's a well-established recommended pattern for this, please let me know! Thanks.

  Read the article

• Entity Framework in layered architecture

  - by Kamyar

  I am using a layered architecture with the Entity Framework. Here's What I came up with till now (All the projects Except UI are class library): Entities: The POCO Entities. Completely persistence ignorant. No Reference to other projects. Generated by Microsoft's ADO.Net POCO Entity Generator. DAL: The EDMX (Entity Model) file with the context class. (t4 generated). References: Entities BLL: Business Logic Layer. Will implement repository pattern on this layer. References: Entities, DAL. This is where the objectcontext gets populated: var ctx=new DAL.MyDBEntities(); UI: The presentation layer: ASP.NET website. References: Entities, BLL + a connection string entry to entities in the config file (question #2). Now my three questions: Is my layer discintion approach correct? In my UI, I access BLL as follows: var customerRep = new BLL.CustomerRepository(); var Customer = customerRep.GetByID(myCustomerID); The problem is that I have to define the entities connection string in my UI's web.config/app.config otherwise I get a runtime exception. IS defining the entities connectionstring in UI spoils the layers' distinction? Or is it accesptible in a muli layered architecture. Should I take any additional steps to perform chage tracking, lazy loading, etc (by etc I mean the features that Entity Framework covers in a conventional, 1 project, non POCO code generation)? Thanks and apologies for the lengthy question.

  Read the article

• Two questions on ensuring EndInvoke() gets called on a list of IAsyncResult objects

  - by RobV

  So this question is regarding the .Net IAsyncResult design pattern and the necessity of calling EndInvoke as covered in this question Background I have some code where I'm firing off potentially many asynchronous calls to a particular function and then waiting for all these calls to finish before using EndInvoke() to get back all the results. Question 1 I don't know whether any of the calls has encountered an exception until I call EndInvoke() and in the event that an exception occurs in one of the calls the entire method should fail and the exception gets wrapped into an API specific exception and thrown upwards. So my first question is what's the best way then to ensure that the remainder of the async calls get properly terminated? Is a finally block which calls EndInvoke() on the remainder of the unterminated calls (and ignores any further exceptions) the best way to do this? Question 2 Secondly when I first fire off all my asyc calls I then call WaitHandle.WaitAll() on the array of WaitHandle instances that I've got from my IAsyncResult instances. The method which is firing all these async calls has a timeout to adhere to so I provide this to the WaitAll() method. Then I test whether all the calls have completed, if not then the timeout must have been reached so the method should also fail and throw another API specific exception. So my second question is what should I do in this case? I need to call EndInvoke() to terminate all these async calls before I throw the error but at the same time I don't want the code to get stuck since EndInvoke() is blocking. In theory at least if the WaitAll() call times out then all the async calls should themselves have timed out and thrown exceptions (thus completing the call) since they are also governed by a timeout but this timeout is potentially different from the main timeout

  Read the article

• cakephp phone number validation

  - by hellosheikh

  i am new to cakephp 2.x so i dont know how to do this .. i want to login the user from his email address and phone number..what my intention is if the number in database is this "12345" and the user is trying to login through this number "+12345" he can be login into the system.. i have written a code but i dont know how can i use this or to adjust my code within the auth component as the auth component is autometically logging the user .. here is my controller public function beforeFilter() { parent::beforeFilter(); $this->Auth->authenticate = array( 'Authenticate.Cookie' => array( 'fields' => array( 'username' => 'email', 'password' => 'password' ), 'userModel' => 'User', 'scope' => array('User.active' => 1) ), 'Authenticate.MultiColumn' => array( 'fields' => array( 'username' => 'email', 'password' => 'password' ), 'columns' => array('email', 'mobileNo'), 'userModel' => 'User', ) ); } public function login() { if ($this->Auth->login() || $this->Auth->loggedIn()) { $this->redirect('/users/dashboard'); }else{ $this->layout='logindefault'; $this->set('title_for_layout', 'Account Login'); /*$this->Auth->logout(); $cookie = $this->Cookie->read('Auth.User'); */ if ($this->request->is('post')) { if ($this->Auth->login() || $this->Auth->loggedIn()) { if ($this->Session->check('Auth.User')){ $this->_setCookie($this->Auth->user('idUser')); $this->redirect('/users/dashboard'); } }else { $this->Session->setFlash('Incorrect Email/Password Combination'); } }} } here is the code which i am trying to add .. $mobileNo='+123456789'; if (strpos($mobileNo,'+') !== false) { $mobileNo=str_replace("+", "",$mobileNo); } ?

  Read the article

• JDBC transaction dead-lock solution required?

  - by user49767

  It's a scenario described my friend and challenged to find solution. He is using Oracle database and JDBC connection with read committed as transaction isolation level. In one of the transaction, he updates a record and executes selects statement and commits the transaction. when everything happening within single thread, things are fine. But when multiple requests are handled, dead-lock happens. Thread-A updates a record. Thread B updates another record. Thread-A issues select statement and waits for Thread-B's transaction to complete the commit operation. Thread-B issues select statement and waits for Thread-A's transaction to complete the commit operation. Now above causes dead-lock. Since they use command pattern, the base framework allows to issue commit only once (at the end of all the db operation), so they are unable to issue commit immediately after select statement. My argument was Thread-A supposed to select all the records which are committed and hence should not be issue. But he said that Thread-A will surely wait till Thread-B commits the record. is that true? What are all the ways, to avoid the above issue? is it possible to change isolation-level? (without changing underlying java framework) Little information about base framework, it is something similar to Struts action, their each and every request handled by one action, transaction begins before execution and commits after execution.

  Read the article

• PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer vs Filters -- Spring Beans

  - by John

  Hi there. I've got a question regarding the difference between PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer (org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer) and normal filters defined in my pom.xml. I've been looking at examples, and it seems that even though filters are defined and marked to be active by default in the pom.xml they still make use of PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer in Spring's applicationContext.xml. This means that the pom.xml has a reference to a filter-LOCAL.properties while applicationContext.xml has a reference to application.properties and they both contain the same settings. Why is that? Is that how it is supposed to be done? I'm able to run the goal mvn jetty:run without the application.properties present, but if I add settings to the application.properties that differ from the filter-LOCAL.properties they don't seem to override. Here's an example of what I mean: pom.xml <profiles <profile <idLOCAL <activation <activeByDefaulttrue </activation <properties <envLOCAL </properties </profile </profiles applicationContext.xml <bean id="propertyConfigurer" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer" <property name="locations" <list <valueclasspath:application.properties </list </property <property name="ignoreResourceNotFound" value="true"/ </bean <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close" <property name="driverClassName" value="${jdbc.driver}"/ <property name="url" value="${jdbc.url}"/ <property name="username" value="${jdbc.username}"/ <property name="password" value="${jdbc.password}"/ </bean an example of the content of application.properties and filters-LOCAL.properties jdbc.driver=org.postgresql.Driver jdbc.url=jdbc:postgresql://localhost/shoutbox_dev jdbc.username=tester jdbc.password=tester Can I remove the propertyConfigurer from the applicationContext, create a PROD filter and disregard the application.properties file, or will that give me issues when deploying to the production server?

  Read the article

• Magento config XML for adding a controller action to a core admin controller

  - by N. B.

  I'm trying to add a custom action to a core controller by extending it in a local module. Below I have the class definition which resides in magento1_3_2_2/app/code/local/MyCompany/MyModule/controllers/Catalog/ProductController.php class MyCompany_MyModule_Catalog_ProductController extends Mage_Adminhtml_Catalog_ProductController { public function massAttributeSetAction(){ ... } } Here is my config file at magento1_3_2_2/app/code/local/MyCompany/MyModule/etc/config.xml: ... <global> <rewrite> <mycompany_mymodule_catalog_product> <from><![CDATA[#^/catalog_product/massAttributeSet/#]]></from> <to>/mymodule/catalog_product/massAttributeSet/</to> </mycompany_mymodule_catalog_product> </rewrite> <admin> <routers> <MyCompany_MyModule> <use>admin</use> <args> <module>MyCompany_MyModule</module> <frontName>MyModule</frontName> </args> </MyCompany_MyModule> </routers> </admin> </global> ... However, https://example.com/index.php/admin/catalog_product/massAttributeSet/ simply yields a admin 404 page. I know that the module is active - other code is executing fine. I feel it's simply a problem with my xml syntax. Am I going about this the write way? I'm hesitant because I'm not actually rewriting a controller method... I'm adding one entirely. However it does make sense in that, the original admin url won't respond to that action name and it will need to be redirected. I'm using Magento 1.3.2.2 Thanks for any guidance.

  Read the article

• What are the common compliance standards for software products?

  - by Jay

  This is a very generic question about software products. I would like to know what compliance standards are applicable to any software product. I know that question gives away nothing. So, here is an example to what I am referring to. CiSecurity Security Certification/Compliance lists out products ceritified by them to be compliant to the standards published at their website, i.e, cisecurity.org. Compliance could be as simple as answering a questionnaire for your product and approved by a thirdparty like cisecurity or it could apply to your whole organization, for instance, PCI-DSS compliance. I would be very interested in knowing the standards that products you know/designed/created, comply to. To give you the context behind this question: I am the developer of a data-masking tool. The said tool helps mask onscreen html text in a banking web application using filters. So, for instance, if the bank application lists out user information with ssn, my product when integrated with the banking product, automatically identifies ssn pattern and masks it into a pre-defined format.So, I have my product marketing team wanting more buzz words like compliance to be able to sell it to more banking clients. Hence, understanding "compliances that apply to products" is a key research item for me at this point. By which I meant, security compliances. Appreciate all your help and suggestions.

  Read the article

• Decoding the IE9 user agent

  - by Portman

  I installed IE9 in a Windows 7 virtual machine, and was surprised to see this user agent: Mozilla/5.0 (compatible; MSIE 9.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/5.0; BOIE9;ENUSMSNIP) In particular, the last two keys BOIE9 and ENUSMSNIP look very spammy. I'm used to seeing toolbars and add-ins register themselves at the end of the user agent like that, but this is on a virgin install of Windows 7 with no other software. They're defined in the registry here: HKCU\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Internet Settings\5.0\User Agent\PostPlatform That key has a value of IEAK, which is apparently the Internet Explorer Administrators Kit which according to Microsoft sends a custom user agent string. But why? I'm guessing that BOIE9 is stands for "Bing on IE9". It's the only active Add-On: As for ENUSMSNIP, I'm at a loss. My guesses are: ENUS = Locale, which for me is EN-US ("US English") MS = Microsoft NIP = ??? I tried changing my locale to EN-GB, but the user agent didn't update nor did the registry. So it appears it's only at the time of install that it matters (if I'm even right about ENUS). Does anyone know what these two user agent keys represent? Or, care to share what your IE9 user agent is, and maybe we can piece it together ourselves?

  Read the article

• How should we setup up complex situations for tests?

  - by ShaneC

  I'm currently working on what I would call integration tests. I want to verify that if a WCF service is called it will do what I expect. Let's take a very simple scenario. Assume we have a contract object that we can put on hold or take off hold. Now writing the put on hold test is quite simple. You create a contract instance and execute the code that puts it on code. The question I have comes when we want to test the taking off hold service call. The problem is that putting a contract on hold can be actually quite complicated leading to various objects all be modified. So usually I would use the Builder pattern and do something like this.. var onHoldContract = new ContractBuilder().PutOnHold().Build(); The problem I have with this is now I have to pretty much replicate a large part of my put on hold service. Now when I change what putting something on hold means I have two places I have to modify. The other option that immediately jumps out at me is to just use the put on hold service as part of my test setup but now I'm coupling my test to the success of another piece of code which is something I don't like to do since it can lead to failures in one spot breaking unrelated tests elsewhere (if put on hold failed for example). Any other options I'm missing out here? or opinions on which method is preferable and why?

  Read the article

• Why is there a time lag when trying to change the text on a button in IE using JQuery?

  - by Deane

  I have some Ajax that runs on a button click. Sometimes it takes a few seconds to return, so I wanted a visual clue to the user that the browser was doing something. So, I have this: $('#SubmitButton').attr("value", "Working..."); $('#SubmitButton').attr("disabled", true); //Synchronous Ajax call goes here $('#SubmitButton').attr("value", "Submit"); $('#SubmitButton').attr("disabled", false); As you can see, it changes the text on the button, and disables it. When the Ajax call comes back (it's synchronous, remember), the button changes back. In Firefox, this works great. In IE, it's...odd. It doesn't run the code in order. It doesn't change the text of the button and launches right into the Ajax call. The browser blocks with the Submit active and saying "Submit." Right after the Ajax comes back, the button quickly flashes "Working..." then back to Submit." So, for some reason, IE isn't changing the text of the button until after the Ajax call, even though the code for it is before the Ajax call. It's acting like this: //Synchronous Ajax call goes here $('#SubmitButton').attr("value", "Working..."); $('#SubmitButton').attr("disabled", true); $('#SubmitButton').attr("value", "Submit"); $('#SubmitButton').attr("disabled", false); Again, this works perfectly in Firefox. But in IE, there's some kind of...lag?

  Read the article

• How can I change the visibility of elements inside a DataTemplate when a row is selected in a Silver

  - by miketrash

  I'm using the MVVM pattern. I've bound my items and I want to only show the edit button when a row is selected in the datagrid. It appears to be possible with triggers in WPF but we don't have triggers in Silverlight. I tried a TemplatedParent binding but I'm not sure what the TemplatedParent is in this case. We don't have RelativeSource ancestor in Silverlight either. At this point I'm going to look at a solution using the code behind... <data:DataGrid.Columns> <data:DataGridTemplateColumn IsReadOnly="True" Header="Name" Width="300"> <data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid> <TextBlock x:Name="textBlock" Text="{Binding Name, Mode=OneWay}" VerticalAlignment="Center" Margin="4,4,0,4"/> <Button Margin="1,1,4,1" HorizontalAlignment="Right" VerticalAlignment="Center" Padding="7,4" Content="Edit" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn> </data:DataGrid.Columns>

  Read the article

• Skipping the BufferedReader readLine() method in java

  - by DDP

  Is there a easy way to skip the readLine() method in java if it takes longer than, say, 2 seconds? Here's the context in which I'm asking this question: public void run() { boolean looping = true; while(looping) { for(int x = 0; x<clientList.size(); x++) { try { Comm s = clientList.get(x); String str = s.recieve(); // code that does something based on the string in the line above } // other stuff like catch methods } } } Comm is a class I wrote, and the receive method, which contains a BufferedReader called "in", is this: public String recieve() { try { if(active) return in.readLine(); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println("Comm Error 2: "+e); } return ""; } I've noticed that the program stops and waits for the input stream to have something to read before continuing. Which is bad, because I need the program to keep looping (as it loops, it goes to all the other clients and asks for input). Is there a way to skip the readLine() process if there's nothing to read? I'm also pretty sure that I'm not explaining this well, so please ask me questions if I'm being confusing.

  Read the article

• How do I convert an AMD module from a singleton to an instance?

  - by Jamie Ide

  I'm trying to convert a working Durandal view model module from a singleton to an instance. The original working version followed this pattern: define(['knockout'], function(ko) { var vm = { activate: activate, companyId: null; company: ko.observable({}) }; return vm; function activate(companyId) { vm.companyId = companyId; //get company data then vm.company(data); } } The new version exports a function so that I get a new instance on every request... define(['knockout'], function(ko) { var vm = function() { activate = activate; companyId = null; company = ko.observable({}); }; return vm; function activate(companyId) { vm.companyId = companyId; //get company data then vm.company(data); } } The error I'm getting is "object function () [...function signature...] has no method company on the line vm.company(data);. What am I doing wrong? Why can I set the property but can't access the knockout observable? How should I refactor the original code so that I get a new instance on every request? My efforts to simplify the code for this question hid the actual problem. My real code was using Q promises and calling two methods with Q.All. Since Q is in the global namespace, it couldn't resolve my viewmodel after converting to a function. Passing the view model to the methods called by Q resolved the problem.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430 431 432 433 434  | Next Page >