Search Results

Search found 51910 results on 2077 pages for 'run level'.

Page 427/2077 | < Previous Page | 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430 431 432 433 434  | Next Page >

  • Dynamic Hierarchical Javascript Object Loop

    - by user1684586
    var treeData = {"name" : "A", "children" : [ {"name" : "B", "children": [ {"name" : "C", "children" :[]} ]} ]}; THE ARRAY BEFORE SHOULD BE EMPTY. THE ARRAY AFTER SHOULD BE POPULATED DEPENDING ON THE NUMBER OF NODES NEEDED THAT WILL BE DEFINED FROM A DYNAMIC VALUE THAT IS PASSED. I would like to build the hierarchy dynamically with each node created as a layer/level in the hierarchy having its own array of nodes. THIS SHOULD FORM A TREE STRUCTURE. This is hierarchy structure is described in the above code. This code has tree level simple for demonstrating the layout of the hierarchy of values. There should be a root node, and an undefined number of nodes and levels to make up the hierarchy size. Nothing should be fixed besides the root node. I do not need to read the hierarchy, I need to construct it. The array should start {"name" : "A", "children" : []} and every new node as levels would be created {"name" : "A", "children" : [HERE-{"name" : "A", "children" : []}]}. In the child array, going deeper and deeper. Basically the array should have no values before the call, except maybe the root node. After the function call, the array should comprise of the required nodes of a number that may vary with every call. Every child array will contain one or more node values. There should be a minimum of 2 node levels, including the root. It should initially be a Blank canvas, that is no predefined array values.

    Read the article

  • How much detail should be in a project plan or spec?

    - by DeanMc
    I have an issue that I feel many programmers can relate to... I have worked on many small scale projects. After my initial paper brain storm I tend to start coding. What I come up with is usually a rough working model of the actual application. I design in a disconnected fashion so I am talking about underlying code libraries, user interfaces are the last thing as the library usually dictates what is needed in the UI. As my projects get bigger I worry that so should my "spec" or design document. The above paragraph, from my investigations, is echoed all across the internet in one fashion or another. When a UI is concerned there is a bit more information but it is UI specific and does not relate to code libraries. What I am beginning to realise is that maybe code is code is code. It seems from my extensive research that there is no 1:1 mapping between a design document and the code. When I need to research a topic I dump information into OneNote and from there I prioritise features into versions and then into related chunks so that development runs in a fairly linear fashion, my tasks tend to look like so: Implement Binary File Reader Implement Binary File Writer Create Object to encapsulate Data for expression to the caller Now any programmer worth his salt is aware that between those three to do items could be a potential wall of code that could expand out to multiple files. I have tried to map the complete code process for each task but I simply don't think it can be done effectively. By the time one mangles pseudo code it is essentially code anyway so the time investment is negated. So my question is this: Am I right in assuming that the best documentation is the code itself. We are all in agreement that a high level overview is needed. How high should this be? Do you design to statement, class or concept level? What works for you?

    Read the article

  • SQL Server performance issue.

    - by Jit
    Hi Friends, I have been trying to analyze performance issue with SQL Server 2005. We have 30 jobs, one for each databases (30 databases, one per each client). The jobs run at early morning at an interval of 5 minutes. When I run the job individually for testing, for most of the databases it finishes in 7 to 9 minutes. But when these jobs run at early morning, I see few jobs taking 2 to 3 hours to finish and the same takes few minutes as mentioned above if ran independently. We dont have any other job scheduled during that time, other than these 30 jobs. If we restart the server then for 2 or so days all the jobs finishes in few minutes, but over the period of time (from 3rd day suddenly), few jobs start taking hours to finish. What could be the possible reason of performance degradation over the period of time? I verified all the SPs and we uses temp tables and I made sure none of the temp table is left without dropping at the end of SP. Let me know what are the possible reasons for such behavior. Appreciate your time and help. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Create a Task list, with tasks without executing

    - by Ernesto Araya Eguren
    I have an async method private async Task DoSomething(CancellationToken token) a list of Tasks private List<Task> workers = new List<Task>(); and I have to create N threads that runs that method public void CreateThreads(int n) { tokenSource = new CancellationTokenSource(); token = tokenSource.Token; for (int i = 0; i < n; i++) { workers.Add(DoSomething(token)); } } but the problem is that those have to run at a given time public async Task StartAllWorkers() { if (0 < workers.Count) { try { while (0 < workers.Count) { Task finishedWorker = await Task.WhenAny(workers.ToArray()); workers.Remove(finishedWorker); finishedWorker.Dispose(); } if (workers.Count == 0) { tokenSource = null; } } catch (OperationCanceledException) { throw; } } } but actually they run when i call the CreateThreads Method (before the StartAllWorkers). I searched for keywords and problems like mine but couldn't find anything about stopping the task from running. I've tried a lot of different aproaches but anything that could solve my problem entirely. For example, moving the code from DoSomething into a workers.Add(new Task(async () => { }, token)); would run the StartAllWorkers(), but the threads will never actually start. There is another method for calling the tokenSource.Cancel().

    Read the article

  • Return unordered list from hierarchical sql data

    - by Milan
    I have table with pageId, parentPageId, title columns. Is there a way to return unordered nested list using asp.net, cte, stored procedure, UDF... anything? Table looks like this: PageID ParentId Title 1 null Home 2 null Products 3 null Services 4 2 Category 1 5 2 Category 2 6 5 Subcategory 1 7 5 SubCategory 2 8 6 Third Level Category 1 ... Result should look like this: Home Products Category 1 SubCategory 1 Third Level Category 1 SubCategory 2 Category 2 Services Ideally, list should contain <a> tags as well, but I hope I can add it myself if I find a way to create <ul> list. EDIT 1: I thought that already there is a solution for this, but it seems that there isn't. I wanted to keep it simple as possible and to escape using ASP.NET menu at any cost, because it uses tables by default. Then I have to use CSS Adapters etc. Even if I decide to go down the "ASP.NET menu" route I was able to find only this approach: http://aspalliance.com/822 which uses DataAdapter and DataSet :( Any more modern or efficient way?

    Read the article

  • The uncatchable exception, pt 2

    - by chaiguy
    Ok I've done some testing and I've reduced the problem to something very simple: i. Create a method in a new class that throws an exception: public class Class1 { public void CallMe() { string blah = null; blah.ToLower(); } } ii. Create a MethodInfo that points to this method somewhere else: Type class1 = typeof( Class1 ); Class1 obj = new Class1(); MethodInfo method = class1.GetMethod( "CallMe" ); iii. Wrap a call to Invoke() in a try/catch block: try { method.Invoke( obj, null ); // exception is not being caught! } catch { } iv. Run the program without the debugger (works fine). v. Now run the program with the debugger. The debugger will halt the program when the exception occurs, even though it's wrapped in a catch handler that tries to ignore it. (Even if you put a breakpoint in the catch block it will halt before it reaches it!) In fact, the exception is happening when you run it without the debugger too. In a simple test project it's getting ignored at some other level, but if your app has any kind of global exception handling, it will get triggered there as well. This is causing me a real headache because it keeps triggering my app's crash-handler, not to mention the pain it is to attempt to debug.

    Read the article

  • After interruption, delayed audio route change notifications when recording

    - by Frank Shearar
    My iPhone application requires that I know when a user has/has not plugged in her headphones. That's easy. AudioSessionAddPropertyListener with a callback listening to kAudioSessionProperty_AudioRouteChange. I write logs with NSLog as things happen. User plugs the headphones in? Get a notification, and a line in the gdb console. User unplugs the headphones? Ditto. At the same time I'm sensing the noise level of the environment by starting a recording audio queue. This, too, works great: I can get the mic noise level and listen for audio route changes just fine. What I find is that after an interruption, and I've reactivated the audio session and restored the audio category to kAudioSessionCategory_RecordAudio, the audio route notifications go a bit haywire. When I plug in the headphones, I see no notification. When I unplug the headphones I see BOTH the "plugged in" notification AND the "unplugged" notification, in rapid succession. It's like the "plugged in" notification's delayed and, when the "unplugged" notification arrives, the queue of pending notifications is flushed. What am I doing wrong? How do I correctly restore the audio session to get timeous notifications? EDIT: iPhone OS 3.1.2, running on an iPhone 3G. I'm running a program compiled with the 3.0 SDK (from within XCode 3.1.2).

    Read the article

  • [JAX-B] How can I ignore a superclass?

    - by MrSpandex
    I'm trying to write a web service for the java.util.logging api. So I wrote a class MyLogRecord that inherits from LogRecord. I annotated this class with JAX-B annotations, including @XmlAccessorType(XmlAccessType.NONE) so it would ignore non-annotated fields and properties. When I start up tomcat, I get errors that java.util.logging.Level and other java.util.logging classes do not have a default constructor, but none of my annotated methods make any reference to the Level class or any of the other java.util.logging classes. These are referenced by the parent class. My sub-class has everything it needs defined. How can I get JAX-B to ignore the parent class completely? Update: I found another post on this, which suggests modifying the parent class. This is obviously not possible because I am extending a java.util class. IS there any way to do this without modifying the superclass? Update2: I found a thread on java.net for a similar problem. That thread resulted in an enhancement request, which was marked as a duplicate of another issue, which resulted in the @XmlTransient annotation. The comments on these bug reports lead me to believe this is impossible in the current spec.

    Read the article

  • getting number from console!

    - by Johanna
    Hi this is my method that will be called if I want to get a number from user. but if the user also enter a right number just the "else" part will be run ,why? please help me tahnsk. public static int chooseTheTypeOfSorting() { System.out.println("Enter 0 for merge sorting OR enter 1 for bubble sorting"); int numberFromConsole = 0; try { InputStreamReader isr = new InputStreamReader(System.in); BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(isr); String s = br.readLine(); DecimalFormat df = new DecimalFormat(); Number n = df.parse(s); numberFromConsole = n.intValue(); } catch (ParseException ex) { Logger.getLogger(DoublyLinkedList.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } catch (IOException ex) { Logger.getLogger(DoublyLinkedList.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } return numberFromConsole; } and in my main method: public static void main(String[] args) { int i = 0; i = getRandomNumber(10, 10000); int p = chooseTheTypeOfSorting(); DoublyLinkedList list = new DoublyLinkedList(); for (int j = 0; j < i; j++) { list.add(j, getRandomNumber(10, 10000)); if (p == 0) { //do something.... } if (p == 1) { //do something..... } else { System.out.println("write the correct number "); chooseTheTypeOfSorting(); }

    Read the article

  • Variable reference problem when loading an object from a file in Java

    - by Snail
    I have a problem with the reference of a variable when loading a saved serialized object from a data file. All the variables referencing to the same object doesn't seem to update on the change. I've made a code snipped below that illustrates the problem. Tournament test1 = new Tournament(); Tournament test2 = test1; try { FileInputStream fis = new FileInputStream("test.out"); ObjectInputStream in = new ObjectInputStream(fis); test1 = (Tournament) in.readObject(); in.close(); } catch (IOException ex){ Logger.getLogger(Frame.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } catch (ClassNotFoundException ex){ Logger.getLogger(Frame.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } System.out.println("test1: " + test1); System.out.println("test2: " + test2); After this code is ran test1 and test2 doesn't reference to the same object anymore. To my knowledge they should do that since in the declaration of test2 makes it a reference to test1. When test1 is updated test2 should reflect the change and return the new object when called in the code. Am I missing something essential here or have I been misstaught about how the variable references in Java works?

    Read the article

  • SSIS Transaction with Sql Transaction

    - by Mike
    I started with a package to make sure Transactions are working correctly. The package level transaction is set to Required. I have two Execute Sql Task, one deletes rows from a table and one does 1/0, to throw the error. Both task are set to supported transaction level and Serializable IsolationLevel. That works. Now when I replace my two sql task to two separate procedure calls, the first one, ChargeInterest, runs successful but the second one, PaymentProcess, fails always saying. [Execute SQL Task] Error: Executing the query "Exec [proc_xx_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] ..." failed with the following error: "Uncommittable transaction is detected at the end of the batch. The transaction is rolled back.". Possible failure reasons: Problems with the query, "ResultSet" property not set correctly, parameters not set correctly, or connection not established correctly. PaymentProcess being the second stored procedure. Both procedures have there own BEGIN, COMMIT AND ROLLBACKS inside the SP. I believe that the transactions are being successfully handed in the Charge Interest because I can run the following without issues or the dreaded you started with 0 and now have 1 transaction. EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_ChargeInterest] 'NR', 'M', 186, 300 EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] 'NR', 186, 300 --OR GO BEGIN TRAN EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_ChargeInterest] 'NR', 'M', 186, 300 EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] 'NR', 186, 300 ROLLBACK TRAN Now I have noticed that DTC does get kicked off in both instances? Why I am not sure because it is using the same connection. In the live example I can see the transaction get started but disappears if I put a breakpoint on the PreExecute event of the second stored procedure. What is the correct way to mingle SP transactions with SSIS transactions?

    Read the article

  • activemessaging with stomp and activemq.prefetchSize=1

    - by Clint Miller
    I have a situation where I have a single activemq broker with 2 queues, Q1 and Q2. I have two ruby-based consumers using activemessaging. Let's call them C1 and C2. Both consumers subscribe to each queue. I'm setting activemq.prefetchSize=1 when subscribing to each queue. I'm also setting ack=client. Consider the following sequence of events: 1) A message that triggers a long-running job is published to queue Q1. Call this M1. 2) M1 is dispatched to consumer C1, kicking off a long operation. 3) Two messages that trigger short jobs are published to queue Q2. Call these M2 and M3. 4) M2 is dispatched to C2 which quickly runs the short job. 5) M3 is dispatched to C1, even though C1 is still running M1. It's able to dispatch to C1 because prefetchSize=1 is set on the queue subscription, not on the connection. So the fact that a Q1 message has already been dispatched doesn't stop one Q2 message from being dispatched. Since activemessaging consumers are single-threaded, the net result is that M3 sits and waits on C1 for a long time until C1 finishes processing M1. So, M3 is not processed for a long time, despite the fact that consumer C2 is sitting idle (since it quickly finishes with message M2). Essentially, whenever a long Q1 job is run and then a whole bunch of short Q2 jobs are created, exactly one of the short Q2 jobs gets stuck on a consumer waiting for the long Q1 job to finish. Is there a way to set prefetchSize at the connection level rather than at the subscription level? I really don't want any messages dispatched to C1 while it is processing M1. The other alternative is that I could create a consumer dedicated to processing Q1 and then have other consumers dedicated to processing Q2. But, I'd rather not do that since Q1 messages are infrequent--Q1's dedicated consumers would sit idle most of the day tying up memory.

    Read the article

  • java applet won't work

    - by scoobi_doobi
    hey guys, this is homework stuff, but the question is not much about coding. the task is to write a java applet to work on an m-grid server. i have the server running on apache. it has a few sample applets in .jar and .class form. the .class versions work; the .jar versions work on appletviewer, but they break if I submit them as a job to the server with this: load: class examples/pixelcount/PixelCount.class not found. java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: examples.pixelcount.PixelCount.class at sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Plugin2ClassLoader.loadCode(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Plugin2Manager.createApplet(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Plugin2Manager$AppletExecutionRunnable.run(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source) Caused by: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused: connect at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketConnect(Native Method) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.doConnect(Unknown Source) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(Unknown Source) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connect(Unknown Source) at java.net.SocksSocketImpl.connect(Unknown Source) at java.net.Socket.connect(Unknown Source) at sun.net.NetworkClient.doConnect(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.<init>(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.New(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.New(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getNewHttpClient(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.plainConnect(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.connect(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getInputStream(Unknown Source) at java.net.HttpURLConnection.getResponseCode(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ClassLoader.getBytes(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ClassLoader.access$000(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) ... 7 more Exception: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: examples.pixelcount.PixelCount.class I'm not really sure where exactly is the problem in here, given that they work on appletviewer. any help would be appreciated.. EDIT: don't know if I wrote it clearly. by ".class version" i refer to html file with this content: <applet height="300" width="450" code="examples/pixelcount/PixelCount.class"></applet> and ".jar" with this content: <applet height="300" width="450" archive="PixelCount.jar" code="examples.pixelcount.PixelCount.class"></applet>

    Read the article

  • UIImageView is resizing

    - by dawatson833
    I have an issue with uiimageviews resizing at run time. On one view I have more than a dozen uiimageviews contained within a uiscrollview. The images are assigned at design time. The uiimageview's are all the same size. The mode is set to Aspect Fill for all uiimageviews. At run time the images appear correctly in the view. On a second view I have only 9 uiimageviews. These uiimageviews will display up to nine of the images selected from the first view. There are three images across and three images down. The uiimageview at design time is the same size as on the first view. The uiimageview image is assigned an image that is loaded into an array. All the uiimageviews are sized the same and they also have the mode set to Aspect Fill. The images are assigned at run time using image1.image = xxx. Where xxx is an image stored in an array. However, on this second view, the images are not all the same size. The height of the image changes dynamically. The same image displayed in a different uiimageview on the view will be different sizes. It is the height of the uiimageview that changes. In some cases the image will fill the uiimageview differently. It is like the mode changes dynamically. I've tried using different modes and nothing changes. Any ideas on what is happening?

    Read the article

  • ViewController has wrong orientation after Landscape-only has been popped

    - by noroom
    In a navigation-based app, LandscapeViewController only supports landscape mode (all others support both modes). I also have a "loading screen" that advises the user to rotate the phone before continuing. This way I can make sure that when my landscape view loads, that it's in landscape mode. The problem comes when i rotate the phone to portrait mode while still showing LandscapeVC. I press the Back nagivation button to navigate up one level (to a VC that supports both landscape and portrait modes), but the upper level shows in landscape mode even though the phone is in portrait mode. I guess this is because when I left this view I was in portrait mode, I then rotated the phone while in another view, so this view has not received the notification. If I then proceed to rotate the phone to the other landscape mode (say the LandscapeVC was loaded on its right side, so I'd rotate the upper VC from portrait to the left landscape mode), it will update. My question is: how can I notify this upper view that the phone was rotated, so when the user goes up after putting the phone in portrait mode, the upper view shows correctly?

    Read the article

  • 32/64 bit problems with Eclipse CDT on Ubuntu

    - by waffleShirt
    I have just recently started running Linux on my PC and I am trying to start learning OpenGL. I am using the latest version of Eclipse CDT as my IDE, and my system is Ubuntu 10.10, 64 bit version. The problem I am having is that whenever I try to run a build from within the IDE I get the error message "Launch Failed. Binary Not Found." Ive done a lot of looking around on the internet but I still cant solve the problem. I know for a fact that the binary is built, it can be run from a terminal window. According to posts I have seen the problem is that Eclipse tries to run a 32 bit binary, but GCC 4.4.5 defaults to 64 bit binaries on a 64 bit system. Ive seen a lot of information about using the -m32 flag in makefiles, but then I still get the following output in Eclipse: make all g++ -o HelloWorld2 main.o /usr/bin/ld: i386 architecture of input file `main.o' is incompatible with i386:x86-64 output /usr/bin/ld: final link failed: Invalid operation collect2: ld returned 1 exit status make: *** [HelloWorld2] Error 1 What I would like to know is how to either get Eclipse to launch the 64 bit binaries, or have Eclipse correctly compile 32 bit binaries.

    Read the article

  • Magic function `bash ` not found

    - by inspectorG4dget
    I have a bunch of simulations that I want to run on a high-performance cluster, on which I should make reservations to get computing time. Since the reservations are bounded by time, I am developing an automation script that I can scp into the cluster and run. This script will then download the relevant simulation files, run them, and upload the results. Part of this automation script is in bash (cp, scp, etc) and the rest is in python. In order to develop this automation, I am using an IPython notebook. So far, I've coded all the python automation stuff in my IPython notebook and am trying to write the bash part of it now. However, it seems that the magic %%bash doesn't work in my IPython notebook. I get the following error when I have this code in my cell: Cell %%bash echo hi Error File "<ipython-input-22-62ec98e35224>", line 3 echo hi ^ SyntaxError: invalid syntax On a whim, I tried this: Cell %%bash print "hi" Error hi ERROR: Magic function `bash` not found. So I tried this with %%system, %%! and %%shell. But none of those work; they all give me the same error. Why is this happening? How can I fix this? Metadata: IPython 0.13.dev Python 2.7.1 Mac OS X Lion

    Read the article

  • Transitioning from Domain Authentication to SQL Server Authentication

    - by Albert Perrien
    Greetings all, I've run into a problem that has me stumped. I've put together a database in SQL Server Express, and I'm having a strange permissions problem. The database is on my development machine with a domain user: DOMAIN\albertp. My development database server is set for "SQL Server and Windows Authentication" mode. I can edit and query my database without any problems when I log in using Windows Authentication. However, when I log in to any user that uses SQL Server authentication (Including sa) I get this message when I run queries against my database. SELECT * FROM [Testing].[dbo].[AuditingReport] I get: Msg 18456, Level 14, State 1, Line 1 Login failed for user 'auditor'. I'm logged into the server from SQL Server Management Studio as 'auditor' and I don't see anything in the error log about the login failure. I've already run: Use Testing; Grant All to auditor; Go And I still get the same error. What permissions do I have to set for the database to be usable by others outside of my personal domain login? Or am I looking at the wrong problem? My ultimate goal is to have the database be accessible from a set of PHP pages, using a either a common login (hence 'auditor') or a login specific to a set of individual users.

    Read the article

  • Unit Testing a rails 2.3.5 plugin

    - by brad
    I'm writing a new plugin for a rails 2.3.5 app. I've included an app directory (which makes it an engine) so i can easily load some extra routes. Not sure if that affects anything. Anyway, in the test directory i have two files: test_helper.rb and my_plugin_test.rb These files were generated automatically using script/generate plugin my_plugin When I go to vendor/plugins/my_plugin directory and run rake test they don't seem to run. I get the following console output: (in /Users/me/Repos/my_app/source/trunk/vendor/plugins/my_plugin) /Users/me/.rvm/rubies/jruby-1.4.0/bin/jruby -I"lib:lib:test" "/Users/me/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake/rake_test_loader.rb" "test/my_plugin_test.rb" So it obviously sees my test file, but none of the tests inside get run, I just get back to my console prompt. What am I missing here? I figured the generated code would work out of the box Here are the two files test_helper.rb require 'rubygems' require 'active_support' require 'active_support/test_case' my_plugin_test.rb require 'test_helper' class MyPluginTest < ActiveSupport::TestCase # Replace this with your real tests. test "the truth" do assert true end test "Factories are supported" do assert_not_nil Factory end end File structure vendor - plugins - my_plugin - app - config - routes.rb - generators - my_plugin - some generator files.rb - lib - my_plugin.rb - my_plugin - my_plugin_lib_file.rb - rails - init.rb - Rakefile - tasks - my_plugin_tasks.rake - test - test_helper.rb - my_plugin_test.rb

    Read the article

  • Where do I put javaassist code?

    - by DutrowLLC
    I have an application running on google app engine. I'm using restlets and I have a couple of layers set up including the restlet layer, the model layer, the business layer, and the data layer. I'm attempting to use javaassist to modify some classes, but I'm unsure where to actually put the code. I tried to put the code in the static initialization block: public class Person { String firstName; String getFirstName(){return null;} static{ ClassPool pool = ClassPool.getDefault(); try { CtClass CtPerson = pool.get("Person"); CtMethod CtGetFirstName = CtPerson.getDeclaredMethod("GetFirstName"); CtGetFirstName.setBody("return firstName;"); CtPerson.toClass(); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } ...but that resulted in this error: javassist.CannotCompileException:.....attempted duplicate class definition...". I guess it makes sense that I can't edit the class file in the middle of its generation. I know the code works because I was able to run it correctly by simply putting it in a location that would run when I sent the program a command. (accessed a Restlet resource). The code ran fine if an instance of the class had not already been instantiated, however once I instantiated an instance of the affected class, the javaassist code failed. I assume I need to put this code somewhere that it will only run either: once after the program starts, directly before a class is instantiated for the first time, or even better, during compile time.

    Read the article

  • Maven: trying to get my submodule's poms to NOT inherit a plugin in the parent

    - by jobrahms
    My project has a parent pom and several submodule poms. I've put a plugin in the parent that is responsible for building our installer distributables (using install4j). It doesn't make sense to have this plugin run on the submodules, so I've put false in the plugin's config, as seen below. The problem is, when I run mvn clean install install4j:compile it cleans, compiles, and runs the install4j plugin on the parent, but then it tries to run it on the child modules and crashes. Here's the plugin config <plugin> <groupId>com.google.code.maven-install4j</groupId> <artifactId>maven-install4j-plugin</artifactId> <version>0.1.1</version> <inherited>false</inherited> <configuration> <executable>${devenv.install4jc}</executable> <configFile>${basedir}/newinstaller/ehd-demo.install4j</configFile> <releaseId>${project.version}</releaseId> <attach>false</attach> <skipOnMissingExecutable>true</skipOnMissingExecutable> </configuration> </plugin> Am I misunderstanding the purpose of inherited=false? What is the correct way to get this to work? I'm using maven 2.2.0.

    Read the article

  • svn+apache per directory access control: weird permissions issue (403 Forbidden error)

    - by gveda
    Hi, I had a perfectly working svn+apache install where I was using per directory access control to restrict access to various parts of the repository. In particular, no one had access to the top level in the repository [/]. People had access to folders like [/www] etc. I was specifying these permissions in a file (svn-access-file). I had to move to a new machine. So I installed subversion-1.6.3 and httpd-2.2.11 on it, and modified the conf file to mimic the conf file on the old machine (and I copied the svn-access-file and the svn-auth-file). Then I took an svn dump and did a load to put stuff back in the new repository. Now I can check stuff out, modify stuff, and commit. However, as soon as I try to do an 'svn up' on an already checked out copy of some sub-folder [/www/people], I get the following error: svn: Server sent unexpected return value (403 Forbidden) in response to OPTIONS request for 'https://[servername]/svn' It seems the problem is that it is trying to access the top level directory [/] even though really it should only be trying to access [/www]. If I temporarily give the user access to [/], it works. Can someone please tell me how to fix this? Everything worked on the old machine. Thanks! Gaurav

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to programatically check dependencies of an EXE?

    - by Mason Wheeler
    I've got a certain project that I build and distribute to users. I have two build configurations, Debug and Release. Debug, obviously, is for my use in debugging, but there's an additional wrinkle: the Debug configuration uses a special debugging memory manager, with a dependency on an external DLL. There's been a few times when I've accidentally built and distributed an installer package with the Debug configuration, and it's then failed to run once installed because the users don't have the special DLL. I'd like to be able to keep that from happening in the future. I know I can get the dependencies in a program by running Dependency Walker, but I'm looking for a way to do it programatically. Specifically, I have a way to run scripts while creating the installer, and I want something I can put in the installer script to check the program and see if it has a dependency on this DLL, and if so, cause the installer-creation process to fail with an error. I know how to create a simple CLI program that would take two filenames as parameters, and could run a DependsOn function and create output based on the result of it, but I don't know what to put in the DependsOn function. Does anyone know how I'd go about writing it?

    Read the article

  • Examples using Active Directory/LDAP groups for permissions \ roles in Rails App.

    - by Nick Gorbikoff
    Hello. I was wondering how other people implemented this scenario. I have an internal rails app ( inventory management, label printing, shipping,etc). I'm rewriting security on the system, cause the old way got to cumbersome to maintain ( users table, passwords, roles) - I used restful_authentication and roles. It was implemented about 3 years ago. I already implemented AuthLogic with ruby-ldap-net to authenticate users ( actually that was surprisingly easy, compared to how I struggled with other frameworks/languages before). Next step is roles. I already have groups defined in Active Directory - so I don't want to run a separate roles system in my rails app, I just want to reuse Active Directory groups - since that part of the system is already maintained for other purposes ( shared drives, backups, pc access, etc) So I was wondering if others had experience implementing permissions/roles in a rails app based on groups in Active Directory or LDAP. Also the roles requirements are pretty complex. Here is an example: For instance I have users that belong to the supervisors group in AD and to inventory dept, so I was that user to be able to run "advanced" tasks in invetory - adjust qty, run reports, however other "supervisors" from other departmanets, shouldn't be able to do this, also Top Management - should be able to use those reports (regardless weather they belong to the invetory or not), but not Middle Management, unless they are in inventory group. Admins of the system (Domain Admins) should have unrestricted access to the system , except for HR & Finances part unless they are in HR ( like you don't want all system admins (except for one authorized one) to see personal info of other employees). I looked at acl9, cancan, aegis. I was wondering if there are any advantaged/cons to using one versus the other for this particular use of system access based on AD. Suggest other systems if you had good experience. Thank you!!!

    Read the article

  • Most cost effective way to target multiple mobile platforms

    - by niidto
    Hi I have been given the tasks of speccing a mobile application, which will need to run on approx. 1000 devices. These devices already exist, and consist of iPhones, BlackBerrys, Androids, Windows Mobile and Netbooks. The application will have simple reporting capability, and a collection of forms. Anyway, the obvious solution would be to develop some browser based solution, although given the occasionally connected nature of the devices, there's a potential for data to get lost / not saved. So instead of creating a complex application for each platform, I was thinking we could build what is effectively a form generator, with basic offline storage capability (text files), designed to run on each device, and have the device generate a form, based on for example an XML file that it could request from a server somewhere, resulting in minimal specialist development costs, and the ability to run most of the logic from the server end, with the devices being dumb clients that render forms and upload the data when there is an available connection. Anyway, my question summarised is, how have you made the decision on supporting multiple devices for your application. Is this always an unavoidable problem, and you just have to make the call to support 1 or 2, or pay for developers to write code for each platform, or alternatively supply pre-installed devices to the company? Many thanks James

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430 431 432 433 434  | Next Page >