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  • Orientation issue while presenting Modal ViewController

    - by Jacky Boy
    Current scenario: Right now I am showing a UIViewController using a segue with the style Modal and presentation Sheet. This Modal gets its superview bounds change, in order to have the dimensions I want, like this: - (void)viewWillLayoutSubviews { [super viewWillLayoutSubviews]; self.view.superview.bounds = WHBoundsRect; } The only allowed orientations are UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeLeft and UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight. Since the Modal has some TextFields and the keyboard would be over the Modal itself, I am changing its center so it moves a bit to the top. The problem: What I am noticing right now, is that I am unable to work with the Y coordinate. In order for it move vertically (remember it's on landscape) I need to work with the X. The problem is that when it's UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeLeft I need to come with a negative X. And when it's UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight I need to come with a positive X. So it seems that the X/Y Coordinate System is "glued" to the top left corner while in Portrait and when an orientation occurs, it's still there: What I have done So I have something like this: UIInterfaceOrientation orientation = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] statusBarOrientation]; NSInteger newX = 0.0f; if (orientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeLeft) { // Logic for calculating the negative X. } else { // Logic for calculating the positive X. } It works exactly like I want, but it seems a very fragile implementation. Am I missing something? Is this the expected behaviour?

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  • Servlet Security question about j_security_check, j_username and j_password

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, I used jdbcRealm in my web application and it's working fine. I defined all constraints also in my web.xml. Like all pages of url pattern /Admin/* should be accessed by only admin. I have a login form with uses standard j_security_check, j_username and j_password. Now, when i type Admin/home.jsf it rightly redirects me login.jsf and there when i type the password i am redirected to home.jsf. This works alright but problem comes i directly go to login.jsf and then type password and username. This time it again redirects me to login.jsf. Is there any way through which i can specify which page to go when successful login is there? I need to specify different different pages for different roles. For Admin, it is /Admin/home.jsf for general users it is /General/home.jsf because login form is shared between different type of users. Where do i specify all these things? Secondly, i want to have a remember me checkbox at the end of login form. How do i do this? By default, it is submitted to j_security_check servlet and i have no control over its execution. Please help. This doesn't seem so hard but looks like i am missing something.

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  • Using ASP.NET session state with Silverlight (PRISM)

    - by Jon Andersen
    Hi, The scenario: I have a PRISM application developed in Silverlight (4), and I'm using a ASP.NET server side application to host several web-services (which, in turn, accesses WCF-services, but that's not really important here). The Silverlight application must be able to call the web services cross-domain (meaning that the web services isn't necessarily on the same server hosting the silverlight application). The Silverlight application consists of several modules, each accessing the ASP.NET web-services. I do not have much experience with Silverlight and PRISM, but as far as I can see, this is not a very unusual scenario... The problem: My challange is, that when 2 different modules access the web-services, I get 2 new sessions on the web-server. I would have thought that since both modules live on the same HTML-page (and then also in the same browser session), they would get the same session on the web-server...? I have tried to make the web-service Proxy-client globally available in the container (using Unity), by registering an instance (using Container.RegisterInstance), and then getting this instance whenever a module needs to make a web-service call (using Container.Resolve), but this doesn't seem to help. However, any calls made within the same module always gets the same session on the server. Can anyone see what I'm missing here...? Thanks! Jon

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  • NHibernate query against the key field of a dictionary (map)

    - by Carl Raymond
    I have an object model where a Calendar object has an IDictionary<MembershipUser, Perms> called UserPermissions, where MembershipUser is an object, and Perms is a simple enumeration. This is in the mapping file for Calendar as <map name="UserPermissions" table="CalendarUserPermissions" lazy="true" cascade="all"> <key column="CalendarID"/> <index-many-to-many class="MembershipUser" column="UserGUID" /> <element column="Permissions" type="CalendarPermission" not-null="true" /> </map> Now I want to execute a query to find all calendars for which a given user has some permission defined. The permission is irrelevant; I just want a list of the calendars where a given user is present as a key in the UserPermissions dictionary. I have the username property, not a MembershipUser object. How do I build that using QBC (or HQL)? Here's what I've tried: ISession session = SessionManager.CurrentSession; ICriteria calCrit = session.CreateCriteria<Calendar>(); ICriteria userCrit = calCrit.CreateCriteria("UserPermissions.indices"); userCrit.Add(Expression.Eq("Username", username)); return calCrit.List<Calendar>(); This constructed invalid SQL -- the WHERE clause contained WHERE membership1_.Username = @p0 as expected, but the FROM clause didn't include the MemberhipUsers table. Also, I really had to struggle to learn about the .indices notation. I found it by digging through the NHibernate source code, and saw that there's also .elements and some other dotted notations. Where's a reference to the allowed syntax of an association path? I feel like what's above is very close, and just missing something simple.

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  • Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

    - by Jason Evans
    I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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  • Multi-module Maven build

    - by Don
    Hi, My project has a fairly deep graph of Maven modules. The root POM has the following plugin configured <plugins> <plugin> <groupId>org.jvnet</groupId> <artifactId>animal-sniffer</artifactId> <version>1.2</version> <configuration> <signature> <groupId>org.jvnet.animal-sniffer</groupId> <artifactId>java1.4</artifactId> <version>1.0</version> </signature> </configuration> </plugin> </plugins> If I invoke this target from the command line in the root directory via: mvn animal-sniffer:check Then it works fine as long as the current module extends (either directly or indirectly) from the root POM. However there are many children (or grandchildren) of the root module, which do not inherit from that module's POM. In this case, the goal fails because it cannot find the necessary configuration [ERROR] BUILD ERROR [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] One or more required plugin parameters are invalid/missing for 'animal-sniffer:check' [0] Inside the definition for plugin 'animal-sniffer' specify the following: <configuration> ... <signature>VALUE</signature> </configuration>. When configuring this plugin in the root module, is there any way to exclude a list of sub-modules either by name, or by packaging type? Thanks, Donal

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  • Are Tuples a poor design decision in C#?

    - by Jason Webb
    With the addition of the Tuple class in .net 4, I have been trying to decide if using them in my design is a bad choice or not. The way I see it, a Tuple is a shortcut to writing a result class (I am sure there are other uses too). So this: public class ResultType { public string StringValue { get; set; } public int IntValue { get; set; } } public ResultType GetAClassedValue() { //..Do Some Stuff ResultType result = new ResultType { StringValue = "A String", IntValue = 2 }; return result; } Is equivalent to this: public Tuple<string, int> GetATupledValue() { //...Do Some stuff Tuple<string, int> result = new Tuple<string, int>("A String", 2); return result; } So setting aside the possibility that I am missing the point of Tuples, is the example with a Tuple a bad design choice? To me it seems like less clutter, but not as self documenting and clean. Meaning that with the type ResultType, it is very clear later on what each part of the class means but you have extra code to maintain. With the Tuple<string, int> you will need to look up and figure out what each Item represents, but you write and maintain less code. Any experience you have had with this choice would be greatly appreciated.

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  • getting service from wsdd via xpath not wroking

    - by subes
    Hi, I am trying to get the XPath "/deployment/service". Tested on this site: http://www.xmlme.com/XpathTool.aspx <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <deployment xmlns="http://xml.apache.org/axis/wsdd/" xmlns:java="http://xml.apache.org /axis/wsdd/providers/java"> <service name="kontowebservice" provider="java:RPC" style="rpc" use="literal"> <parameter name="wsdlTargetNamespace" value="http://strategies.spine"/> <parameter name="wsdlServiceElement" value="ExposerService"/> <parameter name="wsdlServicePort" value="kontowebservice"/> <parameter name="className" value="dmd4biz.container.webservice.konto.internal.KontoWebServiceImpl_WS"/> <parameter name="wsdlPortType" value="Exposer"/> <parameter name="typeMappingVersion" value="1.2"/> <operation xmlns:operNS="http://strategies.spine" xmlns:rtns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" name="expose" qname="operNS:expose" returnQName="exposeReturn" returnType="rtns:anyType" soapAction=""> <parameter xmlns:tns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" qname="in0" type="tns:anyType"/> </operation> <parameter name="allowedMethods" value="expose"/> <parameter name="scope" value="Request"/> </service> </deployment> I absolutely can't find out why it always tells me that my xpath does not match... This may be stupid, but am I missing something?

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  • heroku logs --ps run showign nothing

    - by Zarne Dravitzki
    I have two running apps on heroku staging and production. They are near identical enviornments. (Staging has extra configs IE RailsFootnotes, Bullet gem) When I run heroku logs --ps run --app jl-staging Returns as logs like 2012-08-30T01:30:42+00:00 heroku[run.1]: Starting process with command `bundle exec rake jewellover:warn_users` This log is a Task set to run with Heroku Schedular Free. Everything Works perfect but when I do the same with heroku logs --ps run --app jl-production There are no results. No heroku[run.1] process logs. Both environments have the same scheduled tasks, albeit at different times but none the less both run scheduled tasks at specified times. Is there something im missing about heroku[run.1] processes in production env? Does heroku only keep the -ps logs for a certain amount of time? It seems to show less activity than the normal logs. Maybe only show 24hrs worth of logs rather than Last 100 logs... I need to log and debug the [run.1] process from the production env... specifically the jewellover:warn_users task. any ideas?

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  • iPhone UISlider not visible

    - by John Qualis
    I want to add a UISlider to my app programmatically without using the IB. I am adding a UISlider to my UIViewController using the code below. However I don't see the slider when the view comes up. What am I missing? I am using iPhone SDK 3.1.2. Appreciate any help. @synthesize slider; .... - (void)viewDidLoad { ... ... slider = [[UISlider alloc] initWithFrame: CGRectMake(0, 480 - 80, 300, 20)]; slider.minimumValue = 0.0; slider.maximumValue = 100.0; slider.tag = 0; slider.value = 50; slider.continuous = YES; slider.enabled = YES; [slider addTarget:selfaction:@selector(handleSlider:)forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; self.view addSubview:slider]; In the .h file ... UISlider *slider; ... @property (nonatomic, retain) UISlider *slider; - (void) handleSlider:(id)sender;

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  • Fetch Data using predicate. Retrieve single value.

    - by Mr. McPepperNuts
    XYZAppDelegate *appDelegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext = appDelegate.managedObjectContext; NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"name == %@", entryToSearchFor]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Entry" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"name" ascending:NO]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [request setEntity: entity]; [request setPredicate: predicate]; NSArray *results = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:nil]; if (results == nil) { NSLog(@"No results found"); }else { NSLog(@"entryToSearchFor %@", entryToSearchFor); NSLog(@"results %@", [results objectAtIndex:0]); } I want to retrieve a single value (String) from "Entry." I believe I must be missing. Can someone point it out? Btw, the NSLog results outputs the following: results <NSManagedObject: 0x3d2d360> (entity: Entry; id: 0x3d13650 <x-coredata://6EA12ADA-8C0B-477F-801C-B44FE6E6C91C/Entry/p3> ; data: <fault>)

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  • Why does C# not provide the C++ style 'friend' keyword?

    - by Ash
    The C++ friend keyword allows a class A to designate class B as it's friend. This allows Class B to access the private/protected members of class A. I've never read anything as to why this was left out of C# (and VB.NET). Most answers to this earlier StackOverflow question seem to be saying it is a useful part of C++ and there are good reasons to use it. In my experience I'd have to agree. Another question seems to me to be really asking how to do something similar to friend in a C# application. While the answers generally revolve around nested classes, it doesn't seem quite as elegant as using the friend keyword. The original Design Patterns book uses the friend keyword regularly throughout its examples. So in summary, why is friend missing from C#, and what is the "best practice" way (or ways) of simulating it in C#? (By the way, the "internal" keyword is not the same thing, it allows ALL classes within the entire assembly to access internal members, friend allows you to give access to a class to just one other class.)

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  • Refreshing Read-Only (Chained) Property in MVVM

    - by Wonko the Sane
    I'm thinking this should be easy, but I can't seem to figure this out. Take these properties from an example ViewModel (ObservableViewModel implements INotifyPropertyChanged): class NameViewModel : ObservableViewModel { Boolean mShowFullName = false; string mFirstName = "Wonko"; string mLastName = "DeSane"; private readonly DelegateCommand mToggleName; public NameViewModel() { mToggleName = new DelegateCommand(() => ShowFullName = !mShowFullName); } public ICommand ToggleNameCommand { get { return mToggleName; } } public Boolean ShowFullName { get { return mShowFullName; } set { SetPropertyValue("ShowFullName", ref mShowFullName, value); } } public string Name { get { return (mShowFullName ? this.FullName : this.Initials); } } public string FullName { get { return mFirstName + " " + mLastName; } } public string Initials { get { return mFirstName.Substring(0, 1) + "." + mLastName.Substring(0, 1) + "."; } } } The guts of such a [insert your adjective here] View using this ViewModel might look like: <TextBlock x:Name="txtName" Grid.Row="0" Text="{Binding Name}" /> <Button x:Name="btnToggleName" Command="{Binding ToggleNameCommand}" Content="Toggle Name" Grid.Row="1" /> The problem I am seeing is when the ToggleNameCommand is fired. The ShowFullName property is properly updated by the command, but the Name binding is never updated in the View. What am I missing? How can I force the binding to update? Do I need to implement the Name properties as DependencyProperties (and therefore derive from DependencyObject)? Seems a little heavyweight to me, and I'm hoping for a simpler solution. Thanks, wTs

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  • Add a child inside a newly created instance, inside of a loop in AS3

    - by HeroicNate
    I am trying to create a gallery where each thumb is housed inside of it's own movie clip that will have more data, but it keeps failing because it won't let me refer to the newly created instance of the movie clip. Below is what I am trying to do. var xml:XML; var xmlReq:URLRequest = new URLRequest("xml.xml"); var xmlLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); var imageLoader:Loader; var vidThumbn:ThumbNail; var next_y:Number = 0; for(var i:int = 0; i < xml.downloads.videos.video.length(); i++) { vidThumbn = new ThumbNail(); imageLoader = new Loader(); imageLoader.load(new URLRequest(xml.downloads.videos.video[i].ThumbnailImage)); vidThumbn.y = next_y; vidThumbn.x = 0; next_y += 117; imageLoader.name = xml.downloads.videos.video[i].Files[0].File.URL; videoBox.thumbList.thumbListHolder.addChild(vidThumbn); videoBox.thumbList.thumbListHolder.vidThumbn.addChild(imageLoader); } It dies every time on that last line. How do I refer to that vidThumbn instance so I can add the imageLoader? I don't know what I'm missing. It feels like it should work.

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  • collection_select not working as expected

    - by kgb
    First time I've come to use collection_select in a project and I've hit a wall with it. A Profile has_one Team, Team has_many Profile. In my view for editing profiles I have this. <td><%= f.collection_select(:team_id, @team, :id, :title) %></td> Which populates the drop down with titles of teams as expected. The couple of examples I have read seem to use it in a very similar way. I can't figure out when the profile is saved why it isn't populating the team_id field in my DB. In the development log the team_id is being passed. Processing ProfilesController#update (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-03-28 22:49:16) [PUT] Parameters: {"commit"=>"Update", "profile"=>{"dob(1i)"=>"2010", "second_name"=>"", "dob(2i)"=>"3", "role"=>"", "dob(3i)"=>"28", "project"=>"", "specialties"=>"", "about"=>"", "team_id"=>"1", "status"=>"", "first_name"=>""}, "authenticity_token"=>"sdTiFPGj9JCO3OEge5EGNGxZbQSsq9ME5LP342EBjyc=", "id"=>"3"} The update controller is the standard scaffold one, this has worked fine for all other additions to the profile model I'd made previously. Am I missing something obvious?

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  • Maven3 Issues with building a multi-module enterprise project

    - by Sujit K
    I just migrated from Maven2 to Maven3 and I'm able to build each module individually or all the modules in one shot by calling mvn clean install. However, in Maven2, since we have multi-module enterprise project, we build multiple ear's and each ear is built as its own module with its own child pom. To build an individual ear with its dependents, the below command works fine in Maven2 but not in Maven3. Let me explain the issue in Maven3 a bit later. mvn -pl ear_module -rf first_dependent_module -am clean install In Maven2 when the reactor lists the build order, I see first_dependent_module second_dependent_module ear_module End of the day I have my ear module also part of the reactor which is how it should be. The reason we call -rf is we don't want to delete the target folder at the main ${project.basedir} (so not to delete the output created in target from building the other ear modules). With Maven3, however, this is all I see when the reactor lists the build order: first_dependent_module second_dependent_module Maven3 totally ignores the argument (ear_module) set to -pl flag to be also built after its dependents have been. Not sure what I'm missing here. Any help/tips would be greatly appreciated. P.S: The build I'm making is similar to the one below.... Build specific module in multi-module project Thanks, SK

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  • Visual Studio and .NET programming

    - by Vit
    Hi, I just want to ask wheather I am right or not about .NET. So, .NET is new framework that enables you to easily implement new and old windows functions. It is similiar to java in the way that its also compiled into "bytecode", but its name is Common Language Infrastructure, or CLI. This language is interpreted by .NET Framework, so code generated by programming using .NET cannot be executed directly by CPU. Now, few languages can be compiled to CLI. First, it was Microsoft-developed C#, than J#, C++ others. I suspect that this is in general right, at least I hope I understand it right. But, what I am still missing is, can you write to machine code compiled code in C#? And, if using Visual Studio 2005, when I select Win32 project, it is compiled into machine code, so only thing you need to run this apps are windows dynamic-link libraries, since static libraries code is implemented into app durink linking phase. And those dynamic-link libraries are implemented in every windows installation, or provided by DirectX installations. But when I select CLR in Visual Studio 2005, than app is compiled into CLI code, and it first executes .NET framework, and than .NET framework executes that program, since its not in machine code. So, I am right? I ask becouse you can read these infos on the internet, but I have noone to tell me wheather I understand it right or not. Thanks.

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  • PyQt QAbstractListModel seems to ignore tristate flags

    - by mcieslak
    I've been trying for a couple days to figure out why my QAbstractLisModel won't allow a user to toggle a checkable item in three states. The model returns the Qt.IsTristate and Qt.ItemIsUserCheckable in the flags() method, but when the program runs only Qt.Checked and Qt.Unchecked are toggled on edit. class cboxModel(QtCore.QAbstractListModel): def __init__(self, parent=None): super(cboxModel, self).__init__(parent) self.cboxes = [ ['a',0], ['b',1], ['c',2], ['d',0] ] def rowCount(self,index=QtCore.QModelIndex()): return len(self.cboxes) def data(self,index,role): if not index.isValid: return QtCore.QVariant() myname,mystate = self.cboxes[index.row()] if role == QtCore.Qt.DisplayRole: return QtCore.QVariant(myname) if role == QtCore.Qt.CheckStateRole: if mystate == 0: return QtCore.QVariant(QtCore.Qt.Unchecked) elif mystate == 1: return QtCore.QVariant(QtCore.Qt.PartiallyChecked) elif mystate == 2: return QtCore.QVariant(QtCore.Qt.Checked) return QtCore.QVariant() def setData(self,index,value,role=QtCore.Qt.EditRole): if index.isValid(): self.cboxes[index.row()][1] = value.toInt()[0] self.emit(QtCore.SIGNAL("dataChanged(QModelIndex,QModelIndex)"), index, index) print self.cboxes return True return False def flags(self,index): if not index.isValid(): return QtCore.Qt.ItemIsEditable return QtCore.Qt.ItemIsEnabled | QtCore.Qt.ItemIsEditable | QtCore.Qt.ItemIsUserCheckable | QtCore.Qt.ItemIsTristate You can test it with this, class MainForm(QtGui.QMainWindow): def __init__(self, parent=None): super(MainForm, self).__init__(parent) model = cboxModel(self) self.view = QtGui.QListView() self.view.setModel(model) self.setCentralWidget(self.view) app = QtGui.QApplication(sys.argv) form = MainForm() form.show() app.exec_() and see that only 2 states are available. I'm assuming there's something simple I'm missing. Any ideas? Thanks!

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  • .NET MissingMethodException occuring on one of thousands of end-user machines -- any insight?

    - by Yoooder
    This issue has me baffled, it's affecting a single user (to my knowledge) and hasn't been reproduced by us... The user is receiving a MissingMethodException, our trace file indicates it's occuring after we create a new instance of a component, when we're calling an Initialize/Setup method in preparation to have it do work (InitializeWorkerByArgument in the example) The Method specified by the error is an interface method, which a base class implements and classes derived from the base class can override as-needed The user has the latest release of our application All the provided code is shipped within a single assembly Here's a very distilled version of the component: class Widget : UserControl { public void DoSomething(string argument) { InitializeWorkerByArgument(argument); this.Worker.DoWork(); } private void InitializeWorkerByArgument(string argument) { switch (argument) { case "SomeArgument": this.Worker = new SomeWidgetWorker(); break; } // The issue I'm tracking down would have occured during "new SomeWidgetWorker()" // and would have resulted in a missing method exception stating that // method "DoWork" could not be found. this.Worker.DoWorkComplete += new EventHandler(Worker_DoWorkComplete); } private IWidgetWorker Worker { get; set; } void Worker_DoWorkComplete(object sender, EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("All done"); } } interface IWidgetWorker { void DoWork(); event EventHandler DoWorkComplete; } abstract class BaseWorker : IWidgetWorker { virtual public void DoWork() { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000); RaiseDoWorkComplete(this, null); } internal void RaiseDoWorkComplete(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (DoWorkComplete != null) { DoWorkComplete(this, null); } } public event EventHandler DoWorkComplete; } class SomeWidgetWorker : BaseWorker { public override void DoWork() { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(2000); RaiseDoWorkComplete(this, null); } }

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  • SSRS 2008 - Sending report as email

    - by Mozy
    Hi all, What I want to do is render a SSRS 2008 report as HTML (actually MHTML) and send that as the body in an email. Has anyone done this? I've almost got it (I think) but I seem to have a encoding problem. The email shows up as what looks like some sort of base64 encoding. Like this: MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: multipart/related; boundary="----=_NextPart_01C35DB7.4B204430" X-MSSQLRS-ProducerVersion: V10.0.2531.0 This is a multi-part message in MIME format. ------=_NextPart_01C35DB7.4B204430 Content-ID: Content-Disposition: inline; filename="FollowUpNotification" Content-Type: text/html; name="FollowUpNotification"; charset="utf-8" Content-Transfer-Encoding: base64 PCFET0NUWVBFIEhUTUwgUFVCTElDICItLy9XM0MvL0RURCBIVE1MIDQuMDEgVHJhbnNp... Any ideas on what I'm missing? Here is a code snippet: myMail.BodyEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; myMail.IsBodyHtml = true; WebClient client = new WebClient(); System.Net.NetworkCredential repAuthenticationInfo = new System.Net.NetworkCredential(@"username", @"password"); client.Credentials = repAuthenticationInfo; client.Encoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; string messageBody = client.DownloadString( "http://<<reportserver>>&rs%3aFormat=MHTML&Parameter=" + Parameter); myMail.Body = messageBody;

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  • Are ternary operators not valid for linq-to-sql queries?

    - by KallDrexx
    I am trying to display a nullable date time in my JSON response. In my MVC Controller I am running the following query: var requests = (from r in _context.TestRequests where r.scheduled_time == null && r.TestRequestRuns.Count > 0 select new { id = r.id, name = r.name, start = DateAndTimeDisplayString(r.TestRequestRuns.First().start_dt), end = r.TestRequestRuns.First().end_dt.HasValue ? DateAndTimeDisplayString(r.TestRequestRuns.First().end_dt.Value) : string.Empty }); When I run requests.ToArray() I get the following exception: Could not translate expression ' Table(TestRequest) .Where(r => ((r.scheduled_time == null) AndAlso (r.TestRequestRuns.Count > 0))) .Select(r => new <>f__AnonymousType18`4(id = r.id, name = r.name, start = value(QAWebTools.Controllers.TestRequestsController). DateAndTimeDisplayString(r.TestRequestRuns.First().start_dt), end = IIF(r.TestRequestRuns.First().end_dt.HasValue, value(QAWebTools.Controllers.TestRequestsController). DateAndTimeDisplayString(r.TestRequestRuns.First().end_dt.Value), Invoke(value(System.Func`1[System.String])))))' into SQL and could not treat it as a local expression. If I comment out the end = line, everything seems to run correctly, so it doesn't seem to be the use of my local DateAndTimeDisplayString method, so the only thing I can think of is Linq to Sql doesn't like Ternary operators? I think I've used ternary operators before, but I can't remember if I did it in this code base or another code base (that uses EF4 instead of L2S). Is this true, or am I missing some other issue?

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  • Filp route value in asp.net mvc routes

    - by Herman
    Hi all, I am new to asp.net mvc, so please bear with me. We have the following route dictionary setup. routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{language}/{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { language = "en", controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); for any given page in our app, we to render a link to the a french version of the same page. For example, the page: http://www.example.com/en/home should have link on that page that points to http://www.example.com/fr/home Now I have the following UrlHelper extension method public static string FilpLanguage(this UrlHelper urlHelper) { var data = urlHelper.RequestContext.RouteData; if (System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture == CultureInfo.GetCultureInfoByIetfLanguageTag("en-CA")) data.Values["language"] = "fr"; else data.Values["language"] = "en"; return urlHelper.RouteUrl(data.Values.Where(item => item.Value != null)); } However, calling FilpLanguage on www.example.com/en/home will return the following URL: www.example.com/en/home?current=[,] Am I missing something here? where did the current parameter come from? Thanks in advance.

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  • Determine target architecture of binary file in Linux (library or executable)

    - by Fernando Miguélez
    We have an issue related to a Java application running under a (rather old) FC3 on a Advantech POS board with a Via C3 processor. The java application has several compiled shared libs that are accessed via JNI. Via C3 processor is suppossed to be i686 compatible. Some time ago after installing Ubuntu 6.10 on a MiniItx board with the same processor I found out that the previous statement is not 100% true. The Ubuntu kernel hanged on startup due to the lack of some specific and optional instructions of the i686 set in the C3 processor. These instructions missing in C3 implementation of i686 set are used by default by GCC compiler when using i686 optimizations. The solution in this case was to go with a i386 compiled version of Ubuntu distribution. The base problem with the Java application is that the FC3 distribution was installed on the HD by cloning from an image of the HD of another PC, this time an Intel P4. Afterwards the distribution needed some hacking to have it running such as replacing some packages (such as the kernel one) with the i383 compiled version. The problem is that after working for a while the system completely hangs without a trace. I am afraid that some i686 code is left somewhere in the system and could be executed randomly at any time (for example after recovering from suspend mode or something like that). My question is: Is there any tool or way to find out at what specific architecture is an binary file (executable or library) aimed provided that "file" does not give so much information?

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  • horizontal uiview's controls unresponsive.. or how to foul up a view hierarchy

    - by Oldmicah
    Hello all, I'm working on an app that has two sections, a config section and a results section. My config section needs to be 2 separate views (horizontal and vert, and yes, I can hear the intake of breath from here), with one rotatable view for the results. b/c of layout restraints and a lot of pain around rotation, I'm not using a navigation controller. I've been experiencing the joys of rotation experimentation and have settled upon keeping my views contained as subviews of my view controller. i.e. view controller.view.subviews = configH, configV, and results. I then use the controller.view bringSubviewToFront to bring the either the configH, configV, or the result view to the front. Rotation works-queue(humor intended) the angelic choirs... almost. What's happening is that my configV button's are responsive, but when the device (or simulator) is rotated, my configH controls are not. (configV is the second subview added, but the first one to be brought to the front because app comes up in portrait mode) The controls on the results view also work. Plan B was to assign the controller.view to configH, configV, or results. All of my controls now work, but rotation is now fouled up. Question 1: Is there a better way to do this? (a horizontal and vertical config view and a rotatable results view) Question 2: Does the above suggest a design issue, or is it more likely that my addled brain is just missing something in my own code. (nothing from the peanut gallery please) many thanks!

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  • Reference to the Main Form whilst trying to Serialize objects in C#

    - by Paul Matthews
    I have a button on my main form which calls a method to serialize some objects to disk. I am trying to add these objects to an ArrayList and then serialize them using a BinaryFormatter and a FileStream. public void SerializeGAToDisk(string GenAlgName) { // Let's make a list that includes all the objects we // need to store a GA instance ArrayList GAContents = new ArrayList(); GAContents.Add(GenAlgInstances[GenAlgName]); // Structure and info for a GA GAContents.Add(RunningGAs[GenAlgName]); // There may be several running GA's using (FileStream fStream = new FileStream(GenAlgName + ".ga", FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write, FileShare.None)) { BinaryFormatter binFormat = new BinaryFormatter(); binFormat.Serialize(fStream, GAContents); } } When running the above code I get the following exception: System.Runtime.Serialization.SerializationException was unhandled Message=Type 'WindowsFormsApplication1.Form1' in Assembly 'GeneticAlgApp, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' is not marked as serializable. So that means that somewhere in the objects I'm trying to save there must be a reference to the main form. The only possible references I can see are 3 delegates which all point to methods in the main form code. Do delegates get serialized as well? I can't seem to apply the [NonSerialized] attribute to them. Is there anything else I might be missing? Even better, is there a quick method to find the reference(s) that are causing the problem?

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