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  • can I acces a struct inside of a struct without using the dot operator?

    - by yan bellavance
    I have 2 structures that have 90% of their fields the same. I want to group those fields in a structure but I do not want to use the dot operator to access them. The reason is I already coded with the first structure and have just created the second one. before: struct{ int a; int b; int c; object1 name; }str1; struct{ int a; int b; int c; object2 name; }str2; now I would create a third struct: struct{ int a; int b; int c; }str3; and would change the str1 and atr2 to this: struct{ str3 str; object1 name; }str1; struct { str3 str; object2 name; }str2; Finally I would like to be able to access a,b and c by doing: str1 myStruct; myStruct.a; myStruct.b; myStruct.c; and not: myStruct.str.a; myStruct.str.b; myStruct.str.c; Is there a way to do such a thing. The reason for doing this is I want keep the integrety of the data if chnges to the struct were to occur and to not repeat myself and not have to change my existing code and not have fields nested too deeply.

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  • JVM to ignore certificate name mismatch

    - by Heavy Bytes
    I know there were a lot of questions/answers about how to ignore SSL error in the code. On our dev region dev.domain.tld we have configured a app server over SSL. The certificate that is displayed is for somedev.domain.tld. There is no way to change the certificate, it will always be a domain mismatch. So when I deploy a web-service to https://dev.domain.tld and try to connect/call my webservice I get an exception: Caused by: java.security.cert.CertificateException: No name matching dev.domain.tld found And I have the somedev.domain.tld CERT in my trust store. Now, I saw a lot of samples how to change that in the code (using a Trust Manager that accepts all domains), but how do I specify to the JVM to ignore the domain mismatch when connecting to the server? Is there a -Djavax.net.ssl argument or something? Thank you! UPDATE: Or, since I am using Spring-WS, is there a way to set some property in Spring for that? (WebServiceTemplate) UPDATE I guess I'll have to do use something from Spring Security: http://static.springsource.org/spring-ws/sites/1.5/reference/html/security.html

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  • I have created a PHP script and I am lacking to extract the primary key, I have given flow below, pl

    - by Parth
    I am using MySQL DB, working for Joomla, My requirement is tracking the activity like insert/update/delete on any table and store it in another audit table using triggers, i.e. I am doing Auditing. DB's table structure: Few tables dont have any PK nor auto increment key Flow of my script is : I fetch out all table from DB. I check whether the table have any trigger or not. If yes then it moves to check nfor next table and so on. If it does'nt find any trigger then it creates the triggers for the table, such that, -it first checks if the table has any primary key or not(for inserting in Tracking audit table for every change made) if it has the primary key then it uses it further in creation of trigger. if it doesnt find any PK then it proceeds further in creating the trigger without inserting any id in audit table Now here, My problem is I need the PK every time so that I can record the id of any particular table in which the insert/update/delete is performed, so that further i can use this audit track table to replicate in production DB.. Now as I haave mentioned earlier that I am not available with PK/auto-incremented in some table, then what should I do get the particular id in which change is done? please guide me...GEEKS!!!

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  • JavaScript: Very strange behavior with assigning methods in a loop

    - by Andrey
    Consider this code below: <a href="javascript:void(-1)" id="a1">a1</a> <a href="javascript:void(-1)" id="a2">a2</a> <script type="text/javascript"> var buttons = [] buttons.push("a1") buttons.push("a2") var actions = [] for (var i in buttons) { actions[buttons[i]] = function() { alert(i) } } var elements = document.getElementsByTagName("a") for (var k = 0; k < elements.length; k++) { elements[k].onclick = actions[elements[k].id] } </script> Basically, it shows two anchors, a1 and a2, and I expect to see "1" and "2" popping up in an alert when clicking on corresponding anchor. It doesn't happen, I get "2" when clicking on either. After spending an hour meditating on the code, I decided that it probably happens because dynamic onclick methods for both anchors keep the last value of "i". So I change that loop to for (var i in buttons) { var local_i = i.toString() actions[buttons[i]] = function() { alert(local_i) } } hoping that each dynamic function will get its own copy of "i" with immediate value. But after this change I get "1" popping up when I click on either link. What am I doing wrong? It's a huge show stopper for me.

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  • Manhattan Heuristic function for A-star (A*)

    - by Shawn Mclean
    I found this algorithm here. I have a problem, I cant seem to understand how to set up and pass my heuristic function. static public Path<TNode> AStar<TNode>(TNode start, TNode destination, Func<TNode, TNode, double> distance, Func<TNode, double> estimate) where TNode : IHasNeighbours<TNode> { var closed = new HashSet<TNode>(); var queue = new PriorityQueue<double, Path<TNode>>(); queue.Enqueue(0, new Path<TNode>(start)); while (!queue.IsEmpty) { var path = queue.Dequeue(); if (closed.Contains(path.LastStep)) continue; if (path.LastStep.Equals(destination)) return path; closed.Add(path.LastStep); foreach (TNode n in path.LastStep.Neighbours) { double d = distance(path.LastStep, n); var newPath = path.AddStep(n, d); queue.Enqueue(newPath.TotalCost + estimate(n), newPath); } } return null; } As you can see, it accepts 2 functions, a distance and a estimate function. Using the Manhattan Heuristic Distance function, I need to take 2 parameters. Do I need to modify his source and change it to accepting 2 parameters of TNode so I can pass a Manhattan estimate to it? This means the 4th param will look like this: Func<TNode, TNode, double> estimate) where TNode : IHasNeighbours<TNode> and change the estimate function to: queue.Enqueue(newPath.TotalCost + estimate(n, path.LastStep), newPath); My Manhattan function is: private float manhattanHeuristic(Vector3 newNode, Vector3 end) { return (Math.Abs(newNode.X - end.X) + Math.Abs(newNode.Y - end.Y)); }

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  • How do I keep users from spoofing data through a form?

    - by Jonathan
    I have a site which has been running for some time now that uses a great deal of user input to build the site. Naturally there are dozens of forms on the site. When building the site, I often used hidden form fields to pass data back to the server so that I know which record to update. an example might be: <input type="hidden" name="id" value="132" /> <input type="text" name="total_price" value="15.02" /> When the form is submitted, these values get passed to the server and I update the records based on the data passed (i.e. the price of record 132 would get changed to 15.02). I recently found out that you can change the attributes and values via something as simple as firebug. So...I open firebug and change the id value to "155" and the price value to "0.00" and then submit the form. Viola! I view product number 155 on the site and it now says that it's $0.00. This concerns me. How can I know which record to update without either a query string (easily modified) or a hidden input element passing the id to the server? And if there's no better way (I've seen literally thousands of websites that pass the data this way), then how would I make it so that if a user changes these values, the data on the server side is not executed (or something similar to solve the issue)? I've thought about encrypting the id and then decrypting it on the other side, but that still doesn't protect me from someone changing it and just happening to get something that matches another id in the database. I've also thought about cookies, but I've heard that those can be manipulated as well. Any ideas? This seems like a HUGE security risk to me.

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  • Flex 4 Button state in a HGroup

    - by chchrist
    Hi all, I have a HGroup with some buttons inside which is my application's menu. <s:HGroup id="nav"> <s:Button id="homeButton" label="Home" /> <s:Button id="showroomButton" label="Showroom" /> <s:Button label="Catalogue" /> <s:Button label="Offers" /> <s:Button label="My Account" /> <s:Button label="My Orders" /> </s:HGroup> What I want is when I click for example the #homeButton to change it's state to "over", become disabled and reset all other buttons to the "up" state. I've written this function private function resetNavState():void { for(var i:int = 0,ii:int = nav.numChildren-1;i<ii;i++) { Button(nav.getChildAt(i)).mouseEnabled = true; Button(nav.getChildAt(i)).skin.setCurrentState("up",true); } } And then on the homeButton click handler for example i use protected function homeButton_clickHandler(event:MouseEvent):void { resetNavState(); currentState = "home"; homeButton.skin.setCurrentState("over",true); homeButton.mouseEnabled = false; } I resets the states of the #nav buttons but it doesn't change the state of the pressed button. Any ideas? Thanx in advance

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  • EXEC_BAD_ACCESS error comes in my applicatoin in iphone

    - by Jaimin
    when i print dictionary i got this error.. here my dictTf is mutabledictionay.. when i m in home page i selct few fields and click find. so new view comes with the result.. now i go back and again click find without changing anything.. now comes proper.. now at this moment when i go back it shows this in the dictionay and EXEC_BAD_ACCESS eror comes... Printing description of dictTf: The program being debugged was signaled while in a function called from GDB. GDB has restored the context to what it was before the call. To change this behavior use "set unwindonsignal off" Evaluation of the expression containing the function (CFShow) will be abandoned. The program being debugged was signaled while in a function called from GDB. GDB has restored the context to what it was before the call. To change this behavior use "set unwindonsignal off" Evaluation of the expression containing the function (CFShow) will be abandoned. (gdb)

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  • Jtable live updating problem

    - by Fishinastorm
    Hi all, I'm trying to display a jtable in a pop up Jframe and am running into some problems. What i'am trying to do is as follows: catch a button action event in the main frame and display a pop up frame with a jtable populated with some data. The problem i have is that the jtable is populated with metadata i receive from a website and if i'm receiving many records, then the jtable is not displayed until all the records(metadata) is received from the website. I would like to change it such that as soon as the button event is detected in the main frame, I display the pop up frame along with the jtable and insert/update rows "as and when i receive the data from the website". In another words, i want to display the table and have the records appearing one at a time rather than displaying the jtable only after i receive all records.Below is how i'm trying to do it (but in vain :( ): ......... //add the table to the popup frame when application is started, but don't display the frame `until button action is //detected` extraInfoFrame.add(tblMetadata); extraInfoFrame.setVisible(false); //handle code for button press; display the popup private void butMetadataActionPerformed(java.awt.event.ActionEvent evt) { extraInfoFrame.pack(); extraInfoFrame.toFront(); //frame.setSize(350, 250); extraInfoFrame.setVisible(true); //retrieve rows data for the table for(int i=0;i<len;i++){ Object[] data=new Object[4];data=getMetadata(); //get model and insert row ((javax.swing.table.DefaultTableModel)tblMetadata.getModel()).insertRow(i,data); //tried something to notify the view abt change in table data ((javax.swing.table.DefaultTableModel)tblMetadata.getModel()).fireTableRowsInserted(0, 0); tblMetadata.revalidate(); tblMetadata.repaint(); } } Have been racking my head to try and figure something out. A sample example would be greatly appreciated.

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  • how to run href="#var=something" before onclick function fires in javascript?

    - by korben
    i'm using the below javascript to change an image on an aspx in asp.net c# <script language="JavaScript" type="text/javascript"> var updateImageWhenHashChanges = function() { theImage = document.getElementById("ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_Image1a"); if(window.location.hash == "#size=2") { theImage.src = "<%# Eval("realfilename", "/files/l{0}") %>"; } else if(window.location.hash == "#size=3") { theImage.src = "<%# Eval("realfilename", "/files/{0}") %>"; } else if(window.location.hash == "#size=1") { theImage.src = "<%# Eval("fullthumbname", "/thumbnails/{0}") %>"; } else { } } </script> here's how i call it with a link <a href="#size=3" onclick="updateImageWhenHashChanges();">test</a> the problem is that it only does what i'm expecting on the SECOND click of the link, because it seems onclick fires before the href, so the first time i'm just placing the var and the 2nd time i'm actually getting what i want. does anyone know how i can fix this? i'm trying to get the image to change on each click

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  • Creating transparent gridlines

    - by Rob Penridge
    I'm trying to get the chart's gridlines to be transparent but it doesn't seem to be supported: http://support.sas.com/documentation/cdl/en/grstatug/63302/HTML/default/viewer.htm#n1f71f6e9v037an1jy274v66z4r1.htm I'm doing to try and blend the gridlines with the chart background color (which in my code can change between colors) which would make the gridlines subtle rather than jarring when background colors change. Here is my code: ** ** TAKE THE DEFAULT STYLE BEING USED. MODIFY IT SO THAT ** GRAPH GRIDLINES WILL BE GREEN AND MOSTLY TRANSPARENT *; proc template; define style my_style; parent = styles.default; style GraphGridLines from GraphGridLines / contrastcolor=green transparency=.05; end; run; ** ** LAYOUT TEMPLATE FOR A SIMPLE SERIES CHART *; proc template; define statgraph mychart; begingraph; layout overlay / wallcolor=black xaxisopts=(display=(line) griddisplay=on) yaxisopts=(display=(line)) ; seriesplot x=name y=height / lineattrs=(color=white); endlayout; endgraph; end; run; ** ** PLOT SAMPLE DATA USING CUSTOM STYLE AND CHART LAYOUT WE JUST DEFINED *; ods graphics / width=640 height=640 ; ods html style=my_style; proc sgrender data=sashelp.class template=mychart; run; ods html close; Is there another way to achieve this effect by blending the green color with the background color?

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  • WPF binding to a boolean on a control

    - by Jose
    I'm wondering if someone has a simple succinct solution to binding to a dependency property that needs to be the converse of the property. Here's an example I have a textbox that is disabled based on a property in the datacontext e.g.: <TextBox IsEnabled={Binding CanEdit} Text={Binding MyText}/> The requirement changes and I want to make it ReadOnly instead of disabled, so without changing my ViewModel I could do this: In the UserControl resources: <UserControl.Resources> <m:NotConverter x:Key="NotConverter"/> </UserControl.Resources> And then change the TextBox to: <TextBox IsReadOnly={Binding CanEdit,Converter={StaticResource NotConverter}} Text={Binding MyText}/> Which I personally think is EXTREMELY verbose I would love to be able to just do this(notice the !): <TextBox IsReadOnly={Binding !CanEdit} Text={Binding MyText}/> But alas, that is not an option that I know of. I can think of two options. Create an attached property IsNotReadOnly to FrameworkElement(?) and bind to that property If I change my ViewModel then I could add a property CanEdit and another CannotEdit which I would be kind of embarrassed of because I believe it adds an irrelevant property to a class, which I don't think is a good practice. The main reason for the question is that in my project the above isn't just for one control, so trying to keep my project as DRY as possible and readable I am throwing this out to anyone feeling my pain and has come up with a solution :)

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  • Imlpementations of an Interface with Different Types?

    - by b3njamin
    Searched as best I could but unfortunately I've learned nothing relevant; basically I'm trying to work around the following problem in C#... For example, I have three possible references (refA, refB, refC) and I need to load the correct one depending on a configuration option. So far however I can't see a way of doing it that doesn't require me to use the name of said referenced object all through the code (the referenced objects are provided, I can't change them). Hope the following code makes more sense: public ??? LoadedClass; public Init() { /* load the object, according to which version we need... */ if (Config.Version == "refA") { Namespace.refA LoadedClass = new refA(); } else if (Config.Version == "refB") { Namespace.refB LoadedClass = new refB(); } else if (Config.Version == "refC") { Namespace.refC LoadedClass = new refC(); } Run(); } private void Run(){ { LoadedClass.SomeProperty... LoadedClass.SomeMethod(){ etc... } } As you can see, I need the Loaded class to be public, so in my limited way I'm trying to change the type 'dynamically' as I load in which real class I want. Each of refA, refB and refC will implement the same properties and methods but with different names. Again, this is what I'm working with, not by my design. All that said, I tried to get my head around Interfaces (which sound like they're what I'm after) but I'm looking at them and seeing strict types - which makes sense to me, even if it's not useful to me. Any and all ideas and opinions are welcome and I'll clarify anything if necessary. Excuse any silly mistakes I've made in the terminology, I'm learning all this for the first time. I'm really enjoying working with an OOP language so far though - coming from PHP this stuff is blowing my mind :-)

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  • XML Schema: Can I make some of an attribute's values be required but still allow other values?

    - by scrotty
    (Note: I cannot change structure of the XML I receive, I am only able to change how I validate it.) Let's say I can get XML like this: <Address Field="Street" Value="123 Main"/> <Address Field="StreetPartTwo" Value="Unit B"/> <Address Field="State" Value="CO"/> <Address Field="Zip" Value="80020"/> <Address Field="SomeOtherCrazyValue" Value="Foo"/> I need to create an XSD schema that validates that "Street", "State" and "Zip" must be present. But I don't care if "StreetPartTwo" or "SomeOTherCrazyValue" is present. If I knew that only the three I care about could be included, I could do this: <xs:element name="Address" type="addressType" maxOccurs="unbounded" minOccurs="3"/> <xs:complexType name="addressType"> <xs:attribute name="Field" use="required"> <xs:simpleType> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:enumeration value="Street"/> <xs:enumeration value="State"/> <xs:enumeration value="Zip"/> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> </xs:attribute> </xs:complexType> But this won't work with my case because I may also receive those other Address elements (that also have "Field" attributes) that I don't care about. Any ideas how I can ensure the stuff I care about is present but let the other stuff in too? TIA! Sean

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  • How to determine a text block of a file in one version come from which file in the previous version?

    - by Muhammad Asaduzzaman
    The problem is described below: Suppose I have a list of files in one version(say A,B,C,D). In the next version I have the following files(A,E,F,G). There are some similarities in their contents. The files in the later version comes from the previous version by file name renaming, content addition, deletion or partial modification or without any change( for example A is not changed). I take a block of text from a file(E, 2nd version) and check which files(in the 1st version) contain this text block. I found that B,C and D contain the text fragment. I want to determine from which file(B or c or d) this text block actually comes from.(I assume that E is a file whose name change in the second version). Since the contents may be changed, added or deleted in the later version, so in order to determine similarity I use LCS algorithm. But I cannot map the file with its previous version. I think one possible approach might be to use the location information of the match text blocks. But this heuristics not always work. Is there any research or algorithm exist to find so. Any direction will be helpful. Thanks in advance.

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  • Linking how PHP/HTML

    - by Azzyh
    Hello. Alright so im done doing pages with frames, and know i splitted up my design to top.php and bottom.php. In top.php it's linking to style.css and ajax_framework.js and such.. Now this works great until i tried to include top.php & bottom.php in videos/index.php (another dirr), i did like this: include "../top.php"; <-- and the originally index.php --> include "../bottom.php"; Now when i enter the site, it wont load style.css, probably because it thinks that style.css needs to be in videos/ directory, same goes with ajax_framework.js that are both files are on the parent ../ directory. Now what do i do? Some method or technique to solve this in a good way? So i dont have to copy style.css and ajax_framework.js into every directory i have, because then later if i want to change something i would need to change in all directories, which would be my last thing i want to do.. hope you got some nice techniques thank you

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  • How can I send GET data to multiple URLs at the same time using cURL?

    - by Rob
    My apologies, I've actually asked this question multiple times, but never quite understood the answers. Here is my current code: while($resultSet = mysql_fetch_array($SQL)){ $ch = curl_init($resultSet['url'] . $fullcurl); //load the urls and send GET data curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 2); //Only load it for two seconds (Long enough to send the data) curl_exec($ch); //Execute the cURL curl_close($ch); //Close it off } //end while loop What I'm doing here, is taking URLs from a MySQL Database ($resultSet['url']), appending some extra variables to it, just some GET data ($fullcurl), and simply requesting the pages. This starts the script running on those pages, and that's all that this script needs to do, is start those scripts. It doesn't need to return any output. Just the load the page long enough for the script to start. However, currently it's loading each URL (currently 11) one at a time. I need to load all of them simultaneously. I understand I need to use curl_multi_*, but I haven't the slightest idea on how cURL functions work, so I don't know how to change my code to use curl_multi_* in a while loop. So my questions are: How can I change this code to load all of the URLs simultaneously? Please explain it and not just give me code. I want to know what each individual function does exactly. Will curl_multi_exec even work in a while loop, since the while loop is just sending each row one at a time? And of course, any references, guides, tutorials about cURL functions would be nice, as well. Preferably not so much from php.net, as while it does a good job of giving me the syntax, its just a little dry and not so good with the explanations.

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  • Omit return type in C++0x

    - by Clinton
    I've recently found myself using the following macro with gcc 4.5 in C++0x mode: #define RETURN(x) -> decltype(x) { return x; } And writing functions like this: template <class T> auto f(T&& x) RETURN (( g(h(std::forward<T>(x))) )) I've been doing this to avoid the inconvenience having to effectively write the function body twice, and having keep changes in the body and the return type in sync (which in my opinion is a disaster waiting to happen). The problem is that this technique only works on one line functions. So when I have something like this (convoluted example): template <class T> auto f(T&& x) -> ... { auto y1 = f(x); auto y2 = h(y1, g1(x)); auto y3 = h(y1, g2(x)); if (y1) { ++y3; } return h2(y2, y3); } Then I have to put something horrible in the return type. Furthermore, whenever I update the function, I'll need to change the return type, and if I don't change it correctly, I'll get a compile error if I'm lucky, or a runtime bug in the worse case. Having to copy and paste changes to two locations and keep them in sync I feel is not good practice. And I can't think of a situation where I'd want an implicit cast on return instead of an explicit cast. Surely there is a way to ask the compiler to deduce this information. What is the point of the compiler keeping it a secret? I thought C++0x was designed so such duplication would not be required.

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  • Qt/C++ - confused about caller/callee, object ownership

    - by Isabel
    I am creating a GUI to manipulate a robot arm. The location of the arm can be described by 6 floats (describing the positions of the various arm joints. The interface consists of a QGraphicsView with a diagram of the arm (which can be clicked to change the arm position - adjusting the 6 floats). The interface also has 6 lineEdit boxes, to also adjust those values separately. When the graphics view is clicked, and when the line edit boxes are changed, I'd like the line edit boxes / graphics view to stay in synchronisation. This brings me to confusion about how to store the 6 floats, and trigger events when they're updated. My current idea is this: The robot arm's location should be represented by a class, RobotArmLocation. Objects of this class then have methods such as obj.ShoulderRotation() and obj.SetShoulderRotation(). The MainWindow has a single instance of RobotArmLocation. Next is the bit I'm more confused about, how to join everything up. I am thinking: The MainWindow has a ArmLocationChanged slot. This is signalled whenever the location object is changed. The diagram class will have a SetRobotArmLocation(RobotArmLocation &loc). When the diagram is changed, it's free to change the location object, and fire a signal to the ArmLocationChanged slot. Likewise, changing any of the text boxes will fire a signal to that ArmLocationChanged slot. The slot then has code to synchronise all the elements. This kind of seems like a mess to me, does anyone have any other suggestions? I've also thought of the following, does it have any merrit? The RobotArmLocation class has a ValueChanged slot, the diagram and textboxes can use that directly, and bypass the MainWindow directly (seems cleaner?) thanks for any wisdom!

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  • Conditionaly strip the last line from a text file

    - by fraXis
    Hello, I posted this yesterday on SO, and I received an answer that works great, but I need to change it around and I don't know how. Here is my original message: I need to strip the last line from a text file. I know how to open and save text files in C#, but how would I strip the last line of the text file? The text file will always be different sizes (some have 80 lines, some have 20). Can someone please show me how to do this? Here is the code that someone gave me to do this (which works fine) //Delete the last line from the file. This line could be 8174, 10000, or anything. This is from SO string tempfile = @"C:\junk_temp.txt"; using (StreamReader reader2 = new StreamReader(newfilename)) { using (StreamWriter writer2 = new StreamWriter(tempfile)) { string line = reader2.ReadLine(); while (!reader2.EndOfStream) { writer2.WriteLine(line); line = reader2.ReadLine(); } // by reading ahead, will not write last line to file } } File.Delete(newfilename); File.Move(tempfile, newfilename); File.Delete(tempfile); How would I change this to only delete the last line of the text file if it is a 4 or 5 digit string (such as 8001 or 99999). If it is anything other than that, such as a %, then I don't want to delete the last line. Can someone please modify the above code to do this for me? Thanks so much.

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  • If I use Unicode on a ISO-8859-1 site, how will that be interpreted by a browser?

    - by grg-n-sox
    So I got a site that uses ISO-8859-1 encoding and I can't change that. I want to be sure that the content I enter into the web app on the site gets parsed correctly. The parser works on a character by character basis. I also cannot change the parser, I am just writing files for it to handle. The content in my file I am telling the app to display after parsing contains Unicode characters (or at least I assume so, even if they were produced by Windows Alt Codes mapped to CP437). Using entities is not an option due to the character by character operation of the parser. The only characters that the parser escapes upon output are markup sensitive ones like ampersand, less than, and greater than symbols. I would just go ahead and put this through to see what it looks like, but output can only be seen on a publishing, which has to spend a couple days getting approved and such, and that would be asking too much for just a test case. So, long story short, if I told a site to output ?ÇÑ¥?? on a site with a meta tag stating it is supposed to use ISO-8859-1, will a browser auto-detect the Unicode and display it or will it literally translate it as ISO-8859-1 and get a different set of characters?

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  • OpenCV. cvFnName() works, but cv::FunName() doesn't work

    - by Innuendo
    I'm using OpenCV to write a plugin for a simulator. I've made an OpenCV project (single - not a plugin) and it works fine. When I added OpenCV libs to the plugin project, I added all libs required. Visual Studio 2010 doesn't highlight any code line with red. All looks fine and compiles fine. But in execution, the program halts with a Runtime Error on any cv::function. For example: cv::imread, or cv::imwrite. But if I replace them with cvLoadImage() and cvSaveImage(), it works fine. Why does this happen? I don't want to rewrite the whole script in old-api-style (cvFnName). It means I should change all Mat objects to IplImages, and so on. UPDATE: // preparing template ifstream ifile(tmplfilename); if ( !FILE_LOADED && ifile ) { // loading template file Mat tmpl = cv::imread(tmplfilename, 1); // << here occurs error FILE_LOADED = true; } Mat src; Bmp2Mat(hDC, hBitmap, src); TargetDetector detector(src, tmpl); detector.detectTarget(); If I change to: if ( !FILE_LOADED && ifile ) { IplImage* tmpl = 0; tmpl = cvLoadImage(tmplfilename, 1); // no error occurs } And then no error occurs. Early it displayed some Runtime Error. Now, I wanted to copy exact message and it just crashes the application (simulator, what I am pluginning). It displays window error - to kill process or no. (I can't show exact message, because I'm using russian windows now)

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  • Is DOM not being loaded ?

    - by Daniel
    I went through episode 88 (Dynamic menus) of the railscasts and when I try to load my *js.erb file in the browser shows me that my fetched data from the controller is getting there Controller def dynamic_departments @departments = Department.all end localhost:3000/javascripts/dynamic_departments.js var departments = new Array(); departments.push(new Array(1,'????',1)); departments.push(new Array(2,'???-???',2)); function facultySelected(){ faculty_id = $('falculty_id').getValue(); options = $('department_id').options; options.length = 1; departments.each(function(department){ if(department[0] == faculty_id){ options[options.length] = new Option(department[1],department[2]) } }); if(options.length == 1){ $('department_field').hide(); } else { $('department_field').show(); } } document.observe('dom:loaded', function(){ alert("DOM loaded"); //$('department_field').hide(); //$('faculty_id').observe('change',facultySelected); }); My routes.rb has the match ':controller/:action.:format' Still...after the page's loaded and I change the value of my collection_select or select nothing happens.What am I missing? *I called the 'alert' and commented the rest to test it....still nothing.

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  • Open + Save .exe file in notepad makes it corrupted

    - by Jacob Kofoed
    Hi, I just published this simple console application that is supposed to show a textbox with the value of a setting called "userID" with value 1001. This works like a charm. Now what I need is to change this value outside the editor, from notepad etc. When I open the application a lot in there is non-sence (& o! -å Þþþ,o" Ü+) etc. but with a quick (ctrl + F) I found the value 1001, and changed this to some other integer. I ran the application again, and it failed, didn't even give any userful error-message. At a point I tried just opening a newly published non-corrupted version of the application, didn't change anything, then saved from notepad, and it were also corrupted. It seems like notepad can't open some characters or something. Do I need to publish the application in some specific text-unicode language or something? Help much appreciated :) I know it sounds like a stupid application, but it is just a test of concept :) I use vb.net for this

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  • Convert charset in mysql query

    - by Yousf
    Hi, I have a question about converting charset from inside mysql query. I have a 2 databases. One for the website (joomla), the other for forum (IPB). I am doing query from inside joomla, which by default have "SET NAMES UTF8". I want to query a table inside the forum databases. A table called "ibf_topics". This table has latin1 encoding. I do the following to select anything from the not-utf8 table. //convert connection to handle latin1. $query = "SET NAMES latin1"; $db->setQuery($query); $db->query(); $query = "select id, title from other_database.ibf_topics"; $db->setQuery($query); $db->query(); //read result into an array. //return connection to handle UTF8. $query = "SET NAMES UTF8"; $db->setQuery($query); $db->query(); After that, when I want to use the selected tile, I use the following: echo iconv("CP1256", "UTF-8", $topic['title']) The question is, is there anyway to avoid all this hassle? For now, I can't change forum database to UTF8 and I can't change joomla database to latin1 :S

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