Search Results

Search found 54098 results on 2164 pages for 'something broken'.

Page 432/2164 | < Previous Page | 428 429 430 431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439  | Next Page >

• So many technologies to choose from. Where does the beginner start?

  - by Sahat

  WPF Silverlight Windows phone 7 w/ Silverlight iPhone OS w/ Objective-C Cocoa w/ Objective-C ASP.NET Android Facebook FBML HTML5 I will be graduating with B.S. in Computer Science soon and have to decide what do I want to learn from this list. I believe it's better to focus on one thing, master it and build up a portfolio to enhance my resume. Bachelor's Degree with no experience, no portfolio won't do me any good. It won't get me a job by itself. I need to have something that will greatly boost my resume. What would it be? iPhone development? ASP.NET web development? Facebook development? Or completely something else that I haven't listed? I understand it's natural for silverlight developers to say "Learn Silverlight", and iPhone developers say "Learn iPhone SDK and Objective-C". So please try to give a constructive, non-biased, non-objective opinion on which technology should I focus on. Please don't close the topic for "subjective/argumentative" reasons. I am just looking for some guidance.

  Read the article

• small code redundancy within while-loops (doesn't feel clean)

  - by wallacoloo

  So, in Python (though I think it can be applied to many languages), I find myself with something like this quite often: the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") while the_input != "quit": print the_input the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") Maybe I'm being too picky, but I don't like how the line the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") has to get repeated. It decreases maintainability and organization. But I don't see any workarounds for avoiding the duplicate code without further decreasing the problem. In some languages, I could write something like this: while ((the_input=raw_input("what to print?\n")) != "quit") { print the_input } This is definitely not Pythonic, and Python doesn't even allow for assignment within loop conditions AFAIK. This valid code fixes the redundancy, while 1: the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") if the_input == "quit": break print the_input But doesn't feel quite right either. The while 1 implies that this loop will run forever; I'm using a loop, but giving it a fake condition and putting the real one inside it. Am I being too picky? Is there a better way to do this? Perhaps there's some language construct designed for this that I don't know of?

  Read the article

• getting number from console!

  - by Johanna

  Hi this is my method that will be called if I want to get a number from user. but if the user also enter a right number just the "else" part will be run ,why? please help me tahnsk. public static int chooseTheTypeOfSorting() { System.out.println("Enter 0 for merge sorting OR enter 1 for bubble sorting"); int numberFromConsole = 0; try { InputStreamReader isr = new InputStreamReader(System.in); BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(isr); String s = br.readLine(); DecimalFormat df = new DecimalFormat(); Number n = df.parse(s); numberFromConsole = n.intValue(); } catch (ParseException ex) { Logger.getLogger(DoublyLinkedList.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } catch (IOException ex) { Logger.getLogger(DoublyLinkedList.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } return numberFromConsole; } and in my main method: public static void main(String[] args) { int i = 0; i = getRandomNumber(10, 10000); int p = chooseTheTypeOfSorting(); DoublyLinkedList list = new DoublyLinkedList(); for (int j = 0; j < i; j++) { list.add(j, getRandomNumber(10, 10000)); if (p == 0) { //do something.... } if (p == 1) { //do something..... } else { System.out.println("write the correct number "); chooseTheTypeOfSorting(); }

  Read the article

• SQL query recursion for a web-like structure

  - by MickeyD

  I have a table here, named "Foo". The data is set up something like this. ID TableReference DataId0 DataId1 DataId2 -- -------------- ------- ------- ------- 1 Prize 3 4 5 2 Prize 4 5 NULL 3 Cash 1 NULL NULL 4 Prize 8 NULL 12 5 Foo 2 3 NULL 6 Cash 8 1 10 7 Foo 5 1 2 Etc. The data is horribly set up, I know, but I didn't set it up that way. :) I'm only dealing with the after effect. I'm trying to come up with a way to essentially "flatten" the table; that is, to display all the data to a point where the table "Foo" does not reference itself. I'm trying to figure out a sql query that I can do to get there. Usually when I deal with recursion, I have (or can establish) parent IDs and set it up that way, but for this table there are seemingly multiple child and parent IDs creating a web-like structure instead of a hierarchy. So I'm at a loss where to even begin to write a sql query for something like this. Note: There is no infinite looping (where one Foo points to another Foo, which points back to the original Foo) from what I've found. Using t-sql. Thanks for any assistance, if at all possible.

  Read the article

• Silverlight 4 ComboBox - Binding to Nullable data (tried TargetNullValue but not working as expected)

  - by Laurence

  (Please note - I am a Silverlight beginner and am looking for the simplest solution here, e.g. that doesn't involve writing/installing a replacement for the ComboBox control!) This is an issue with a Silverlight 4 application that uses the View Model (MVVM) approach. I have a simple form for editing a "Product" object. Product has a CategoryID property which is nullable (int?). A ComboBox is used to view and set the CategoryID - this is bound to an ObservableCollection of Categories. Product also has number of non-nullable properties bound to TextBoxes. I want the user to see "N/A" in the ComboBox for a product with no category, and to be use this "N/A" option to set CategoryID to null. So, I manually added a Category object with CategoryID=0 and CategoryName="N/A" to the collection; then I set TargetNullValue=0 in the SelectedValue Binding of the ComboBox. My thinking was - when the ComboBox SelectedValue was bound to a null CategoryID it would substitute zero, and therefore select the "N/A" option. When editing a Product with a non-null CategoryID, everything works. However when a null CategoryID is found, two problems occur: No option is selected in the ComboBox (its blank) The ComboBox binding seems broken from this point onwards - any Product I subsequently edit (incl. ones with a non-null CategoryID) have nothing selected in the ComboBox (its still populated with all categories - just no selected item). I've seen reports of problem #2 (here, here) but I was under the impression that #1 should have worked. What am I missing to get the "N/A" option to be selected? XAML for ComboBox: <ComboBox x:Name="cboCategory" ItemsSource="{Binding colCategories, Mode=OneWay}" SelectedValuePath="CategoryID" DisplayMemberPath="CategoryName" SelectedValue="{Binding CurrentProduct.CategoryID, Mode=TwoWay, TargetNullValue=0}" Height="24" Width="344"></ComboBox>

  Read the article

• How do I change the base class at runtime in C#?

  - by MatthewMartin

  I may be working on mission impossible here, but I seem to be getting close. I want to extend a ASP.NET control, and I want my code to be unit testable. Also, I'd like to be able to fake behaviors of a real Label (namely things like ID generation, etc), which a real Label can't do in an nUnit host. Here a working example that makes assertions on something that depends on a real base class and something that doesn't-- in a more realistic unit test, the test would depend on both --i.e. an ID existing and some custom behavior. Anyhow the code says it better than I can: public class LabelWrapper : Label //Runtime //public class LabelWrapper : FakeLabel //Unit Test time { private readonly LabelLogic logic= new LabelLogic(); public override string Text { get { return logic.ProcessGetText(base.Text); } set { base.Text=logic.ProcessSetText(value); } } } //Ugh, now I have to test FakeLabelWrapper public class FakeLabelWrapper : FakeLabel //Unit Test time { private readonly LabelLogic logic= new LabelLogic(); public override string Text { get { return logic.ProcessGetText(base.Text); } set { base.Text=logic.ProcessSetText(value); } } } [TestFixture] public class UnitTest { [Test] public void Test() { //Wish this was LabelWrapper label = new LabelWrapper(new FakeBase()) LabelWrapper label = new LabelWrapper(); //FakeLabelWrapper label = new FakeLabelWrapper(); label.Text = "ToUpper"; Assert.AreEqual("TOUPPER",label.Text); StringWriter stringWriter = new StringWriter(); HtmlTextWriter writer = new HtmlTextWriter(stringWriter); label.RenderControl(writer); Assert.AreEqual(1,label.ID); Assert.AreEqual("<span>TOUPPER</span>", stringWriter.ToString()); } } public class FakeLabel { virtual public string Text { get; set; } public void RenderControl(TextWriter writer) { writer.Write("<span>" + Text + "</span>"); } } //System Under Test internal class LabelLogic { internal string ProcessGetText(string value) { return value.ToUpper(); } internal string ProcessSetText(string value) { return value.ToUpper(); } }

  Read the article

• ListCtrl - wxPython / Python

  - by Francisco Aleixo

  Hello everyone. My question is if we can assign/bind some value to a certain item and hide that value(or if we can do the same thing in another way). Example: Lets say the columns on ListCtrl are "Name" and "Description": self.lc = wx.ListCtrl(self, -1, style=wx.LC_REPORT) self.lc.InsertColumn(0, 'Name') self.lc.InsertColumn(1, 'Description') And when I add a item I want them to show the Name parameter and the description: num_items = self.lc.GetItemCount() self.lc.InsertStringItem(num_items, "Randomname") self.lc.SetStringItem(num_items, 1, "Some description here") Now what I want to do is basically assign something to that item that is not shown so I can access later on the app. So I would like to add something that is not shown on the app but is on the item value like: hiddendescription = "Somerandomthing" Still didn't undestand? Well lets say I add a button to add a item with some other TextCtrls to set the parameters and the TextCtrls parameters are: "Name" "Description" "Hiddendescription" So then the user fills this textctrls out and clicks the button to create the item, and I basically want only to show the Name and Description and hide the "HiddenDescription" but to do it so I can use it later. Sorry for explaining more than 1 time on this post but I want to make sure you understand what I pretend to do.

  Read the article

• C++ interpreter conceptual problem

  - by Jan Wilkins

  I've built an interpreter in C++ for a language created by me. One main problem in the design was that I had two different types in the language: number and string. So I have to pass around a struct like: class myInterpreterValue { myInterpreterType type; int intValue; string strValue; } Objects of this class are passed around million times a second during e.g.: a countdown loop in my language. Profiling pointed out: 85% of the performance is eaten by the allocation function of the string template. This is pretty clear to me: My interpreter has bad design and doesn't use pointers enough. Yet, I don't have an option: I can't use pointers in most cases as I just have to make copies. How to do something against this? Is a class like this a better idea? vector<string> strTable; vector<int> intTable; class myInterpreterValue { myInterpreterType type; int locationInTable; } So the class only knows what type it represents and the position in the table This however again has disadvantages: I'd have to add temporary values to the string/int vector table and then remove them again, this would eat a lot of performance again. Help, how do interpreters of languages like Python or Ruby do that? They somehow need a struct that represents a value in the language like something that can either be int or string.

  Read the article

• Why is my .htaccess file redirecting to full server path instead of relative path?

  - by death.au

  I've never had a problem with cakePHP before, but something's odd about this server and is causing the redirects in the .htaccess files to behave oddly. CakePHP uses mod_rewrite in .htaccess files to redirect requests to its own webroot folder. The problem is that the redirects are listing the wrong path and causing a 404 error. My CakePHP application, which is stored in the listings directory, has a .htaccess file as follows: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine on RewriteRule ^$ app/webroot/ [R=301,L] RewriteRule (.*) app/webroot/$1 [R=301,L] </IfModule> (*note that the R=301 causes an external redirect so we can see what is going on from our end. It should really omit this flag and do the redirect internally, transparent to end-users) This is supposed to redirect any request from http://hostname.com/~username/listings/ to http://hostname.com/~username/listings/app/webroot/ However, rather than simply adding “app/webroot/” to the end as it is supposed to, it is adding the full server path ( /home/username/public_html/listings/app/webroot/ ) resulting in the final URL http://hostname.com/home/username/public_html/listings/app/webroot/ which is obviously incorrect and triggers a 404 error. The hosting is on a shared hosting account, so that limits what I can do with the settings. I've never seen this happen before, and I'm thinking it's something wrong from the hosting side of things, but if anyone has some helpful suggestions then I can put them to the hosting company as well.

  Read the article

• MSSQL in ASP.NET application getting unstable after a certain period

  - by Barslett

  Hello, I have an ASP.NET 2.0 application that I made to keep track of disruption reports about our public transport system. The architecture is pretty straight-forward; an MSSQL Express 2008 database, ADO.NET and a DataSet/DAL with a few methods to access the database. There is a set of .aspx pages for the UI in use by our dispatchers and on our public website, as well as a set of SOAP and REST webservices and an RSS feed. Everything worked just fine for more than a year, until two weeks ago. Now and then, it seems as the database enters an unstable mode, and the application starts responding something right, something wrong. The typical error is that apparently, an empty DataTable is returned to the public disruption overview or to the RSS generator. Thus, the user gets e.g. an empty GridView, but no exception is thrown AFAIK, and nothing is written to the Windows Application log. After a restart of the MSSQL Express service, the situation is back to normal. It has to be said that the situation first time appeared a few days after I made a new minor upgrade of the application. The RSS generator was slightly rewritten, and I added a WCF REST service. But the DAL and the database schema were untouched... Any hints of how we could keep the database stable? It is a bit annoying not to have a clue ;-)

  Read the article

• Should client-server code be written in one "project" or two?

  - by Ricket

  I've been beginning a client-server application. At first I naturally created two projects in Eclipse, two source control repositories, etc. But I'm quickly seeing that there is a bit of shared code between the two that would probably benefit to sharing instead of copying. In addition, I've been learning and trying test-driven development, and it seems to me that it would be easier to test based on real client components rather than having to set up a huge amount of code just to mock something, when the code is probably mostly in the client. My biggest concern in merging the client and server is of security; how do I ensure that the server pieces of the code do not reach an user's computer? So especially if you are writing client-server applications yourself (and especially in Java, though this can turn into a language-agnostic question if you'd like to share your experience with this in other languages), what sort of separation do you keep between your client and server code? Are they just in different packages/namespaces or completely different binaries using shared libraries, or something else entirely? How do you test the code together and yet ship separately?

  Read the article

• Can I use a keyPath in a predicate?

  - by dontWatchMyProfile

  For some reason, this didn't work (although the keypath does exist): NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"department.departmentName == %@", departmentName]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; NSError *fetchError = nil; NSUInteger count = [moc countForFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&fetchError]; // execution simply stops at this line, with no error or console log Execution just stops at the last line above when asking for the count. I don't get an console log. Also I don't get any kind of exception. The execution just stops. There are no objects in the persistent store yet. So maybe it crashes because of it tries to follow a keypath in a nonexisting object? Does that make sense? The line where GDB stops is this: 0x002a31cb <+0459> test %eax,%eax Previously to that, I see a lot of NSSQLAdapter... calls in the stack trace. There's definitely something wrong. Well, but when I set the Entity to the destination of the key path and then just do something like NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"departmentName == %@", departmentName]; then there is no problem and count simply is 0.

  Read the article

• ASP.NET inline code in a server control

  - by John

  Ok, we had a problem come up today at work. It is a strange one that I never would have even thought to try. <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %>" > Ok, it is very ugly and I wouldn't have ever tried it myself. It came up in some code that was written years ago but had been working up until this weekend after a bunch of updates were installed on a client's web server where the code is hosted. The actual result of this is the following html: <form name="form1" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=&lt;%= ID %>" id="form1"> The url ends up like this: http://localhost:6735/Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %> Which as you can see, demonstrates that the "<" symbol is being encoded before ASP.NET actually processes the page. It seems strange to me as I thought that even though it is not pretty by any means, it should work. I'm confused. To make matters worse, the client insists that it is a bug in IE since it appears to work in Firefox. In fact, it is broken in Firefox as well, except for some reason Firefox treats it as a 0. Any ideas on why this happens and how to fix it easily? Everything I try to render within the server control ends up getting escaped. Edit Ok, I found a "fix" <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action='<%# String.Format("Default.aspx?id={0}", 5) %>' > But that requires me to call DataBind which is adding more of a hack to the original hack. Guess if nobody thinks of anything else I'll have to go with that.

  Read the article

• Designing a class in such a way that it doesn't become a "God object"

  - by devoured elysium

  I'm designing an application that will allow me to draw some functions on a graphic. Each function will be drawn from a set of points that I will pass to this graphic class. There are different kinds of points, all inheriting from a MyPoint class. For some kind of points it will be just printing them on the screen as they are, others can be ignored, others added, so there is some kind of logic associated to them that can get complex. How to actually draw the graphic is not the main issue here. What bothers me is how to make the code logic such that this GraphicMaker class doesn't become the so called God-Object. It would be easy to make something like this: class GraphicMaker { ArrayList<Point> points = new ArrayList<Point>(); public void AddPoint(Point point) { points.add(point); } public void DoDrawing() { foreach (Point point in points) { if (point is PointA) { //some logic here else if (point is PointXYZ) { //...etc } } } } How would you do something like this? I have a feeling the correct way would be to put the drawing logic on each Point object (so each child class from Point would know how to draw itself) but two problems arise: There will be kinds of points that need to know all the other points that exist in the GraphicObject class to know how to draw themselves. I can make a lot of the methods/properties from the Graphic class public, so that all the points have a reference to the Graphic class and can make all their logic as they want, but isn't that a big price to pay for not wanting to have a God class?

  Read the article

• How to create an array of buttons in C++

  - by mangoman13

  Hi, I'm using C++ in VS2005 and have an 8x8 grid of buttons on a form. I want to have these buttons in an array, so when I click on any of them it will open the same event handler (I think that is what they are called), but I will know the index of which one was clicked on. I know how to do this in VB and C#, but I can't seem to figure it out with C++ Right now I have all my buttons labelled by their location, i.e. b00, b10, b21, etc. So I think what I am looking for is a way to do something like this: Button b[8][8]; //this causes me errors (error C2728: 'System::Windows::Forms::Button' : a native array cannot contain this managed type) and (error C2227: left of '->{ctor}' must point to class/struct/union/generic type) void Assignment(){ b[0][0] = b00; b[1][0] = b10; ... } and then in form1.h: private: System::Void b_Click(System::Object^ sender, System::EventArgs^ e) { //somehow read the coordinates into variables x and y //do something based on these values } Any help would be appreciated. Also let me know if I am going in the complete wrong direction with this. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Django repeating vars/cache issue?

  - by Mark

  I'm trying to build a better/more powerful form class for Django. It's working well, except for these sub-forms. Actually, it works perfectly right after I re-start apache, but after I refresh the page a few times, my HTML output starts to look like this: <input class="text" type="text" id="pickup_addr-pickup_addr-pickup_addr-id-pickup_addr-venue" value="" name="pickup_addr-pickup_addr-pickup_addr-pickup_addr-venue" /> The pickup_addr- part starts repeating many times. I was looking for loops around the prefix code that might have cause this to happen, but the output isn't even consistent when I refresh the page, so I think something is getting cached somewhere, but I can't even imagine how that's possible. The prefix car should be reset when the class is initialized, no? Unless it's somehow not initializing something? class Form(object): count = 0 def __init__(self, data={}, prefix='', action='', id=None, multiple=False): self.fields = {} self.subforms = {} self.data = {} self.action = action self.id = fnn(id, 'form%d' % Form.count) self.errors = [] self.valid = True if not empty(prefix) and prefix[-1:] not in ('-','_'): prefix += '-' for name, field in inspect.getmembers(self, lambda m: isinstance(m, Field)): if name[:2] == '__': continue field_name = fnn(field.name, name) field.label = fnn(field.label, humanize(field_name)) field.name = field.widget.name = prefix + field_name + ife(multiple, '[]') field.id = field.auto_id = field.widget.id = ife(field.id==None, 'id-') + prefix + fnn(field.id, field_name) + ife(multiple, Form.count) field.errors = [] val = fnn(field.widget.get_value(data), field.default) if isinstance(val, basestring): try: val = field.coerce(field.format(val)) except Exception, err: self.valid = False field.errors.append(escape_html(err)) field.val = self.data[name] = field.widget.val = val for rule in field.rules: rule.fields = self.fields rule.val = field.val rule.name = field.name self.fields[name] = field for name, form in inspect.getmembers(self, lambda m: ispropersubclass(m, Form)): if name[:2] == '__': continue self.subforms[name] = self.__dict__[name] = form(data=data, prefix='%s%s-' % (prefix, name)) Form.count += 1 Let me know if you need more code... I know it's a lot, but I just can't figure out what's causing this!

  Read the article

• how can a Win32 App plugin load its DLL in its own directory

  - by Jean-Denis Muys

  My code is a plugin for a specific Application, written in C++ using Visual Studio 8. It uses two DLL from an external provider. Unfortunately, my plugin fails to start because the DLLs are not found (I put them in the same directory as the plugin itself). When I manually move or copy the DLLs to the host application directory, then the plugin loads fine. This moving was deemed unacceptably cumbersome for the end user, and I am looking for a way for my plugin to load its DLLs transparently. What can I do? Relevant details: the host Application plugins are located in a directory mandated by the host application. That directory is not in the DLL search path and I don't control it. The plugin is itself packaged as a subdirectory of the plugin directory, holding the plugin code itself, but also any resource associated with the plugin (eg images, configuration files…). I control what's inside that subdirectory, called a "bundle", but not where it's located. the common plugin installation idiom for that App is for the end user to copy the plugin bundle to the plugin directory. This plugin is a port from the Macintosh version of the plugin. On the Mac there is no issue because each binary contains its own dynamic library search path, which I set as I needed to for my plugin binary. To set that on the Mac simply involves a project setting in the Xcode IDE. This is why I would hope for something similar in Visual Studio, but I could not find anything relevant. Moreover, Visual Studio's help was anything but, and neither was Google. A possible workaround would be for my code to explicitly tell Windows where to find the DLL, but I don't know how, and in any case, since my code is not even started, it hasn't got the opportunity to do so. As a Mac developer, I realize that I may be asking for something very elementary. If such is the case, I apologize, but I have run out of hair to pull out.

  Read the article

• memcache is not storing data accross requests

  - by morpheous

  I am new to using memcache, so I may be doing something wrong. I have written a wrapper class around memcache. The wrapper class has only static methods, so is a quasi singleton. The class looks something like this: class myCache { private static $memcache = null; private static $initialized = false; public static function init() { if (self::$initialized) return; self::$memcache = new Memcache(); if (self::configure()) //connects to daemon { self::store('foo', 'bar'); } else throw ConnectionError('I barfed'); } public static function store($key, $data, $flag=MEMCACHE_COMPRESSED, $timeout=86400) { if (self::$memcache->get($key)!== false) return self::$memcache->replace($key, $data, $flag, $timeout); return self::$memcache->set($key, $data, $flag, $timeout); } public static function fetch($key) { return self::$memcache->get($key); } } //in my index.php file, I use the class like this require_once('myCache.php'); myCache::init(); echo 'Stored value is: '. myCache::fetch('foo'); The problem is that the myCache::init() method is being executed in full everytime a page is requested. I then remembered that static variables do not maintain state accross page requests. So I decided instead, to store the flag that indicates whether the server contains the start up data (for our purposes, the variable 'foo', with value 'bar') in memcache itself. Once the status flag is stored in memcache itself, It solves the problem of the initialisation data being loaded for every page request (which quite frankly, defeats the purpose of memcache). However, having solved that problem, when I come to fetch the data in memcache, it is empty. I dont understand whats going on. Can anyone clarify how I can store my data once and retrieve it accross page requests? BTW, (just to clarify), the get/set is working correctly, and if I allow memcache to load the initialisation data for each page request, (which is silly), then the data is available in memcache.

  Read the article

• Bind a list to silverlight datagrid/datafrom columns

  - by nilarya

  There must be something I am missing, I want to do a very simple thing, for example, I have a class like the following: public class Person { public int ID { get; set; } public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } public DateTime DateOfBirth { get; set; } public List<string> phoneNumbers { get; set; } } I want to bind it to a dataform by something like this: public Person person { get; set; } List<string> lst = new List<string>(); lst.Add("123445"); lst.Add("2345345"); lst.Add("4576345"); lst.Add("456784"); lst.Add("789067"); person = new Person() { ID = 1, FirstName = "Kevin", LastName = "Dockx", DateOfBirth = new DateTime(1981, 5, 5), Lookup = lst }; and then dataForm1.CurrentItem = person; What I am doing wrong?

  Read the article

• Swapping content in a seperate div on hover

  - by Fuego DeBassi

  I feel like this should work: $(".module .one").hover(function() { $("#viewport #one").addClass('red'); }); Basically I am hiding all the .children of "#viewport on load, then when a seperate element is hovered, in this case .module .one I want to change something on the corresponding viewport ID #viewport #one. Basic idea is a variable content window, where when a thumbnail or whatever I put in the modules swaps the content shown in the viewport. Something I am doing wrong? Here is my full code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".module .caption").hide(); $("#viewport").children().hide(); $(".module").hover(function() { $(this).find(".caption").slideDown().end().siblings('.module').addClass('under'); },function() { $(this).find(".caption").slideUp().end().siblings('.module').removeClass('under'); }); $(".module .one").hover(function() { $("#viewport #one").addClass('red'); }); }); </script> The bigger hover function in the middle is for some fancy rollover effects that the modules will perform themselves, but for these purposes I just want to figure out why I can't add a Class to a separate element when another is hovered. Would love some help/advice!

  Read the article

• How can I set the name of the class xml by constructor?

  - by spderosso

  Hi, I want to be able to do something like this: @Root(name="events") class XMLEvents { @ElementList(inline=true) ArrayList<XMLEvent> events = Lists.newArrayList(); XMLEvents(){ ... events.add(new XMLEvent(time, type, professorP)); events.add(new XMLEvent(time, type, student)); events.add(new XMLEvent(time, type, course)); ... } } The XMLEvent class to go something like: class XMLEvent { @Root(name="professor") XMLEvent(DateTime time, LogType type, Professor p){ ... } @Root(name="student") XMLEvent(DateTime time, LogType type, Student st){ ... } @Root(name="course") XMLEvent(DateTime time, LogType type, Course c){ ... } } For the output to be: <events> <professor> ... </professor> <student> ... </student> <course> ... </course> </events> So depending on the constructor I call to create a new XMLEvent the root name to which is mapped is different. Is this even possible? Of course the past example was just to transmit what I need. Putting the @Root annotation there didn't change anything Thanks!

  Read the article

• How to use google maps API with multiple markers on the same map

  - by Maen

  So, i have the following script to use the google maps API, its all fine, but i need to create a map that has more than one Marker (the balloon shaped icon pointing to something) and i need each of those markers to point on a different area of the map (i.e. different coordinates), how can i do it? <script type="text/javascript"> function load() { var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); var marker = new GMarker(new GLatLng(<%=coordinates%>)); var html="<img src='simplemap_logo.jpg' width='20' height='20'/> " + "<%=maptitle%><br/>" + "<%=text%>"; map.setCenter(new GLatLng(<%=coordinates%>), <%=zoom%>) map.setMapType(G_HYBRID_MAP); map.addOverlay(marker); map.addControl(new GLargeMapControl()); map.addControl(new GScaleControl()); map.addControl(new GMapTypeControl()); marker.openInfoWindowHtml(html); } //]]> </script> One more question, if i pass the Script text as a variable, lets say something like: <script type="text/javascript"> <%=ScriptText%> </script> and my <%=ScriptText% will be a string which i will build and assign its value to a Friend or Public variable called ScriptText, will it still run and work properly? (i am doing this to make my script dynamic and different based on how i build it as a STRING, due to my illiteracy in javascripting ;P)

  Read the article

• JQuery - Fade in new Background Image?

  - by JasonS

  Hi, I think I may be trying something that isn't possible. I was recently tasked to create a html version of the flash site. On the flash site when you click on the body the image changes. I have done this with JQuery. Its brilliant! However.. it isn't "flash" enough. The powers that be want a fade effect between images. This is where I have come completely undone. This is how my script works at the moment. Images are stored in a div called photos. This is hidden. <div id="photos"> <img src="image.jpg" alt="Some caption" style="#page-bg-color" /> </div> When the page is loaded jquery checks to see if the first image is loaded. If it isn't then a loading symbol spins. When the image is loaded, it becomes the body background. $("body").css('background', 'url(' + photos[currentImage]["url"] + ') no-repeat 50% 50% fixed ' + photos[currentImage]["background"]); I have tried the following. I have tried animate. However, this doesn't work. I have tried this plugin: http://plugins.jquery.com/project/bgImageTransition This doesn't work either. It appears to clone the tag and do something. I assume it isn't working because you cannot clone the body tag. That or it is really old and is no longer compatible with the current version of JQuery. I fear that I have coded my way down a dead end. Does anybody know how I could make this work?

  Read the article

• Android, NetworkInfo.getTypeName(), NullpointerException

  - by moppel

  I have an activity which shows some List entries. When I click on a list item my app checks which connection type is available ("WIF" or "MOBILE"), through NetworkInfo.getTypeName(). As soon as I call this method I get a NullpointerException. Why? I tested this on the emulator, cause my phone is currently not available (it's broken...). I assume this is the problem? This is the only explanation that I have, if that's not the case I have no idea why this would be null. Here's some code snippet: public class VideoList extends ListActivity{ ... public void onCreate(Bundle bundle){ final ConnectivityManager cm = (ConnectivityManager) getSystemService(Context.CONNECTIVITY_SERVICE); ... listview.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener(){ public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> parent, View view, int position, long id) { ... NetworkInfo ni = cm.getActiveNetworkInfo(); String connex = ni.getTypeName(); //Nullpointer exception here if(connex.equals("WIFI")doSomething(); } }); } }

  Read the article

• Why can't I access the facebook friends list after reopening a session in ios

  - by user1532390

  I am upgrading to the facebook 3.0 sdk for ios. Things went well, until I tried to open an existing session after relaunching the application. I am trying to access the list of friends for the facebook user. if ([[FBSession activeSession] isOpen]) { [request startWithCompletionHandler:^(FBRequestConnection *connection, id result, NSError *error) { //do something here }]; }else{ [[self session] openWithCompletionHandler:^(FBSession *session, FBSessionState status, NSError *error) { if ([self isValid]) { [request startWithCompletionHandler:^(FBRequestConnection *connection, id result, NSError *error) { //log this error we always get NSLog(@"%@",error); //do something else }]; } }]; } However I get this error: Error Domain=com.facebook.sdk Code=5 "The operation couldn’t be completed. (com.facebook.sdk error 5.)" UserInfo=0x1d92ff40 {com.facebook.sdk:ParsedJSONResponseKey={ body = { error = { code = 2500; message = "An active access token must be used to query information about the current user."; type = OAuthException; }; }; code = 400; }, com.facebook.sdk:HTTPStatusCode=400} I've found that if I use the FBSession reauthorize method it allows me to complete the request without error, but it also means I must show UI or switch apps every time we relaunch the application which is unacceptable. Any suggestions on what I should be doing differently?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 428 429 430 431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439  | Next Page >