Search Results

Search found 54098 results on 2164 pages for 'something broken'.

Page 433/2164 | < Previous Page | 429 430 431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440  | Next Page >

  • How can I force a ListView with a custom panel to re-measure when the ListView width goes below the

    - by Scott Whitlock
    Sorry for the long winded question (I'm including background here). If you just want the question, go to the end. I have a ListView with a custom Panel implementation that I'm using to implement something similar to a WrapPanel, but not quite. I'm overriding the MeasureOverride and ArrangeOverride methods in the custom panel. If I do the naive implementation of a WrapPanel in the MeasureOverride method it doesn't work when the ListView is resized. Let's say the custom panel does a measure and the constraint is a width of 100 and let's say I have 3 items that are 40 wide each. The naive approach is to return a size of 80,80 but when I resize the window that the ListView is in, down to say 75, it just turns on the horizontal scrollbar and never calls measure or arrange again (it does keep measuring and arranging if the width is greater than 80). To get around this, I hard coded the measurement to only have a width of the widest item. Then in the arrange, it gives me more space than I asked for and I use as much horizontal space as I can before wrapping. If I resize the window smaller than the smallest item in the ListView, then it turns on the scrollbar, which is great. Unfortunately this is causing a big problem when I have one of these ListViews with a custom panel nested inside of another one. The outside one works ok, but I can't get the inside one to "take as much as it needs". It always sizes to the smallest item, and the only way around it is to set the MinWidth to be something greater than zero. Anyway, stepping back for a second, I think the real way to fix this is to go back to the Naive implementation of the WrapPanel but force it to re-measure when the ListView width goes below the Size I previously returned as a measurement. That should solve my problem with the nested one. So, that's my question: I have a ListView with a custom panel If I return a measurement width on the panel and the ListView is resized to less than that width, it stops calling MeasureOverride How can I get it to continue calling MeasureOverride?

    Read the article

  • Static code analysis for new language. Where to start?

    - by tinny
    I just been given a new assignment which looks like its going to be an interesting challenge. The customer is wanting a code style checking tool to be developed for their internal (soon to be open sourced) programming language which runs on the JVM. The language syntax is very Java like. The customer basically wants me to produce something like checkstyle. So my question is this, how would you approach this problem? Given a clean slate what recommendations would you make to the customer? I think I have 3 options Write something from scratch. Id prefer not to do this as it seems like this sort of code analysis tool problem has been solved so many times that there must be a more "framework" or "platform" orientated approach. Fork an existing code style checking tool and modify the parsing to fit with this new language etc etc Extend or plug into an existing static code analysis tool. (maybe write a plugin for Yasca?) Maybe you would like to share your experiences in this area? Thanks for reading

    Read the article

  • Linq In Clause & Predicate building

    - by Michael G
    I have two tables. Report and ReportData. ReportData has a constraint ReportID. How can I write my linq query to return all Report objects where the predicate conditions are met for ReportData? Something like this in SQL: SELECT * FROM Report as r Where r.ServiceID = 3 and r.ReportID IN (Select ReportID FROM ReportData WHERE JobID LIKE 'Something%') This is how I'm building my predicate: Expression<Func<ReportData, bool>> predicate = PredicateBuilder.True<ReportData>(); predicate = predicate.And(x => x.JobID.StartsWith(QueryConfig.Instance.DataStreamName)); var q = engine.GetReports(predicate, reportsDataContext); reports = q.ToList(); This is my query construction at the moment: public override IQueryable<Report> GetReports(Expression<Func<ReportData, bool>> predicate, LLReportsDataContext reportDC) { if (reportDC == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("reportDC"); var q = reportDC.ReportDatas.Where(predicate).Where(r => r.ServiceID.Equals(1)).Select(r => r.Report); return q; }

    Read the article

  • JQuery - Fade in new Background Image?

    - by JasonS
    Hi, I think I may be trying something that isn't possible. I was recently tasked to create a html version of the flash site. On the flash site when you click on the body the image changes. I have done this with JQuery. Its brilliant! However.. it isn't "flash" enough. The powers that be want a fade effect between images. This is where I have come completely undone. This is how my script works at the moment. Images are stored in a div called photos. This is hidden. <div id="photos"> <img src="image.jpg" alt="Some caption" style="#page-bg-color" /> </div> When the page is loaded jquery checks to see if the first image is loaded. If it isn't then a loading symbol spins. When the image is loaded, it becomes the body background. $("body").css('background', 'url(' + photos[currentImage]["url"] + ') no-repeat 50% 50% fixed ' + photos[currentImage]["background"]); I have tried the following. I have tried animate. However, this doesn't work. I have tried this plugin: http://plugins.jquery.com/project/bgImageTransition This doesn't work either. It appears to clone the tag and do something. I assume it isn't working because you cannot clone the body tag. That or it is really old and is no longer compatible with the current version of JQuery. I fear that I have coded my way down a dead end. Does anybody know how I could make this work?

    Read the article

  • Grep expression with special file names

    - by user2919185
    i am a real beginner in csh/tcsh scripting and that's why i need your help. The problem is I have to go through some regular files in directories and find those files, that have their own name in its content. In the following piece of script is cycle in which I am going through paths and using grep to find the file's name in its content. What is surely correct is $something:q - is array of paths where i have to find files. The next variable is name in which is only name of current file. for example: /home/computer/text.txt (paths) and: text.txt (name) And my biggest problem is to find names of files in their content. It's quite difficult for me to write correct grep for this, cause the names of files and directories that i am passing through are mad. Here are some of them: /home/OS/pocitacove/testovaci_adresar/z/test4.pre_expertov/!_1 /home/OS/pocitacove/testovaci_adresar/z/test4.pre_expertov/dam/$user/:e/'/-r /home/OS/pocitacove/testovaci_adresar/z/test3/skusime/ taketo/ taketo /home/OS/pocitacove/testovaci_adresar/z/test4.pre_expertov/.-bla/.-bla/.a=b /home/OS/pocitacove/testovaci_adresar/z/test4.pre_expertov/.-bla/.-bla/@ /home/OS/pocitacove/testovaci_adresar/z/test4.pre_expertov/.-bla/.-bla/: /home/OS/pocitacove/testovaci_adresar/z/test4.pre_expertov/.-bla/.-bla/'ano' foreach paths ($something:q) set name = "$paths:t" @ number = (`grep -Ec "$name" "$paths"`) if ($number != 0) then echo -n "$paths " echo $number endif @ number = 0 end

    Read the article

  • How To Share Information Between Django and Javascript?

    - by Randy
    So I am pretty new to both Django and Javascript (I am using JQuery) and I am wondering if I am doing a hack or if there are more slick ways to send client-side displayed database ids to the django server-side. Here is my process: I have a dataTable (http://datatables.net) that I am displaying rows of data by using the bProcessing option to use AJAX to retrieve records from the database. The URL in my urls.py is something like: url(r'^assets/activitylog/(?P<cid>.*)$', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and my dataTable ajax-relavant code is something like: "sAjaxSource": "/assets/activitylog/" + getIDFromHTML(), where the javascript function getIDFromHTML() grabs <cid> that is used by the Django view is simply: function getIDFromHTML(){ // Simply return the text in the #release_id div element from the HTML return $("#release_id").html(); }; This is the part that seems "hacky" to me. I am inserting into my template code the database id that I am using in the datatables URL (with display:none in the css) just so I can pass it back to the view. Most of this is necessitated because one cannot use django template tags in the javascript code unless the code is embedded into the HTML itself, which I am not (and will not) do. The only other thing that I have found is to change the URL to get rid of the parameter passed in to: url(r'^assets/activitylog', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and change the view code to: def getActivityTable_ajax(request): """Returns the activity for a given pid from HTTP GET ajax reqest""" pid = int(urlparse.urlparse(request.META['HTTP_REFERER']).path.split('/')[-1]) # rest of view code here... since the id that I need is on the end of this referer url. This way I don't have to monkey around with embedding the hidden database id into the HTML and passing it back to via ajax the the table population view code. Is it okay to use HTTP_REFERER in the request object in this manner? Am I going about this in the totally wrong way? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Can I use a keyPath in a predicate?

    - by dontWatchMyProfile
    For some reason, this didn't work (although the keypath does exist): NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"department.departmentName == %@", departmentName]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; NSError *fetchError = nil; NSUInteger count = [moc countForFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&fetchError]; // execution simply stops at this line, with no error or console log Execution just stops at the last line above when asking for the count. I don't get an console log. Also I don't get any kind of exception. The execution just stops. There are no objects in the persistent store yet. So maybe it crashes because of it tries to follow a keypath in a nonexisting object? Does that make sense? The line where GDB stops is this: 0x002a31cb <+0459> test %eax,%eax Previously to that, I see a lot of NSSQLAdapter... calls in the stack trace. There's definitely something wrong. Well, but when I set the Entity to the destination of the key path and then just do something like NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"departmentName == %@", departmentName]; then there is no problem and count simply is 0.

    Read the article

  • How do I change the base class at runtime in C#?

    - by MatthewMartin
    I may be working on mission impossible here, but I seem to be getting close. I want to extend a ASP.NET control, and I want my code to be unit testable. Also, I'd like to be able to fake behaviors of a real Label (namely things like ID generation, etc), which a real Label can't do in an nUnit host. Here a working example that makes assertions on something that depends on a real base class and something that doesn't-- in a more realistic unit test, the test would depend on both --i.e. an ID existing and some custom behavior. Anyhow the code says it better than I can: public class LabelWrapper : Label //Runtime //public class LabelWrapper : FakeLabel //Unit Test time { private readonly LabelLogic logic= new LabelLogic(); public override string Text { get { return logic.ProcessGetText(base.Text); } set { base.Text=logic.ProcessSetText(value); } } } //Ugh, now I have to test FakeLabelWrapper public class FakeLabelWrapper : FakeLabel //Unit Test time { private readonly LabelLogic logic= new LabelLogic(); public override string Text { get { return logic.ProcessGetText(base.Text); } set { base.Text=logic.ProcessSetText(value); } } } [TestFixture] public class UnitTest { [Test] public void Test() { //Wish this was LabelWrapper label = new LabelWrapper(new FakeBase()) LabelWrapper label = new LabelWrapper(); //FakeLabelWrapper label = new FakeLabelWrapper(); label.Text = "ToUpper"; Assert.AreEqual("TOUPPER",label.Text); StringWriter stringWriter = new StringWriter(); HtmlTextWriter writer = new HtmlTextWriter(stringWriter); label.RenderControl(writer); Assert.AreEqual(1,label.ID); Assert.AreEqual("<span>TOUPPER</span>", stringWriter.ToString()); } } public class FakeLabel { virtual public string Text { get; set; } public void RenderControl(TextWriter writer) { writer.Write("<span>" + Text + "</span>"); } } //System Under Test internal class LabelLogic { internal string ProcessGetText(string value) { return value.ToUpper(); } internal string ProcessSetText(string value) { return value.ToUpper(); } }

    Read the article

  • How to prevent PHP variables from being arrays?

    - by MJB
    I think that (the title) is the problem I am having. I set up a MySQL connection, I read an XML file, and then I insert those values into a table by looping through the elements. The problem is, instead of inserting only 1 record, sometimes I insert 2 or 3 or 4. It seems to depend on the previous values I have read. I think I am reinitializing the variables, but I guess I am missing something -- hopefully something simple. Here is my code. I originally had about 20 columns, but I shortened the included version to make it easier to read. $ctr = 0; $sql = "insert into csd (id,type,nickname,hostname,username,password) ". "values (?,?,?,?,?,?)"; $cur = $db->prepare($sql); for ($ctr = 0; $ctr < $expected_count; $ctr++) { list ( $lbl, $type, $nickname, $hostname, $username, $password) = ""; $bind_vars = array(); $lbl = "csd_{$ctr}"; $type = $ref->itm->csds->$lbl->type; $nickname = $ref->itm->csds->$lbl->nickname; $hostname = $ref->itm->csds->$lbl->hostname; $username = $ref->itm->csds->$lbl->username; $password = $ref->itm->csds->$lbl->password; $bind_vars = array($id,$type,$nickname,$hostname,$username,$password); $res = $db->execute($cur, $bind_vars); # this is a separate function which works, but which only # does SELECTS and cannot be the problem. I include it because I # want to count the total rows. printf ("%d CSDs on that ITEM now.\n", CountCSDs($id_to_sync)); } P.S. I also tagged this SimpleXML because that is how I am reading the file, though that code is not included above. It looks like this: $Ref = simplexml_load_file($file);

    Read the article

  • ListCtrl - wxPython / Python

    - by Francisco Aleixo
    Hello everyone. My question is if we can assign/bind some value to a certain item and hide that value(or if we can do the same thing in another way). Example: Lets say the columns on ListCtrl are "Name" and "Description": self.lc = wx.ListCtrl(self, -1, style=wx.LC_REPORT) self.lc.InsertColumn(0, 'Name') self.lc.InsertColumn(1, 'Description') And when I add a item I want them to show the Name parameter and the description: num_items = self.lc.GetItemCount() self.lc.InsertStringItem(num_items, "Randomname") self.lc.SetStringItem(num_items, 1, "Some description here") Now what I want to do is basically assign something to that item that is not shown so I can access later on the app. So I would like to add something that is not shown on the app but is on the item value like: hiddendescription = "Somerandomthing" Still didn't undestand? Well lets say I add a button to add a item with some other TextCtrls to set the parameters and the TextCtrls parameters are: "Name" "Description" "Hiddendescription" So then the user fills this textctrls out and clicks the button to create the item, and I basically want only to show the Name and Description and hide the "HiddenDescription" but to do it so I can use it later. Sorry for explaining more than 1 time on this post but I want to make sure you understand what I pretend to do.

    Read the article

  • Field Members vs Method Variables?

    - by Braveyard
    Recently I've been thinking about performance difference between class field members and method variables. What exactly I mean is in the example below : Lets say we have a DataContext object for Linq2SQL class DataLayer { ProductDataContext context = new ProductDataContext(); public IQueryable<Product> GetData() { return context.Where(t=>t.ProductId == 2); } } In the example above, context will be stored in heap and the GetData method variables will be removed from Stack after Method is executed. So lets examine the following example to make a distinction : class DataLayer { public IQueryable<Product> GetData() { ProductDataContext context = new ProductDataContext(); return context.Where(t=>t.ProductId == 2); } } (*1) So okay first thing we know is if we define ProductDataContext instance as a field, we can reach it everywhere in the class which means we don't have to create same object instance all the time. But lets say we are talking about Asp.NET and once the users press submit button the post data is sent to the server and the events are executed and the posted data stored in a database via the method above so it is probable that the same user can send different data after one another.If I know correctly after the page is executed, the finalizers come into play and clear things from memory (from heap) and that means we lose our instance variables from memory as well and after another post, DataContext should be created once again for the new page cycle. So it seems the only benefit of declaring it publicly to the whole class is the just number one text above. Or is there something other? Thanks in advance... (If I told something incorrect please fix me.. )

    Read the article

  • Problems migrating databinding in VB.NET from Winforms to ASP.NET 2.0

    - by David
    And this was supposed to be so easy... I have existing business and data access layers that handle the retrieval and update of the data in question. These work great with the existing Winforms application (.Net V2.0) Now, in trying to write a new web-based UI, I'm running into all sorts of problems (last time I wrote asp.net code was in 1.1). Specifically, I can't data bind a text box to a business object. Oh, sure there's the ObjectDataSource but that wants to know how to do CRUD operations on the data. What I'm looking for is something that acts like the 'classic' binding objects so that, in my code, it's as simple as retrieving the object and doing a a refresh. The data component like FormView and DetailsView are so generic-looking that it's ridiculous. The existing application would have tabbed dialogs, text boxes grouped by panels, etc. On top of that, I have a directive to use master pages and unless one control causes it, I can't seem to get the content section to expand. I can't just put a text box 'below' the bottom of "Content1" and have it resize the content section - which gives me the same results as an earlier question I posted when the footer wasn't being 'pushed down' - relative position solved that but doesn't seem to solve it with placing small text boxes in the area. What I want is fairly simple. Something like: bindingobject.datasource = businessdataobject bindingobject.refresh ...and have the text boxes refresh with the new values. Likewise to have 'businessdataobject' properties updated as the user enters new data. I was able to do this with the GridView (grdRequests.DataSource = lstRequests) by making a list of asp:BoundField tags inside the collection of the GridView. Am I tilting at windmills here?

    Read the article

  • small code redundancy within while-loops (doesn't feel clean)

    - by wallacoloo
    So, in Python (though I think it can be applied to many languages), I find myself with something like this quite often: the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") while the_input != "quit": print the_input the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") Maybe I'm being too picky, but I don't like how the line the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") has to get repeated. It decreases maintainability and organization. But I don't see any workarounds for avoiding the duplicate code without further decreasing the problem. In some languages, I could write something like this: while ((the_input=raw_input("what to print?\n")) != "quit") { print the_input } This is definitely not Pythonic, and Python doesn't even allow for assignment within loop conditions AFAIK. This valid code fixes the redundancy, while 1: the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") if the_input == "quit": break print the_input But doesn't feel quite right either. The while 1 implies that this loop will run forever; I'm using a loop, but giving it a fake condition and putting the real one inside it. Am I being too picky? Is there a better way to do this? Perhaps there's some language construct designed for this that I don't know of?

    Read the article

  • Multiple calls to preg_replace alters result

    - by Hurpe
    I have a bunch of files that were named in a somewhat standard format. The standard form is basically this: [integer]_word1_word2_word3_ ... _wordn where a word could really be anything, but all words are separated by an underscore. There is really only 3 things I want to do to the text: 1.) I want to modify the integer, which is always at the beginning, so that something like "200" would become $ 200.00. 2.) replace any "words" of the form "with", "With", "w/", or "W/" with "with". 3.) Replace all underscores with a space. I wrote three different preg_replace calls to do the trick. They are as follows: 1.) $filename = preg_replace("/(^[0-9]+)/","$ $1.00",$filename) 2.) $filename = preg_replace("/_([wW]|[wW]ith)_/"," with ",$filename) 3.) $filename = preg_replace("/_/"," ",$filename); Each replacement works as expected when run individually, but when all three are run, the 2nd replacement is ignored. Why would something like that occur? Thanks for the help!

    Read the article

  • Swapping content in a seperate div on hover

    - by Fuego DeBassi
    I feel like this should work: $(".module .one").hover(function() { $("#viewport #one").addClass('red'); }); Basically I am hiding all the .children of "#viewport on load, then when a seperate element is hovered, in this case .module .one I want to change something on the corresponding viewport ID #viewport #one. Basic idea is a variable content window, where when a thumbnail or whatever I put in the modules swaps the content shown in the viewport. Something I am doing wrong? Here is my full code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".module .caption").hide(); $("#viewport").children().hide(); $(".module").hover(function() { $(this).find(".caption").slideDown().end().siblings('.module').addClass('under'); },function() { $(this).find(".caption").slideUp().end().siblings('.module').removeClass('under'); }); $(".module .one").hover(function() { $("#viewport #one").addClass('red'); }); }); </script> The bigger hover function in the middle is for some fancy rollover effects that the modules will perform themselves, but for these purposes I just want to figure out why I can't add a Class to a separate element when another is hovered. Would love some help/advice!

    Read the article

  • Javascript Callback when variable is set to X

    - by Erik
    Hey everyone, Have an issue I can't seem to wrap my head around. I'm wanting to write a generic javascript function that will accept a variable and a callback, and continue to execute until that variable is something other than false. For example, the variable SpeedFeed.user.sid is false until something else happens in the code, but I don't want to execute a particular callback until it has been set. The call: SpeedFeed.helper_ready(SpeedFeed.user.sid, function(){ alert(SpeedFeed.user.sid); // Run function that requires sid to be set. }); The function: helper_ready: function(vtrue, callback){ if(vtrue != false){ callback(); } else { setTimeout(function(){ SpeedFeed.helper_ready(vtrue, callback); }, SpeedFeed.apiCheckTime); } } The issue I've narrowed it down to appears to be that because in the setTimeout I call vtrue instead of the actual SpeedFeed.user.sid, it's going to be set to false always. I realize I could write a specific function for each time that just evaluates the SpeedFeed.user.sid, but I'd like to have a generic method that I could use throughout the application. Thanks for any insight :)

    Read the article

  • Applications result affected by another running application.

    - by Jamie Keeling
    This is a follow on from my previous question although this is about something else. I've been having a problem where for some reason my message that I pass from one process to another only displays the first letter, in this case "M". My application is based on a MSDN sample so to make sure I hadn't missed something I create a separate solution, added the MSDN sample (without any changes for my needs) and unsurprisingly it works fine. Now for the weird bit, when I run the MSDN sample running (as in debugging) and have my own application running, the text prints out fine without any problems. The second I run my on its own without the original MSDN sample being open, and it fails to work and only shows an "M". I've looked in the debugger and don't seem to notice anything suspicious (it's a slightly dated picture, I've fixed the data type inconsistency). Can anyone provide a solution for this? I've never encountered anything like this before. To look at my source code it's easier to just look at the link I posted at the top of the question, there's no point in me posting it twice. Thank you for any help.

    Read the article

  • Why does this test fail?

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I'm trying to test/spec the following action method public virtual ActionResult ChangePassword(ChangePasswordModel model) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { if (MembershipService.ChangePassword(User.Identity.Name, model.OldPassword, model.NewPassword)) { return RedirectToAction(MVC.Account.Actions.ChangePasswordSuccess); } else { ModelState.AddModelError("", "The current password is incorrect or the new password is invalid."); } } // If we got this far, something failed, redisplay form return RedirectToAction(MVC.Account.Actions.ChangePassword); } with the following MSpec specification: public class When_a_change_password_request_is_successful : with_a_change_password_input_model { Establish context = () => { membershipService.Setup(s => s.ChangePassword(Param.IsAny<string>(), Param.IsAny<string>(), Param.IsAny<string>())).Returns(true); controller.SetFakeControllerContext("POST"); }; Because of = () => controller.ChangePassword(inputModel); ThenIt should_be_a_redirect_result = () => result.ShouldBeARedirectToRoute(); ThenIt should_redirect_to_success_page = () => result.ShouldBeARedirectToRoute().And().ShouldRedirectToAction<AccountController>(c => c.ChangePasswordSuccess()); } where with_a_change_password_input_model is a base class that instantiates the input model, sets up a mock for the IMembershipService etc. The test fails on the first ThenIt (which is just an alias I'm using to avoid conflict with Moq...) with the following error description: Machine.Specifications.SpecificationException: Should be of type System.RuntimeType but is [null] But I am returning something - in fact, a RedirectToRouteResult - in each way the method can terminate! Why does MSpec believe the result to be null?

    Read the article

  • Lack of security in many PHP applications?

    - by John
    Over the past year of freelancing, I inherited two web projects, both of them built in PHP, both of them with sensitive information like credit card info, bank info, etc... In one application, when I typed http://thecompany.com/admin/, and without being asked for a username and password, I saw every user's sensitive information, including credit card numbers, bank account numbers etc... In another application, I was able to bypass the login screen by simply typing http://the2ndcompany.com/customer.php?user_id=777, and again, without any prompts for username and password, i was able to see user 777's credit card info. I cycled through a few more user_ids (any integer) and saw each person's credit card info. Is something wrong here? Or is this the quality of work that the "average" programmer produces? Because if this is what the average programmer produces, does that means I'm an...gasp...elite programmer?? No..that can't be right....something doesn't make sense. So my question is, is it just coincidence that I inherited two applications both of which are dangerously lacking in security? Or are there are a lot of bad PHP programmers out there?

    Read the article

  • Objective-C protocol vs inheritance vs extending?

    - by ryanjm.mp
    I have a couple classes that have nearly identical code. Only a string or two is different between them. What I would like to do is to make them "x" from another class that defines those functions and then uses constants or something else to define those strings that are different. I'm not sure if "x" is inheritance or extending or what. That is what I need help with. For example: objectA.m: -(void)helloWorld { NSLog("Hello %@",child.name); } objectBob.m: #define name @"Bob" objectJoe.m #define name @"Joe" (I'm not sure if it's legal to define strings, but this gets the point across) It would be ideal if objectBob.m and objectJoe.m didn't have to even define the methods, just their relationship to objectA.m. Is there any way to do something like this? It is kind of like protocol, except in reverse, I want the "protocol" to actually define the functions. If all else fails I'll just make objectA.m: -(void)helloWorld:(NSString *name) { NSLog("Hello %@",name); } And have the other files call that function (and just #import objectA.m).

    Read the article

  • What would be different in Java if Enum declaration didn't have the recursive part

    - by atamur
    Please see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/211143/java-enum-definition and http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3061759/why-in-java-enum-is-declared-as-enume-extends-enume for general discussion. Here I would like to learn what exactly would be broken (not typesafe anymore, or requiring additional casts etc) if Enum class was defined as public class Enum<E extends Enum> I'm using this code for testing my ideas: interface MyComparable<T> { int myCompare(T o); } class MyEnum<E extends MyEnum> implements MyComparable<E> { public int myCompare(E o) { return -1; } } class FirstEnum extends MyEnum<FirstEnum> {} class SecondEnum extends MyEnum<SecondEnum> {} With it I wasn't able to find any benefits in this exact case. PS. the fact that I'm not allowed to do class ThirdEnum extends MyEnum<SecondEnum> {} when MyEnum is defined with recursion is a) not relevant, because with real enums you are not allowed to do that just because you can't extend enum yourself b) not true - pls try it in a compiler and see that it in fact is able to compile w/o any errors PPS. I'm more and more inclined to believe that the correct answer here would be "nothing would change if you remove the recursive part" - but I just can't believe that.

    Read the article

  • Why do InterruptedExceptions clear a thread's interrupted status?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    If a thread is interrupted while inside Object.wait() or Thread.join(), it throws an InterruptedException, which resets the thread's interrupted status. I. e., if I have a loop like this inside a Runnable.run(): while (!this._workerThread.isInterrupted()) { // do something try { synchronized (this) { this.wait(this._waitPeriod); } } catch (InterruptedException e) { if (!this._isStopping()) { this._handleFault(e); } } } the thread will continue to run after calling interrupt(). This means I have to explicitly break out of the loop by checking for my own stop flag in the loop condition, rethrow the exception, or add a break. Now, this is not exactly a problem, since this behaviour is well documented and doesn't prevent me from doing anything the way I want. However, I don't seem to understand the concept behind it: Why is a thread not considered interrupted anymore once the exception has been thrown? A similar behaviour also occurs if you get the interrupted status with interrupted() instead of isInterrupted(), then, too, the thread will only appear interrupted once. Am I doing something unusual here? For example, is it more common to catch the InterruptedException outside the loop? (Even though I'm not exactly a beginner, I tagged this "beginner", because it seems like a very basic question to me, looking at it.)

    Read the article

  • Creating a tar file with checksums included

    - by wazoox
    Here's my problem : I need to archive to tar files a lot ( up to 60 TB) of big files (usually 30 to 40 GB each). I would like to make checksums ( md5, sha1, whatever) of these files before archiving; however not reading every file twice (once for checksumming, twice for tar'ing) is more or less a necessity to achieve a very high archiving performance (LTO-4 wants 120 MB/s sustained, and the backup window is limited). So I'd need some way to read a file, feeding a checksumming tool on one side, and building a tar to tape on the other side, something along : tar cf - files | tee tarfile.tar | md5sum - Except that I don't want the checksum of the whole archive (this sample shell code does just this) but a checksum for each individual file in the archive. I've studied GNU tar, Pax, Star options. I've looked at the source from Archive::Tar. I see no obvious way to achieve this. It looks like I'll have to hand-build something in C or similar to achieve what I need. Perl/Python/etc simply won't cut it performance-wise, and the various tar programs miss the necessary "plugin architecture". Does anyone know of any existing solution to this before I start code-churning ?

    Read the article

  • What is wrong with the JavaScript event handling in this example? (Using click() and hover() jQuery

    - by Bungle
    I'm working on a sort of proof-of-concept for a project that approximates Firebug's inspector tool. For more details, please see this related question. Here is the example page. I've only tested it in Firefox: http://troy.onespot.com/static/highlight.html The idea is that, when you're mousing over any element that can contain text, it should "highlight" with a light gray background to indicate the boundaries of that element. When you then click on the element, it should alert() a CSS selector that matches it. This is somewhat working in the example linked above. However, there's one fundamental problem. When mousing over from the top of the page to the bottom, it will pick up the paragraphs, <h1> element, etc. But, it doesn't get the <div>s that encompass those paragraphs. However, for example, if you "sneak up" on the <div> that contains the two paragraphs "The area was settled..." and "Austin was selected..." from the left - tracing down the left edge of the page and entering the <div> just between the two paragraphs (see this screenshot) - then it is picked up. I assume this has something to do with the fact that I haven't attached an event handler to the <body> element (where you're entering the <div> from if you enter from the left), but I have attached handlers to the <p>s (where you're entering from if you come from the top or bottom). There are also other issues with mousing in and out elements - background colors that "stick" and the like - that I think are also related. As indicated in the related question posted above, I suspect there is something about event bubbling that I don't understand that is causing unexpected behavior. Can anyone spot what's wrong with my code? Thanks in advance for any help!

    Read the article

  • formtastic weird month name display

    - by Alexey Poimtsev
    Hi, i'm using formtastic, all is ok, but strange thing - on = form.input :birthdate, :as => :date it renders to something like <li><label for="profile_birthdate_2i">Month</label><select id="profile_birthdate_2i" name="profile[birthdate(2i)]"> <option value="1">114</option> <option value="2">97</option> <option value="3">110</option> <option value="4">115</option> <option value="5">108</option> <option value="6">97</option> <option value="7">116</option> <option value="8">105</option> <option value="9">111</option> <option value="10">110</option> <option value="11">32</option> <option value="12">109</option> </select> but if i'm using in semantic_form something like = form.datetime_select :birthdate it renders correctly. I've found information, that it may be caused by locale file with no translations for month names, but its so strange - why rails helpers renders month names ok, but formtastic - not :( any ideas?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 429 430 431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440  | Next Page >