Search Results

Search found 32814 results on 1313 pages for 'change notification'.

Page 433/1313 | < Previous Page | 429 430 431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440  | Next Page >

• How do I use text in one cell to trigger row to be copied on another sheet in Excel?

  - by Brian Eby

  I provide all of the cut lists for our cabinet manufacturing in Excel. I tally all parts for the entire job on the first worksheet in an Excel file, and then filter the rows based on the "Material" column, and manually copy/paste each row in to its own material-specific worksheet (example: I filter "Materials" column for "Maple Ply", and then copy all "Maple Ply" rows to the "Maple Ply" worksheet). Then the material specific worksheets are sent to the shop floor for cutting. This is time consuming, and if I need to change any data in the first page, I have to go and manually update the copied row in its material-specific page. Is there any way to make each material page "look" for its material, and automatically populate itself with any row that has the appropriate material in the material column (example: any time I enter "Maple Ply" in the material column of sheet one, that row is automatically copied to the "Maple Ply" worksheet)? If so, could this link be dynamic, rather than just a copy, so that if I change a cell in a particular row on sheet one, that data is also updated on the material-specific worksheet copy? Thank you, Brian

  Read the article

• using style in WPF

  - by Polaris

  In my application I use ShinyBlue.xaml resourse Dictionary which has this code for GroupBox control: <Style TargetType="{x:Type GroupBox}"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type GroupBox}"> <Grid SnapsToDevicePixels="true"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="6" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="6" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="*" /> <RowDefinition Height="6" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Border Grid.ColumnSpan="4" Grid.RowSpan="4" Background="{DynamicResource LightBrush}" CornerRadius="4,4,4,4" BorderThickness="1,1,1,1" /> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> These style common for all app. But in one of the forms I want to change background to Transparent. I want override only Background Property but it's not work <Style TargetType="GroupBox" BasedOn="{StaticResource {x:Type GroupBox}}"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Transparent"/> </Style> code above not works properly How can I change GroupBox Background in specific form ?.

  Read the article

• Unit tests - The benefit from unit tests with contract changes?

  - by Stefan Hendriks

  Recently I had an interesting discussion with a colleague about unit tests. We where discussing when maintaining unit tests became less productive, when your contracts change. Perhaps anyone can enlight me how to approach this problem. Let me elaborate: So lets say there is a class which does some nifty calculations. The contract says that it should calculate a number, or it returns -1 when it fails for some reason. I have contract tests who test that. And in all my other tests I stub this nifty calculator thingy. So now I change the contract, whenever it cannot calculate it will throw a CannotCalculateException. My contract tests will fail, and I will fix them accordingly. But, all my mocked/stubbed objects will still use the old contract rules. These tests will succeed, while they should not! The question that rises, is that with this faith in unit testing, how much faith can be placed in such changes... The unit tests succeed, but bugs will occur when testing the application. The tests using this calculator will need to be fixed, which costs time and may even be stubbed/mocked a lot of times... How do you think about this case? I never thought about it thourougly. In my opinion, these changes to unit tests would be acceptable. If I do not use unit tests, I would also see such bugs arise within test phase (by testers). Yet I am not confident enough to point out what will cost more time (or less). Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• Modify shell script to monitor/ping multiple ip addresses

  - by Alex

  Alright so I need to constantly monitor multiple routers and computers, to make sure they remain online. I have found a great script here that will notify me via growl(so i can get instant notifications on my phone) if a single ip cannot be pinged. I have been attempting to modify the script to ping multiple addresses, with little luck. I'm having trouble trying to figure out how to ping a down server while the script keeps watching the online servers. any help would be greatly appreciated. I haven't done much shell scripting so this is quite new to me. Thanks #!/bin/sh #Growl my Router alive! #2010 by zionthelion73 [at] gmail . com #use it for free #redistribute or modify but keep these comments #not for commercial purposes iconpath="/path/to/router/icon/file/internet.png" # path must be absolute or in "./path" form but relative to growlnotify position # document icon is used, not document content # Put the IP address of your router here localip=192.168.1.1 clear echo 'Router avaiability notification with Growl' #variable avaiable=false com="################" #comment prefix for logging porpouse while true; do if $avaiable then echo "$com 1) $localip avaiable $com" echo "1" while ping -c 1 -t 2 $localip do sleep 5 done growlnotify -s -I $iconpath -m "$localip is offline" avaiable=false else echo "$com 2) $localip not avaiable $com" #try to ping the router untill it come back and notify it while !(ping -c 1 -t 2 $localip) do echo "$com trying.... $com" sleep 5 done echo "$com found $localip $com" growlnotify -s -I $iconpath -m "$localip is online" avaiable=true fi sleep 5 done

  Read the article

• How to solve timing problems in automated UI tests with C# and Visual Studio?

  - by Lernkurve

  Question What is the standard approach to solve timing problems in automated UI tests? Concrete example I am using Visual Studio 2010 and Team Foundation Server 2010 to create automated UI tests and want to check whether my application has really stopped running: [TestMethod] public void MyTestMethod() { Assert.IsTrue(!IsMyAppRunning(), "App shouldn't be running, but is."); StartMyApp(); Assert.IsTrue(IsMyAppRunning(), "App should have been started and should be running now."); StopMyApp(); //Pause(500); Assert.IsTrue(!IsMyAppRunning(), "App was stopped and shouldn't be running anymore."); } private bool IsMyAppRunning() { foreach (Process runningProcesse in Process.GetProcesses()) { if (runningProcesse.ProcessName.Equals("Myapp")) { return true; } } return false; } private void Pause(int pauseTimeInMilliseconds) { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(pauseTimeInMilliseconds); } StartMyApp() and StopMyApp() have been recorded with MS Test Manager 2010 and reside in UIMap.uitest. The last assert fails because the assertion is executed while my application is still in the process of shutting down. If I put a delay after StopApp() the test case passes. The above is just an example to explain my problem. What is the standard approach to solve these kinds of timing issues? One idea would be to wait with the assertion until I get some event notification that my app has been stopped.

  Read the article

• Adding changes from one Mercurial repository to another

  - by Patrik Hägne

  When changing the VCS for my project FakeItEasy from SVN to Mercurial on Google Code I was a bit too eager (I'm funny like that). What I did was just checking the latest version out of SVN and then commiting that checkout as the first revision of the new Mercurial repo. This obviously has the effect that all history is lost. Later when getting a bit better acustomed to Mercurial I realized that there is such a thing as a "convert extension" that allows you to convert a SVN repo into a Mercurial repo. Now what I want to do is to convert the old SVN repo and then have all change sets from the currently existing Mercurial repo imported into this converted repo except the very first commit to Mercurial. I've converted the SVN repo to a local Mercurial repo but now is when I'm stuck. I thought I'd be able to use the convert extension to bring the current Mercurial repository into the converted one and having a splice map remove the first commit but I can not seem to get this to work. I've also tried to just use convert without splice map to get all change sets from the current Mercurial repo into the converted one and the rebase the second version in the current to the last commit from the old SVN repository but I can't get that to work either. To make this clearer lets say I have these two repositories: A: revA1-revA2 B: revB1-revB2-revB3 (Where revB1 is actually a copy of revA2) Now I want to combine these two into the new repository containing this: C: revA1-revA2-revB2-revB3

  Read the article

• Binding event handlers to specific elements, using bubbling (JavaScript/jQuery)

  - by Bungle

  I'm working on a project that approximates the functionality of Firebug's inspector tool. That is, when mousing over elements on the page, I'd like to highlight them (by changing their background color), and when they're clicked, I'd like to execute a function that builds a CSS selector that can be used to identify them. However, I've been running into problems related to event bubbling, and have thoroughly confused myself. Rather than walk you down that path, it might make sense just to explain what I'm trying to do and ask for some help getting started. Here are some specs: I'm only interested in elements that contain a text node (or any descendant elements with text nodes). When the mouse enters such an element, change its background color. When the mouse leaves that element, change its background color back to what it was originally. When an element is clicked, execute a function that builds a CSS selector for that element. I don't want a mouseover on an element's margin area to count as a mouseover for that element, but for the element beneath (I think that's default browser behavior anyway?). I can handle the code that highlights/unhighlights, and builds the CSS selector. What I'm primarily having trouble with is efficiently binding event handlers to the elements that I want to be highlightable/clickable, and avoiding/stopping bubbling so that mousing over a (<p>) element doesn't also execute the handler function on the <body>, for example. I think the right way to do this is to bind event handlers to the document element, then somehow use bubbling to only execute the bound function on the topmost element, but I don't have any idea what that code looks like, and that's really where I could use help. I'm using jQuery, and would like to rely on that as much as possible. Thanks in advance for any guidance!

  Read the article

• How can I find out why a website looks different when I upload it to IIS ?

  - by UXdesigner

  Good day... I've been working on a website project, that requires to be on a Microsoft IIS Web Server. It is HTML, pure HTML, with really nice CSS, web-standards, etc. I open this website using in my computer, using Firefox, IE 8.0, Safari, Google Chrome and it looks fine everywhere. But as I upload it to the Microsoft IIS server, it changes a few things. for example: the main menu, which is a navigation bar that has dropdowns, seems to change it's line-height for some reason, and it is bigger. Some <h3> or <h2> Alignment seems wrong as well... And the lines that are supposed to surround the photographs in the website (like a frame - dotted line) won't appear. But all the rest of the CSS is loading perfectly fine. I don't think it's a path problem as everything is loading fine. But this is making me look bad and it is very important to have this done as soon as possible. Can someone give me good suggestions on what to look at ? The IIS permissions seem fine. I'm not a big Microsoft fan...but I have to develop the website there. Also, I uploaded the site to my apache server and it worked wonders. I wish I could change the policies in this corporation, but I can't. Thank you so much for your kind help.

  Read the article

• inverse relation to multiple inheriting classes in django

  - by Ofri Raviv

  Here are my schematic models: class Law(models.Model): ... class Bill(models.Model): ... # data for a proposed law, or change of an existing law class PrivateBill(Bill): ... # data for a Bill that was initiated by a parliament member class GovernmentBill(Bill): ... # data for a Bill that was initiated by the government It is possible and likely that in the future I (or maybe someone else) would want to add more Bill types. Every Bill should point to a Law (indicating what law this bill is going to change) and my question is: What is the best way to implement this? If I add the ForeignKey(Law) to Bill, I'll have a relation from every Bill to Law, but a Law would only have an inverse relation to Bills (bill_set), and not a different inverse relation to each type of bill. Of course I'll be able to filter each type of bill to get only the ones pointing to a specific Law, but this is something I think I'll need to use often, so I think having privatebill_set, governmentbill_set etc would make the code more readable. Another possible solution is to add the foreign key to each of the inheriting classes (this would give me a privatebill_set, governmentbill_set, futurebill_set), but that seems hairy because I would be relying on future programmers to remember to add that relation. How would you solve this?

  Read the article

• Database sharing/versioning

  - by DarkJaff

  Hi everyone, I have a question but I'm not sure of the word to use. My problem: I have an application using a database to stock information. The database can ben in access (local) or in a server (SQL Server or Oracle). We support these 3 kind of database. We want to give the possibility to the user to do what I think we can call versioning. Let me explain : We have a database 1. This is the master. We want to be able to create a database 2 that will be the same thing as database 1 but we can give it to someone else. They each work on each other side, adding, modifying and deleting records on this very complex database. After that, we want the database 1 to include the change from database 2, but with the possibility to dismiss some of the change. For you information, ou application is already multiuser so why don't we just use this multi-user and forget about this versionning? It's because sometimes, we need to give a copy of the database to another company on another site and they can't connect on our server. They work on their side and then, we want to merge. Is there anyone here with experience with this type of requirement? We have a lot of ideas but most of them require a LOT of work, massive modification to the database or to the existing queries. This is a 2 millions and growing C++ app, so rewriting it is not possible! Thanks for any ideas that you may give us! J-F

  Read the article

• WPF tree data binding

  - by Am

  Hi, I have a well defined tree repository. Where I can rename items, move them up, down, etc. Add new and delete. The data is stored in a table as follows: Index Parent Label Left Right 1 0 root 1 14 2 1 food 2 7 3 2 cake 3 4 4 2 pie 5 6 5 1 flowers 8 13 6 5 roses 9 10 7 5 violets 11 12 Representing the following tree: (1) root (14) (2) food (7) (8) flowers (13) (3) cake (4) (5) pie (6) (9) roeses (10) (11) violets (12) or root food cake pie flowers roses violets Now, my problem is how to represent this in a bindable way, so that a TreeView can handle all the possible data changes? Renaming is easy, all I need is to make the label an updatble field. But what if a user moves flowers above food? I can make the relevant data changes, but they cause a complete data change to all other items in the tree. And all the examples I found of bindable hierarchies are good for non static trees.. So my current (and bad) solution is to reload the displayed tree after relocation change. Any direction will be good. Thanks

  Read the article

• Stack Overflow when debugging application in iPhone simulator

  - by mjdth

  I'm getting this every time I attempt to debug my app in the simulator: [Session started at 2010-05-11 16:16:52 -0500.] GNU gdb 6.3.50-20050815 (Apple version gdb-1467) (Wed Apr 21 06:57:21 UTC 2010) Copyright 2004 Free Software Foundation, Inc. GDB is free software, covered by the GNU General Public License, and you are welcome to change it and/or distribute copies of it under certain conditions. Type "show copying" to see the conditions. There is absolutely no warranty for GDB. Type "show warranty" for details. This GDB was configured as "x86_64-apple-darwin".sharedlibrary apply-load-rules all Attaching to process 51573. Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”. Data Formatters temporarily unavailable, will re-try after a 'continue'. (Cannot call into the loader at present, it is locked.) I've looked around and found a few similar cases, but they all seem to be related to a missing file and an extra necessary build phase. I'm getting no notification of a missing file here so I'm not sure where to start to fix this and get the app running again. Thanks for any insight!

  Read the article

• jQuery date picker not persistant after AJAX

  - by ILMV

  So I'm using the jQuery date picker, and it works well. I am using AJAX to go and get some content, obviously when this new content is applied the bind is lost, I learnt about this last week and discovered about the .live() method. But how do I apply that to my date picker? Because this isn't an event therefore .live() won't be able to help... right? This is the code I'm using to bind the date picker to my input: $(".datefield").datepicker({showAnim:'fadeIn',dateFormat:'dd/mm/yy',changeMonth:true,changeYear:true}); I do not want to call this metho everytime my AJAX fires, as I want to keep that as generic as possible. Cheers :-) EDIT As @nick requested, below is my wrapper function got the ajax() method: var ajax_count = 0; function getElementContents(options) { if(options.type===null) { options.type="GET"; } if(options.data===null) { options.data={}; } if(options.url===null) { options.url='/'; } if(options.cache===null) { options.cace=false; } if(options.highlight===null || options.highlight===true) { options.highlight=true; } else { options.highlight=false; } $.ajax({ type: options.type, url: options.url, data: options.data, beforeSend: function() { /* if this is the first ajax call, block the screen */ if(++ajax_count==1) { $.blockUI({message:'Loading data, please wait'}); } }, success: function(responseText) { /* we want to perform different methods of assignment depending on the element type */ if($(options.target).is("input")) { $(options.target).val(responseText); } else { $(options.target).html(responseText); } /* fire change, fire highlight effect... only id highlight==true */ if(options.highlight===true) { $(options.target).trigger("change").effect("highlight",{},2000); } }, complete: function () { /* if all ajax requests have completed, unblock screen */ if(--ajax_count===0) { $.unblockUI(); } }, cache: options.cache, dataType: "html" }); } What about this solution, I have a rules.js which include all my initial bindings with the elements, if I were to put these in a function, then call that function on the success callback of the ajax method, that way I wouldn't be repeating code... Hmmm, thoughts please :D

  Read the article

• SFINAE failing with enum template parameter

  - by zeroes00

  Can someone explain the following behaviour (I'm using Visual Studio 2010). header: #pragma once #include <boost\utility\enable_if.hpp> using boost::enable_if_c; enum WeekDay {MONDAY, TUESDAY, WEDNESDAY, THURSDAY, FRIDAY, SATURDAY, SUNDAY}; template<WeekDay DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY==SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return false;} template<WeekDay DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY!=SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return true;} source: bool b = goToWork<MONDAY>(); compiler this gives error C2770: invalid explicit template argument(s) for 'enable_if_c<DAY!=6,bool>::type goToWork(void)' and error C2770: invalid explicit template argument(s) for 'enable_if_c<DAY==6,bool>::type goToWork(void)' But if I change the function template parameter from the enum type WeekDay to int, it compiles fine: template<int DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY==SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return false;} template<int DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY!=SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return true;} Also the normal function template specialization works fine, no surprises there: template<WeekDay DAY> bool goToWork() {return true;} template<> bool goToWork<SUNDAY>() {return false;} To make things even weirder, if I change the source file to use any other WeekDay than MONDAY or TUESDAY, i.e. bool b = goToWork<THURSDAY>(); the error changes to this: error C2440: 'specialization' : cannot convert from 'int' to 'const WeekDay' Conversion to enumeration type requires an explicit cast (static_cast, C-style cast or function-style cast)

  Read the article

• IList<Item> Collection Class accessing database

  - by Mike

  Hi, I have a database with Users. Users have Items. These Items can change actively. How do you access the items in a collection type format? For the user, I fill all the user properties at the time of instantiation. If I load the user's items at the time of the instantiation, and the items change, they will have old data. I was thinking, maybe I need an ItemCollection class and have that a field/property apart of the user class, that way to traverse all the user's items I could use a foreach loop. So, my question is, what is the best practice/best way of accessing the items from a database using some sort of collection? On accessing the particular Item, it needs to get the latest database information, and when the user does do a foreach loop, the latest item information must be available. I.e. What I'm trying to do Console.WriteLine(User.Items[3].ID); returns 5. //this updates the item information and saves it to the database. User.Items[3].ID = 13; //Add a new item to the database. User.Items.Add(new Item { id = 17}); foreach (Item item in User.Items) { //this would traverse all items in the database. //not some cached copy at the time of instantiation of the user. }

  Read the article

• Design pattern to keep track UITableView rows correspondance to underlying data in constant time.

  - by DenNukem

  When my model changes I want to animate changes in UITableView by inserting/deleting rows. For that I need to know the ordinal of the given row (so I can construct NSIndexPath), which I find hard to do in better-than-linear time. For example, consider that I have a list of addressbook entries which are manualy sorted by the user, i.e. there is no ordering "key" that represents the sort order. There is also a corresponding UITableView that shows one row per addressbook entry. When UITableView queries the datasource I query the NSMUtableArray populated with my entries and return required data in constant time for each row. However, if there is a change in underlying model I am getting a notification "Joe Smith, id#123 has been removed". Now I have a dilemma. A naive approach would be to scan the array, determine the index at which Joe Smith is and then ask UITableView to remove that precise row from the view, also removing it form the array. However, the scan will take linear time to finish. Now I could have an NSDictionary which allows me to find Joe Smith in constant time, but that doesn't do me a lot of good because I still need to find his ordinal index within the array in order to instruct UITableView to remove that row, which is again a linear search. I could further decide to store each object's ordinal inside the object itself to make it constant, but it will become outdated after first such update as all subsequent index values will have changed due to removal of an object. So what is the correct design pattern to accurately reflect model changes in the UITableView in costant (or at least logarithmic) time?

  Read the article

• Just messed up a server misusing chown, how to execute it correctly?

  - by Jack Webb-Heller

  Hi! I'm moving from an old shared host to a dedicated server at MediaTemple. The server is running Plesk CP, but, as far as I can tell, there's no way via the Interface to do what I want to do. On the old shared host, running cPanel, I creative a .zip archive of all the website's files. I downloaded this to my computer, then uploaded it with FTP to the new host account I'd set up. Finally, I logged in via SSH, navigated to the directory the zip was stored in (something like var/www/vhosts/mysite.com/httpdocs/ and ran the unzip command on the file sitearchive.zip. This extracted everything just the fine. The site appeared to work just fine. The problem: When I tried to edit a file through FTP, I got Error - 160: Permission Denied. When I Get Info for the file I'm trying to edit, it says the owner and group is swimwir1. I attemped to use chown at this point to change owner - and yes, as you may be able to tell, I'm a little inexperienced in SSH ;) luckily the server was new, since the command I ran - chown -R newuser / appeared to mess a load of stuff up. The reason I used / on the end rather than /var/www/vhosts/mysite.com/httpdocs/ was because I'd already cded into their, so I presumed the / was relative to where I was working. This may be the case, I have no idea, either way - Plesk was no longer accessible, although Apache and things continued to work. I realised my mistake, and deciding it wasn't worth the hassle of 1) being an amateur and 2) trying to fix it, I just reprovisioned the server to start afresh. So - what do I do to change the owner of these files correctly? Thanks for helping out a confused beginner! Jack

  Read the article

• Vim, LaTeX, and version controlI

  - by Bkkbrad

  I'm writing a LaTeX document in vim, and I have it hard wrapping at 80 characters to make reading easier. However, this causes problems with tracking changes with in version control. For example, inserting "Lorem ipsum" at the beginning of this text: 1 Dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Phasellus bibendum lobortis lectus 2 quis porta. Aenean vestibulum magna vel purus laoreet at molestie massa 3 suscipit. Vestibulum vestibulum, mauris nec convallis ultrices, tellus sapien 4 ullamcorper elit, dignissim consectetur justo tellus et nunc. results in: 1 Lorum ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Phasellus bibendum 2 lobortis lectus quis porta. Aenean vestibulum magna vel purus laoreet at 3 molestie massa suscipit. Vestibulum vestibulum, mauris nec convallis ultrices, 4 tellus sapien ullamcorper elit, dignissim consectetur justo tellus et nunc. When I review this change in git, it tells me that all the lines of the paragraph have changed because of the wrapping, even though only one semantic change has occurred. One way around this problem is to have every sentence on its own line. This looks the same in the rendered document, but the source now is harder to read, because each line has quite a different line length: 1 Lorum ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. 2 Phasellus bibendum lobortis lectus quis porta. 3 Aenean vestibulum magna vel purus laoreet at molestie massa suscipit. 4 Vestibulum vestibulum, mauris nec convallis ultrices, tellus sapien ullamcorper elit, dignissim consectetur justo tellus et nunc. (If I soft wrap at 80, things still look bad, just in a different way.) Is it possible to have my text on disk with one newline per sentence, but display and edit it in vim as if the text of each paragraph was one long line, soft wrapped at 80 characters? I assume it requires some vim-foo rather than tweaking git or LaTeX.

  Read the article

• Child sProc cannot reference a Local temp table created in parent sProc

  - by John Galt

  On our production SQL2000 instance, we have a database with hundreds of stored procedures, many of which use a technique of creating a #TEMP table "early" on in the code and then various inner stored procedures get EXECUTEd by this parent sProc. In SQL2000, the inner or "child" sProc have no problem INSERTing into #TEMP or SELECTing data from #TEMP. In short, I assume they can all refer to this #TEMP because they use the same connection. In testing with SQL2008, I find 2 manifestations of different behavior. First, at design time, the new "intellisense" feature is complaining in Management Studio EDIT of the child sProc that #TEMP is an "invalid object name". But worse is that at execution time, the invoked parent sProc fails inside the nested child sProc. Someone suggested that the solution is to change to ##TEMP which is apparently a global temporary table which can be referenced from different connections. That seems too drastic a proposal both from the amount of work to chase down all the problem spots as well as possible/probable nasty effects when these sProcs are invoked from web applications (i.e. multiuser issues). Is this indeed a change in behavior in SQL2005 or SQL2008 regarding #TEMP (local temp tables)? We skipped 2005 but I'd like to learn more precisely why this is occuring before I go off and try to hack out the needed fixes. Thanks.

  Read the article

• PHP syntax for referencing self with late static binding

  - by Chris

  When I learned PHP it was pretty much in procedural form, more recently I've been trying to adapt to the OOP way of doing things. Hoever the tutorials I've been following were produced before PHP 5.3 when late static binding was introduced. What I want to know is how do I reference self when calling a function from a parent class. For example these two methods were written for a User class which is a child of DatabaseObject. Right now they're sitting inside the User class, but, as they're used in other child classes of DatabaseObject I'd like to promote them to be included inside DatabaseObject. public static function find_all() { global $database; $result_set = self::find_by_sql("select * from ".self::$table_name); return $result_set; } and: protected function cleaned_attributes() { global $database; $clean_attributes = array(); foreach($this->attributes() as $key => $value) { $clean_attributes[$key] = $database->escape_value($value); } return $clean_attributes; } So I have three questions: 1) How do I change the self:: reference when I move it to the parent. Is it static:: or something similar? 2) When calling the function from my code do I call it in the same way, as a function of the child class eg User::find_all() or is there a change there also? 3) Is there anything else I need to know before I start chopping bits up?

  Read the article

• jquery question for events

  - by OM The Eternity

  I have to copy the text from one text box to another using checkbox through jquery I have applied jquery event in my code, it works partially correct.. code is as follows: <html> <head> <script src="js/jquery.js" ></script> </head> <body> <form> <input type="text" name="startdate" id="startdate" value=""/> <input type="text" name="enddate" id="enddate" value=""/> <input type="checkbox" name="checker" id="checker" /> </form> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#startdate").change(function(o){ if($("#checker").is(":checked")){ $("#enddate").val($("#startdate").val()); } }); }); </script> </body> </html> this code works as follows, I always have checkbox checked by default hence whenever i insert the start date and then tab, the start date gets copied to enddate. My Problem but now if uncheck the checkbox and change the start date and then recheck the check box, the start date is not copied, Now what should be done in this situation.. please help me....

  Read the article

• Updating nullability of columns in SQL 2008

  - by Shaul

  I have a very wide table, containing lots and lots of bit fields. These bit fields were originally set up as nullable. Now we've just made a decision that it doesn't make sense to have them nullable; the value is either Yes or No, default No. In other words, the schema should change from: create table MyTable( ID bigint not null, Name varchar(100) not null, BitField1 bit null, BitField2 bit null, ... BitFieldN bit null ) to create table MyTable( ID bigint not null, Name varchar(100) not null, BitField1 bit not null, BitField2 bit not null, ... BitFieldN bit not null ) alter table MyTable add constraint DF_BitField1 default 0 for BitField1 alter table MyTable add constraint DF_BitField2 default 0 for BitField2 alter table MyTable add constraint DF_BitField3 default 0 for BitField3 So I've just gone in through the SQL Management Studio, updating all these fields to non-nullable, default value 0. And guess what - when I try to update it, SQL Mgmt studio internally recreates the table and then tries to reinsert all the data into the new table... including the null values! Which of course generates an error, because it's explicitly trying to insert a null value into a non-nullable column. Aaargh! Obviously I could run N update statements of the form: update MyTable set BitField1 = 0 where BitField1 is null update MyTable set BitField2 = 0 where BitField2 is null but as I said before, there are n fields out there, and what's more, this change has to propagate out to several identical databases. Very painful to implement manually. Is there any way to make the table modification just ignore the null values and allow the default rule to kick in when you attempt to insert a null value?

  Read the article

• How to hide zero values in bar3 plot in MATLAB

  - by Doresoom

  I've got a 2-D histogram (the plot is 3D - several histograms graphed side by side) that I've generated with the bar3 plot command. However, all the zero values show up as flat squares in the x-y plane. Is there a way I can prevent MATLAB from displaying the values? I already tried replacing all zeros with NaNs, but it didn't change anything about the plot. Here's the code I've been experimenting with: x1=normrnd(50,15,100,1); %generate random data to test code x2=normrnd(40,13,100,1); x3=normrnd(65,12,100,1); low=min([x1;x2;x3]); high=max([x1;x2;x3]); y=linspace(low,high,(high-low)/4); %establish consistent bins for histogram z1=hist(x1,y); z2=hist(x2,y); z3=hist(x3,y); z=[z1;z2;z3]'; bar3(z) As you can see, there are quite a few zero values on the plot. Closing the figure and re-plotting after replacing zeros with NaNs seems to change nothing: close z(z==0)=NaN; bar3(z)

  Read the article

• Android: Cannot get the httpPost params but can get the httpGet from php

  - by jjLin

  Here is my android code to send request: // defaultHttpClient DefaultHttpClient httpClient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost httpPost = new HttpPost(serverUrl); List<NameValuePair> params = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(); params.add(new BasicNameValuePair("abc", "abc2")); httpPost.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(params)); HttpResponse httpResponse = httpClient.execute(httpPost); HttpEntity httpEntity = httpResponse.getEntity(); InputStream is = null; is = httpEntity.getContent(); BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader( is, "UTF-8"), 8); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); String line = null; while ((line = reader.readLine()) != null) { sb.append(line + "\n"); } is.close(); String json = ""; json = sb.toString(); Log.d("JSON", "JSON is:" + json); and here is my php code to get the request: <?php echo $_POST['abc']; ?> When I run the application, the string json is nothing. I expect to get JSON is:abc2 Then I change the some code, in android part: HttpPost httpPost = new HttpPost(serverUrl); change to: HttpPost httpPost = new HttpPost(serverUrl + "?abc=abc3"); in php part: <?php echo $_GET['abc']; ?> This time, the string json in logcat is JSON is:abc3. It is correct!! I have tried lots of time, but seems cannot send HttpPost request with params. Any one can help me to find out what wrongs with my code??

  Read the article

• MPMoviePlayerController problem at start

  - by Infinity

  Hello guys! I have a problem with MPMoviePlayerController, because when I start it in fullscreen it exists, but the song is still playing. I added the MPMoviePlayerDidExitFullscreenNotification notification and it says that when the video starts playin it exists the full screen. Here's my code: _multimediaPlayer = [[MPMoviePlayerController alloc] init]; _multimediaPlayer.controlStyle = MPMovieControlStyleDefault; _multimediaPlayer.initialPlaybackTime = 0; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(videoPlayBackDidFinish:) name:MPMoviePlayerPlaybackDidFinishNotification object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(videoPlayerDidExitFullscreen:) name:MPMoviePlayerDidExitFullscreenNotification object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(videoPlayerPlaybackStateChanged:) name:MPMoviePlayerPlaybackStateDidChangeNotification object:nil]; NSString *path = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@/mag_%d/%@", [FMUtils documentsFolderPathWithFile:nil], _magID, _pageObject.fileName]; if ([FMUtils fileExistsAtPath:path]) { _multimediaPlayer.contentURL = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:path]; } else { _multimediaPlayer.contentURL = [NSURL URLWithString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@%@", self.dataURL, _pageObject.fileName]]; } CGSize objectViewSize = self.frame.size; _multimediaPlayer.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, objectViewSize.width, objectViewSize.height); [self addSubview:_multimediaPlayer.view]; if (_pageObject.blink) { [_multimediaPlayer setFullscreen:YES animated:YES]; } [_multimediaPlayer play]; Most of the time it happens when the video is not downloaded and it needs to stream it. Do you have any idea why is this happen?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 429 430 431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440  | Next Page >