Search Results

Search found 32814 results on 1313 pages for 'change notification'.

Page 440/1313 | < Previous Page | 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445 446 447  | Next Page >

• How do I make my program run with different privileges at Windows 7 startup?

  - by iira

  Hi, I am trying to add my program run in Windows 7 startup, but it doesn't work. My program has an embedded UAC manifest. My current way is by adding a string value at HKCU..\Run. I found a manual solution for Vista from http://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/en/w7itprosecurity/thread/81c3c1f2-0169-493a-8f87-d300ea708ecf Click Start, right click on Computer and choose “Manage”. Click “Task Scheduler” on the left panel. Click “Create Task” on the right panel. Type a name for the task. Check “Run with highest privileges”. Click Actions tab. Click “New…”. Browse to the program in the “Program/script” box. Click OK. On desktop, right click, choose New and click “Shortcut”. In the box type: schtasks.exe /run /tn TaskName where TaskName is the name of task you put in on the basics tab and click next. Type a name for the shortcut and click Finish. Additionally, you need to run the saved scheduled task shortcut to run the program instead of running the application shortcut to ignore the IAC prompt. When startup the system will run the program via the original shortcut. Therefore you need to change the location to run the saved task. Please: Open Regedit. Find the entry of the startup item in Registry. It will be stored in one of the following branches. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run HKEY_USERS.DEFAULT\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run Double-click on the correct key, change the path to the saved scheduled task you created. Is there any free code to add item with privileges option in scheduled task? I haven't found the free one in torry.net. Thanks a lot.

  Read the article

• Pointers to structs

  - by Bobby

  I have the following struct: struct Datastore_T { Partition_Datastores_T cmtDatastores; // bytes 0 to 499 Partition_Datastores_T cdhDatastores; // bytes 500 to 999 Partition_Datastores_T gncDatastores; // bytes 1000 to 1499 Partition_Datastores_T inpDatastores; // bytes 1500 1999 Partition_Datastores_T outDatastores; // bytes 2000 to 2499 Partition_Datastores_T tmlDatastores; // bytes 2500 to 2999 Partition_Datastores_T sm_Datastores; // bytes 3000 to 3499 }; I want to set a char* to struct of this type like so: struct Datastore_T datastores; // Elided: datastores is initialized with data here char* DatastoreStartAddr = (char*)&datastores; memset(DatastoreStartAddr, 0, sizeof(Datastore_T)); The problem I have is that the value that DatastoreStartAddr points to always has a value of zero when it should point to the struct that has been initialized with data. Meaning if I change the values in the struct using the struct directly, the values pointed to by DatastoreStartAddr should also change b/c they are pointing to the same address. But this is not happening. What am I doing wrong?

  Read the article

• Concatenate 2 text elements on a line with full-width border using CSS only

  - by Michael Horne

  Okay, I'm a newbie to CSS3, so please be gentle. ;-) I'm working with some Wordpress code (Woocommerce plugin, to be exact), and I'm trying to format a line of code in a sidebar so that 2 separate text items (one in an <a, the other in a <span are all on the same line, the full width of the column, and with a bottom border. It looks something like this (except the bottom border on each text do not go all the way across the enclosing sidebar box): http://www.dalluva.com/temp/browse-catalog.JPG (sorry, I'm new and can't post inline images yet) Here's the code fragment I'm trying to live with (i.e. I don't want to change it): <div class="widget"> ... <ul class="product-categories"> <li class="cat-item"> <a href="http://localhost/dalluva/shop/product-category/books/">Books</a> <span class="count">(5)</span> </li> ... And here's the CSS I have now: .widget ul li a { border-bottom: 1px solid #e9e9e9; line-height:1.0; padding: 5px 0 5px 22px; display: inline-block; } .widget ul li span { border-bottom: 1px solid #e9e9e9; line-height: 1.0; padding: 5px 0 5px 0; display: inline-block; } The output in the image above looks right for this CSS code, but when I change the 'span' CSS to include a width:100%, it causes the span element to wrap to the next line, looking like this: http://www.dalluva.com/temp/browse-catalog-2.JPG I've played with white-space:nowrap, overflow:hidden, etc, but I can't seem to find a way to have both the <a and the <span text on the same line with the border extending the full width of the column. Any suggestions on getting the desired effect through CSS only? Thanks. Michael

  Read the article

• PHP + MySQL - Match first letter of directory

  - by user1822825

  Let's say I have a class table. In the class table, there are many students with their pictures. In the first registration, I've registered the class and students with pictures. The pictures were put into a directory like classid_classname. Then, I change the class name. Now, I'm adding the student's picture. Now, the new picture can't be recognized because the class name has changed. The pic url will be set as classid_class(new)name. How can I match the first letter of the directory? This is my update code : $classID= $_POST["classID"]; $className= $_POST["className"]; $p1 = $_FILES['p1']['name']; $p2 = $_FILES['p2']['name']; $p3 = $_FILES['p3']['name']; $direct = $_POST["className"]; $direct = strtolower($direct); $direct = str_replace(' ', '_', $direct); $tfish = $classID."_".$direct; //the directory variable will have new name because it can't be fetched if the directory has been changed many times// $file = "slider_imagesClass/".$tfish."/"; $url = "/".$tfish."/"; How can I make the variable to match the first letter of the directory because the classID will not change? Thank you. Really appreciate your help :D

  Read the article

• Using mercurial and beyond compare 3(bc3) as the diff tool? help needed

  - by mhd

  Hi, in windows I am able to use winmerge as the external diff tool for hg using mercurial.ini,etc. Using some options switch that you can find in web(I think it's a japanese website) Anyway, here for example: hg winmerge -r1 -r2 will list file(s) change(s) between rev1 and rev2 in winmerge. I can just click which file to diff but for bc3: hg bcomp -r1 -r2 will make bc3 open a dialog which stated that a temp dir can't be found. The most I can do using bc3 and hg is hg bcomp -r1 -r2 myfile.cpp which will open diff between rev1 and rev2 of myfile.cpp So,it seems that hg+bc3 can't successfully acknowledge of all files change between revision. Only able to diff 1 file at a time. Anyone can use bc3 + hg better ? edit: Problem Solved ! Got the solution from scooter support page. I have to use bcompare instead of bcomp Here's a snippet of my mercurial.ini [extensions] hgext.win32text = ;mhd adds hgext.extdiff = ;mhd adds for bc [extdiff] cmd.bc3 = bcompare opts.bc3 = /ro ;mhd adds for winmerge ;[extdiff] ;cmd.winmerge = WinMergeU ;opts.winmerge = /r /e /x /ub

  Read the article

• How can I create a "dynamic" WHERE clause?

  - by TheChange

  Hello there, First: Thanks! I finished my other project and the big surprise: now everything works as it should :-) Thanks to some helpful thinkers of SO! So here I go with the next project. I'd like to get something like this: SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE field1=content AND field2=content2 ... As you noticed this can be a very long where-clause. tablename is a static property which does not change. field1, field2 , ... (!) and the contents can change. So I need an option to build up a SQL statement in PL/SQL within a recursive function. I dont really know what to search for, so I ask here for links or even a word to search for.. Please dont start to argue about wether the recursive function is really needed or what its disadvanteges - this is not in question ;-) If you could help me to create something like an SQL-String which will later be able to do a successful SELECT this would be very nice! Iam able to go through the recursive function and make a longer string each time, but I cannot make an SQL statement from it.. Oh, one additional thing: I get the fields and contents by a xmlType (xmldom.domdocument etc) I can get the field and the content for example in a clob from the xmltype

  Read the article

• Visual Studio crashes when I add a .settings file in a C++ Windows form application

  - by Ant

  I'm trying to add a .settings file in a windows form application by adding a (whatever) file in the project and have it named smthng.settings. Right after it is created, it crashes (if I look into the project's directory the file is there, but it's not "in" the project). Am I doing it wrong or could it be that the problem lies elsewhere? Edit: It seems that it's the settings designer that crashes. Partially Solved:If I add a (whatever).config file, then rename it to .settings and change it's file type to C/C++ Code (don't ask how I figured this out..) then I can add to it settings, but if I do add something that has any connection to the form then automatically a (whatever).config with thew same name spawns (which is identical to the (whatever).setting even if change one of them) and at the stdafx.cpp a #include '(whatever).h' appears, which is a problem, because there is not such a header. (if I erase it or just create a blank (whatever).h it doesn't work. Apparently I have to somehow connect all the data in the (w/e).settings to (w/e).h as well or maybe something else) Anyone had this problem before? Anyone has any ideas?

  Read the article

• Spring Security 3.0- Customise basic http Authentication Dialog

  - by gav

  Rather than reading; A user name and password are being requested by http://localhost:8080. The site says: "Spring Security Application" I want to change the prompt, or at least change what the "site says". Does anyone know how to do this via resources.xml? In my Grails App Spring configuration, my current version is as follows; <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans:beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/security" xmlns:beans="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/security http://www.springframework.org/schema/security/spring-security-3.0.xsd"> <http auto-config="true" use-expressions="true"> <http-basic/> <intercept-url pattern="/**" access="isAuthenticated()" /> </http> <authentication-manager alias="authenticationManager"> <authentication-provider> <user-service> <user name="admin" password="admin" authorities="ROLE_ADMIN"/> </user-service> </authentication-provider> </authentication-manager> </beans:beans>

  Read the article

• How to solve the delay problem in animation of sprites ?

  - by srikanth rongali

  My problem is, I did coding for a sprite. It should change it should change it's image from( 1, 2, 3). It should look like count down time to start a game. 1, 2, 3 are 3 png images. But the images are not displayed in equal intervals of time. I mean time between (1 - 2), (2 - 3) is not same. It is random. Please help me with my problem. Help me if there is better solution than what I am doing.(My animation should be like, before any game starts we see count down 1 then 2 then 3 then GO). -(id)init { if((self = [super init])) { [[CCDirector sharedDirector] setAnimationInterval:60.0/60]; [[CCDirector sharedDirector] setDisplayFPS:NO]; CCAnimation* numberAnimation = [CCAnimation animationWithName:@"countDown" delay: 60.0/60]; for( int i=1;i<4;i++) [numberAnimation addFrameWithFilename: [NSString stringWithFormat:@"number_%02d.png", i]]; id numberAction = [CCAnimate actionWithAnimation: numberAnimation restoreOriginalFrame:NO]; id action2 = [CCFadeOut actionWithDuration:0.5f]; CCSprite *number; number = [CCSprite spriteWithFile:@"number.png"]; .... } }

  Read the article

• DotNetNuke and Subversion guidelines

  - by David Stratton

  I've Googled, Binged, and here at StackOverflow, looked through the related questions and searched, but I'm not finding what I'm looking for. I've also searched documentation on DNN. What I'm looking for is any guidance (tutorials, blogs, step-by-step instructions for setting up a repository) etc from people who are experienced in using DotNetNuke with SVN. We use SVN for all our source control, and have no problem with standard applications, because we pretty much built the repository and directory structure to work with our processes. This means when we do web sites, in Visual Studio, we do file based web sites, rather than setting them up in the local IIS. It just makes things easier for us. However, with DNN, it appears that even if you get the source code, it is expecting to be set up in the local IIS, which means additional headaches for us. For example, we are moving all of our source code off our local C drives, and onto a shared drive on a server. This is to enable backups in addition to our normal source control. (This was a management decision). So that means that we need to change the virtual web app when we make the move. Has anyone come up with a good way to work around this? Can DNN be set up so that the developer web server in Visual Studio can be used, so that we can treat it just like any normal web app? Am I missing something obvious? Edit - added I'm willing to accept answers like "We tried it and never got it to work", and "It can't be done" as answers. I'm always open to hearing "It can't be done the way you want. You need to change your procedures to match how it works" if necessary. I guess if you've got experience trying this and just couldn't get it to work, I can learn from your experience that way as well, but some detail would be good.

  Read the article

• Possible to capture all events in a web browser?

  - by David

  I am working on a pet project and am at the research stage. Quick summary I am trying to intercept all form submits, onclick, and every single keydown. My library of choice is either jquery, or jquery + prototypejs. I figure I can batch up the events into a queue/stack and send it back to the server in time interval batches to keep performance relatively stable. Concerns Form submits and change's would be relatively simple.. Something like $("form :inputs").bind("change", function() { ... record event... }); But how to ensure I get precedence over the applications handlers as I have a habit of putting return false on a lot of my form handlers when there is a validation issue. As I understand it, that effectively stops the event in its tracks. My project For my smaller remote clients I will put their products onto a VPS or run it in my home data center. Currently I use a basic authentication system, given a username/password they see the website and then hopefully send me somewhat sane notes on what is broken or should be tweaked. As a better solution, I've written a simple proxy web server that does the above but allows me to have one DNS entry and then depending on credentials it makes an internal request relaying headers and re-writing URLS as needed. Every single html/text or application/* request is compressed and shoved into a sqlite table so I can partially replay what they've done. Now I am shifting to the frontend and would like to capture clicks, keydown's, and submits on everything on the page.

  Read the article

• Jquery: how to call the function again?

  - by bakazero

  I'm making the script for easy upload many files. I've tried fyneworks plugin, but the file name does not appear in a form that uses tiny_mce. This is the code: $("document").ready(function () { var i = 0; //iteration for Inputted File var max = 5; //max file uploaded createStatus(); //generate status container $('.imageNow').change(function() { if($(this).val()) { var ext = $(this).val().split('.').pop().toLowerCase(); var allow = [ 'gif', 'png', 'jpg', 'jpeg' ]; if (jQuery.inArray(ext, allow) != -1) { //validation true addImgInput($(this).clone()); $(this).addClass('imgOK'); $(this).removeClass('imageNow'); addImgList($(this).val()); removeImgStatus(); i++; } else { addImgStatus(); $(this).remove(); addImgInput(); } } return false; }); }); This is another function that I use: function addImgInput(inputClone) { $(inputClone).prependTo( $('#upload_images') ); //div container for generated InputFileImg }; function addImgList(listingImg) { $('#list_image_file').append('<li>' + listingImg + '</li>' ); //list all images that have been inputted } function createStatus() { $('#upload_images').append('<small class="status"></small>'); //error display container } function addImgStatus() { $('.status').append('* Wrong File Extension'); //error display text } function removeImgStatus() { $('.status').empty(); } Mmm..yeah is't not finished yet, because when I try to generate another Inputfile with imageNow class, the $('.imageNow').change(function() is not going to work anymore. Does anyone can help me? Thanks

  Read the article

• mysql to xml (DOM question)

  - by Jerry

  Hello guys I am new to php dom and trying to get the mysql data transfer into xml. My current xml output is like this <markers> <city> <name>Seattle</name> <size>medium</size> <name>New York</name> <size>big</size> <city> <markers> but I want to change it to <markers> <city> <name>Seattle</name> <size>medium</size> <city> <city> <name>New York</name> <size>big</size> </city> <city> <markers> my php $dom=new DOMDocument("1.0"); $node=$dom->createElement("markers"); $parnode=$dom->appendChild($node); $firstElement=$dom->createElement("city"); $parnode->appendChild($firstElement); $getLocationQuery=mysql_query("SELECT * FROM location",$connection); header("Content-type:text/xml"); while($row=mysql_fetch_assoc($getLocationQuery)){ foreach ($row as $fieldName=>$value){ $child=$dom->createElement($fieldName); $value=$dom->createTextNode($value); $child->appendChild($value); $firstElement->appendChild($child); } } I can't figure out how to change my php code. Please help me about it. Thanks a lot.

  Read the article

• Loading default value in a dropdown and calling onchange event

  - by J. Davidson

  Hi i have following dropdown <div class="fcolumn"> <label class="text" for="o_Id">Months:</label> <select class="textMonths" id="o_Id" name="periodName" > <option value="000">Select Period--</option> </select> </div> In the following jquery, first it loads fnLoadP() in a drop down list. Than as a default I am loading one of the values in drop down which is '10'. It loads too as default value. But it should be executing $("#o_Id").change.. which it doesn't. $(document).ready(function () { var sProfileUserId = null; $("#o_Id").change(function () { //---- }); fnLoadP(); $("select[name='pName']").val('10'); }); }); Basically my goal is. After dropdown values are loaded, to load '10' as default value and call onchange event in the dom. Please let me know how to fix it.

  Read the article

• SOAP security in Salesforce

  - by Dean Barnes

  I am trying to change the wsdl2apex code for a web service call header that currently looks like this: <env:Header> <Security xmlns="http://docs.oasis-open.org/wss/oasis-wss-wssecurity-secext-1.1.xsd"> <UsernameToken Id="UsernameToken-4"> <Username>test</Username> <Password>test</Password> </UsernameToken> </Security> </env:Header> to look like this: <soapenv:Header> <wsse:Security xmlns:wsse="http://docs.oasis-open.org/wss/2004/01/oasis-200401-wss-wssecurity-secext-1.0.xsd"> <wsse:UsernameToken wsu:Id="UsernameToken-4" xmlns:wsu="http://docs.oasis-open.org/wss/2004/01/oasis-200401-wss-wssecurity-utility-1.0.xsd"> <wsse:Username>Test</wsse:Username> <wsse:Password Type="http://docs.oasis-open.org/wss/2004/01/oasis-200401-wss-username-token-profile-1.0#PasswordText">Test</wsse:Password> </wsse:UsernameToken> </wsse:Security> </soapenv:Header> One problem is that I can't work out how to change the namespaces for elements (or even if it matters what name they have). A secondary problem is putting the Type attribute onto the Password element. Can any provide any information that might help? Thanks

  Read the article

• python gui events out of order

  - by dave

  from Tkinter import * from tkMessageBox import * class Gui: def __init__(self, root): self.container = Frame(root) self.container.grid() self.inputText = Text(self.container, width=50, height=8) self.outputText = Text(self.container, width=50, height=8, bg='#E0E0E0', state=DISABLED) self.inputText.grid(row=0, column=0) self.outputText.grid(row=0, column=1) self.inputText.bind("<Key>", self.translate) def translate(self, event): input = self.inputText.get(0.0, END) output = self.outputText.get(0.0, END) self.outputText.config(state=NORMAL) self.outputText.delete(0.0, END) self.outputText.insert(INSERT, input) self.outputText.config(state=DISABLED) showinfo(message="Input: %s characters\nOutput: %s characters" % (len(input), len(input))) root = Tk() #toplevel object app = Gui(root) #call to the class where gui is defined root.mainloop() #enter event loop Working on a gui in tkinter I'm a little confused as to the sequence the event handlers are run. If you run the above code you'll hopefully see... 1) Editing the text widget triggers the event handler but it seems to fire it off without registering the actual change, 2) Even when the text widget is cleared (ie, keep pressing BackSpace) it still seems to have a one character length string, 3) The output widget only receives its update when the NEXT event trigger is fired despite the fact the data came on the previous event. Is this just how bindings work in tkinter or am i missing something here? The behaviour i would like when updating the input widget is: 1) Show the change, 2) Enter event handler, 3) Update output widget, 4) Show message box.

  Read the article

• Is there a way to stop a UIViewController from being popped from a UINavigationController's stack wh

  - by yabada

  I have a UINavigationController with a root view controller and then I push a UIViewController onto the navigation controller's stack. When the user taps the backBarButtonItem I'd like to be able to have an alert view pop up if there are certain conditions met and cancel the pop of the view controller. For example, the user can make certain selections but some combination of them may be invalid so I want to notify them to make changes. I know that I can prevent the user from making an invalid combination or have an alert view pop up when the invalid combination is selected but I'd rather not do that. The user may be changing selections and may be aware that a certain combination is invalid but I'd rather let them select something that makes the combination invalid then go change something else (and notify them if they haven't made changes before trying to go to the previous screen). For example, if I prevent them from make the invalid combination then they may have to scroll up on a screen, change something, then scroll back down instead of making a selection then scrolling up and changing something. Using viewWillDisappear: doesn't work because, although I can produce an alert view, I cannot figure out a way to prevent the pop from occurring. The alert view pops up but the view controller still pops and they are back to the root view controller (with the alert view displaying). Is there a way to prevent the pop from occurring? If not, is this something worth filing a bug report about or is this unnecessary and/or esoteric?

  Read the article

• problem in showing and hiding dialog boxes in MFC

  - by Rakesh

  Hello all, I am trying to create a wizard like structure using dialog boxes...So I replaced the code in CDialog1App as below CDialog1Dlg* dlg = new CDialog1Dlg; m_pMainWnd = dlg; dlg->Create(IDD_DIALOG1); dlg->ShowWindow(SW_SHOW); the above worked fine...its displying the dialog box.but I have added another dialog box... So in the first dialog box if the user clicks Next it has to hide the first dialog box and display the second dialog.. //CDialog1 class void CDialog1Dlg::OnBnClickedNext() { // TODO: Add your control notification handler code here CDialog2* dialog2 = new CDialog2(); dialog2->Create(IDD_DIALOG2); dialog2->ShowWindow(SW_SHOW); this->ShowWindow(SW_HIDE); } in the above code am creating an object for the Dialog2 class and trying to show that.... Now the problem is,when I click next its hiding both the windows..What can I do..I tried several types but its still its not workin..Please dont suggest me to do with PropertySheet..It will work with that, i know ...but I want this using Dialog Box for some reason

  Read the article

• CSS call from code behind not working

  - by SmartestVEGA

  I have the following entries in the css file. a.intervalLinks { font-size:11px; font-weight:normal; color:#003399; text-decoration:underline; margin:0px 16px 0px 0px; } a.intervalLinks:link { text-decoration:underline; } a.intervalLinks:hover { text-decoration:none; } a.intervalLinks:visited { text-decoration:underline; } a.selectedIntervalLink { font-size:12px; font-weight:bold; color:#003399; text-decoration:none; margin:0px 16px 0px 0px; } a.intervalLinks:active { text-decoration:underline; font-size:large ; } Whenever i take the click on some links (not shown) which is embedded in the webpage ..i can see the change in the link a.intervalLinks:active { text-decoration:underline; font-size:large ; (the font of the link will become large) but after clicking the page refreshes ..the changes will go away i want to keep the change for ever in that link ...even there is a page refresh i understood that ..this can achieved only throughg the code behind of asp.net Following code should work:but unfortunately its not ..could anyone help? protected override void OnInit(EventArgs e) { rptDeptList.ItemDataBound += new RepeaterItemEventHandler(rptDeptList_ItemDataBound); } void rptDeptList_ItemDataBound(object sender, RepeaterItemEventArgs e) { if (e.Item.DataItem == null) return; LinkButton btn = (LinkButton)e.Item.FindControl("LinkButton1"); btn.Attributes.Add("class", "intervalLinks"); } Current html code for links has been shown below : <ItemTemplate> <div class='dtilsDropListTxt'><div class='rightArrow' ></div> <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" Text=<%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "WORK_AREA")%> CssClass="intervalLinks" OnClick="LinkButton1_Click" ></asp:LinkButton> </div> </ItemTemplate> Could anyone help?

  Read the article

• C++ iterators, default initialization and what to use as an uninitialized sentinel.

  - by Hassan Syed

  The Context I have a custom template container class put together from a map and vector. The map resolves a string to an ordinal, and the vector resolves an ordinal (only an initial string to ordinal lookup is done, future references are to the vector) to the entry. The entries are modified intrusively to contain a a bool "assigned" and an iterator_type which is a const_iterator to the container class's map. My container class will use RCF's serialization code (which models boost::serialization) to serialize my container classes to nodes in a network. Serializing iterator's is not possible, or a can of worms, and I can easily regenerate them onces the vectors and maps are serialized on the remote site. The Question I need to default initialize, and be able to test that the iterator has not been assigned to (if it is assigned it is valid, if not it is invalid). Since map iterators are not invalidated upon operations performed on it (unless of course items are removed :D) am I to assume that map<x,y>::end() is a valid sentinel (regardless of the state of the map -- i.e., it could be empty) to initialize to ? I will always have access to the parent map, I'm just unsure wheather end() is the same as the map contents change. I don't want to use another level of indirection (--i.e., boost::optional) to achieve my goal, I'd rather forego compiler checks to correct logic, but it would be nice if I didn't need to. Misc This question exists, but most of its content seems non-sense. Assigning a NULL to an iterator is invalid according to g++ and clang++. This is another similar question, but it focuses on the common use-cases of iterators, which generally tends to be using the iterator to iterate, ofcourse in this use-case the state of the container isn't meant to change whilst iteration is going on.

  Read the article

• Jquery Bugs?? Long decimal number after two numbers multiply...

  - by Jerry

  Hi all I am working on a shopping site and I am trying to calculate the subtotal of products. I got my price from a array and quantity from getJSON response array. Two of them multiply comes to my subtotal. I can change the quantity and it will comes out different subtotal. However,when I change the quantity to certain number, the final subtotal is like 259.99999999994 or some long decimal number. I use console.log to check the $price and $qty. Both of them are in the correct format ex..299.99 and 6 quantity.I have no idea what happen. I would appreciate it if someone can help me about it. Here is my Jquery code. $(".price").each(function(index, price){ $price=$(this); //get the product id and the price shown on the page var id=$price.closest('tr').attr('id'); var indiPrice=$($price).html(); //take off $ indiPrice=indiPrice.substring(1) //make sure it is number format var aindiPrice=Number(indiPrice); //push into the array productIdPrice[id]=(aindiPrice); var url=update.php $.getJSON( url, {productId:tableId, //tableId is from the other jquery code which refers to qty:qty}, productId function(responseProduct){ $.each(responseProduct, function(productIndex, Qty){ //loop the return data if(productIdPrice[productIndex]){ //get the price from the previous array we create X Qty newSub=productIdPrice[productIndex]*Number(Qty); //productIdPrice[productIndex] are the price like 199.99 or 99.99 // Qty are Quantity like 9 or 10 or 3 sum+=newSub; newSub.toFixed(2); //try to solve the problem with toFixed but didn't work console.log("id: "+productIdPrice[productIndex]) console.log("Qty: "+Qty); console.log(newSub); **//newSub sometime become XXXX.96999999994** }; Thanks again!

  Read the article

• I did my own web framework: now, how keep it sync with applications? must I use versions?

  - by Daniel Koch

  ... and I did the first web application using it, now I'm going to create the second. In this first web application I enhanced the framework's core library with new things and promptly updated framework branch. I'm using bazaar to keep framework and web application committed. The application was in the beginning, a full branch of framework source tree, now I'm updating framework manually at every change on core files. (copying changed files from web app to framework's branch). With this second web application that I'm going to create, I need to know about versions (or revisions) which the application is based. If I found a bug in this version I can fix and then sync files with first web application no worrying: functions will be the same to this application. If I'm going to make changes in core (new behavior, new functions in library or something new in source tree) it must be named as "new version". What's the best way to do this? Because I'm using a Distributed Version Control System (bazaar), I'm not dealing with VERSIONS, but revision numbers that change every time. Please fresh my mind with new ideas.

  Read the article

• Calling a function within a jQuery plug-in

  - by Bob Knothe

  I am in the process of creating my first jQuery plug-in that will format numbers automatically to various international formats. There are a couple functions within the plug-in that strips the strings and re-formats the string that needs to be called from another jQuery script. Based on the plug-in structure below (let me know if you need the entire code) can I call and send the parameter(s) to the stripFormat(ii) and targetFormat(ii, iv) functions? Or do I need to change my plug-in structure and if so how? (function($){ var p = $.extend({ aNum: '0123456789', aNeg: '-', aSep: ',', aDec: '.', aInput: '', cPos: 0 }); $.fn.extend({ AutoFormat: function() { return this.each(function() { $(this).keypress(function (e){ code here; }); $(this).keyup(function (e){ code here; }); // Would like to call this function from another jQuery script - see below. function stripFormat(ii){ code here; } // Would like to call this function from another jQuery script - see below. function targetFormat(ii, iv){ code here; } }); } }); })(jQuery); Methods trying to call the plug-in functions: jQuery(function(){ $("input").change(function (){ //temp function to demonstrate the stripFormat() function. document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue); }); }); I have tried to use these variations without success: document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = $.targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue); document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = $.autoFormat().targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue);

  Read the article

• How best to associate code with events in jQuery?

  - by Ned Batchelder

  Suppose I have a <select> element on my HTML page, and I want to run some Javascript when the selection is changed. I'm using jQuery. I have two ways to associate the code with the element. Method 1: jQuery .change() <select id='the_select'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> $('#the_select').change(function() { alert('Changed!'); }); </script> Method 2: onChange attribute <select id='the_select' onchange='selectChanged();'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> function selectChanged() { alert('Changed!'); } </script> I understand the different modularity here: for example, method 1 keeps code references out of the HTML, but method 2 doesn't need to mention HTML ids in the code. What I don't understand is: are there operational differences between these two that would make me prefer one over the other? For example, are there edge-case browsers where one of these works and the other doesn't? Is the integration with jQuery better for either? Does the late-binding of the code to the event make a difference in the behavior of the page? Which do you pick and why?

  Read the article

• RESTful copy/move operations?

  - by ladenedge

  I am trying to design a RESTful filesystem-like service, and copy/move operations are causing me some trouble. First of all, uploading a new file is done using a PUT to the file's ultimate URL: PUT /folders/42/contents/<name> The question is, what if the new file already resides on the system under a different URL? Copy/move Idea 1: PUTs with custom headers. This is similar to S3's copy. A PUT that looks the same as the upload, but with a custom header: PUT /folders/42/contents/<name> X-custom-source: /files/5 This is nice because it's easy to change the file's name at copy/move time. However, S3 doesn't offer a move operation, perhaps because a move using this scheme won't be idempotent. Copy/move Idea 2: POST to parent folder. This is similar to the Google Docs copy. A POST to the destination folder with XML content describing the source file: POST /folders/42/contents ... <source>/files/5</source> <newName>foo</newName> I might be able to POST to the file's new URL to change its name..? Otherwise I'm stuck with specifying a new name in the XML content, which amplifies the RPCness of this idea. It's also not as consistent with the upload operation as idea 1. Ultimately I'm looking for something that's easy to use and understand, so in addition to criticism of the above, new ideas are certainly welcome!

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445 446 447  | Next Page >