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  • How do you clear RootLayoutPanel in GWT?

    - by kerrr
    I have Buttons attached to elements on the modules entrypoint html page using RootPanel.get("foo").add(button). If I subsequently create a LayoutPanel and attach it using RootLayoutPanel.get.add(layoutpanal) then the buttons cannot be clicked. This is all fine. If I then try and remove the layoutpanel or clear the RootLayoutPanel the buttons still cannot be clicked. Any ideas how to clear this? Have I missed a step or should you simply never try and get back to using a page's RootPanel if you have used a RootLayoutPanel? Sample code: public void onModuleLoad(){ final LayoutPanel lp1=new LayoutPanel(); ClickPanel ping=new ClickPanel("Ping"); ping.getElement().getStyle().setBackgroundColor( "#fdd" ); ping.addClickHandler( new ClickHandler(){ @Override public void onClick( ClickEvent event ){ Window.alert( "Ping!!!" ); //lp1.removeFromParent(); //RootLayoutPanel.get().remove(lp1); //RootLayoutPanel.get().removeFromParent(); RootLayoutPanel.get().clear(); } } ); ClickPanel bong=new ClickPanel("Bong"); bong.getElement().getStyle().setBackgroundColor( "#ddf" ); bong.addClickHandler( new ClickHandler(){ @Override public void onClick( ClickEvent event ){ Window.alert( "Bong!!!" ); } } ); lp1.add( ping ); lp1.setWidgetLeftWidth( ping, 100, Style.Unit.PX, 500, Style.Unit.PX ); lp1.setWidgetTopHeight( ping, 100, Style.Unit.PX, 500, Style.Unit.PX ); lp1.add( bong ); lp1.setWidgetLeftWidth( bong, 50, Style.Unit.PCT, 600, Style.Unit.PX ); lp1.setWidgetTopHeight( bong, 50, Style.Unit.PCT, 200, Style.Unit.PX ); Button b=new Button("Click Me"); b.addClickHandler( new ClickHandler(){ @Override public void onClick( ClickEvent event ){ RootLayoutPanel.get().add( lp1 ); } } ); RootPanel.get("button1").add( b ); } ClickPanel is simply overrides HTMLPanel implementing HasClickHandelers. Clicking "Click Me" opens the layout panel. Clicking the panel ping gets rid of the layout panel, but the button "Click Me" cannot be clicked. I've tried various options.

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  • properies profile when writing word file

    - by avani-nature
    Hai frnds i am new to php i am having following problems in my coding... 1.Actually i am opening word document with com object and storing it in textarea. 2.when content gets opened in textarea i am editing that content and saving the document 3.actually when i edited that file and done save after that if i open word document then file properties-custom the old content getting removed i wannt to retain that even if i edited the word document..please do the needful i am using below code <?php $filename = 'C:/xampp/htdocs/mts/sites/default/files/a.doc'; //echo $filename; if(isset($_REQUEST['Save'])){ $somecontent = stripslashes($_POST['somecontent']); // Let's make sure the file exists and is writable first. if (is_writable($filename)) { // In our example we're opening $filename in append mode. // The file pointer is at the bottom of the file hence // that's where $somecontent will go when we fwrite() it. if (!$handle = fopen($filename, 'w')) { echo "Cannot open file ($filename)"; exit; } // Write $somecontent to our opened fi<form action="" method="get"></form>le. if (fwrite($handle, $somecontent) === FALSE) { echo "Cannot write to file ($filename)"; exit; } echo "Success, wrote ($somecontent) to file ($filename) <a href=".$_SERVER['PHP_SELF']."> - Continue - "; fclose($handle); } else { echo "The file $filename is not writable"; } } else{ // get contents of a file into a string $handle = fopen($filename, "r"); $somecontent = fread($handle, filesize($filename)); $word = new COM("word.application") or die ("Could not initialise MS Word object."); $word->Documents->Open(realpath("$filename")); // Extract content. $somecontent = (string) $word->ActiveDocument->Content; //echo $somecontent; $word->ActiveDocument->Close(false); $word->Quit(); $word = null; unset($word); fclose($handle); } ?> <h6>Edit file --------><? $filenam=explode("/",$filename);$filename=$filename[7]; echo $filename ;?></h6> <form name="form1" method="post" action=""> <p> <textarea name="somecontent" cols="100" rows="20"><? echo $somecontent ;?></textarea> </p> <div style='padding-left:250px;'><input type="submit" name="Save" value="Save"></div> </p> </form> <? } ?>

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  • Return only the new database items since last check in Rails

    - by Smith
    I'm fairly new to Ruby, and currently trying to implement an AJAX style commenting system. When the user views a topic, all the current comments on that topic will be displayed. The user can post a comment on the page of a topic and it should automatically display without having to refresh the page, along with any new comments that have been posted since the last comment currently displayed to the user. The comments should also automatically refresh at a specified frequency. I currently have the following code: views/idea/view.html.erb <%= periodically_call_remote(:update => "div_chat", :frequency => 1, :position => "top", :url => {:controller => "comment", :action => :test_view, :idea_id => @idea.id } ) %> <div id="div_chat"> </div> views/comment/test_view.html.erb <% @comments.each do |c| %><div id="comment"> <%= c.comment %> </div> <% end %> controllers/comment_controller.rb class CommentController < ApplicationController before_filter :start_defs def add_comment @comment = Comment.new params[:comment] if @comment.save flash[:notice] = "Successfully commented." else flash[:notice] = "UnSuccessfully commented." end end def test_render @comments = Comment.find_all_by_idea_id(params[:idea_id], :order => "created_at DESC", :conditions => ["created_at > ?", @latest_time] ) @latest = Comment.find(:first, :order => "created_at DESC") @latest_time = @latest.created_at end def start_defs @latest = Comment.find(:first, :order => "created_at ASC") @latest_time = @latest.created_at end end The problem is that every time periodically_call_remote makes a call, it returns the entire list of comments for that topic. From what I can tell, the @latest_time gets constantly reset to the earliest created_at, rather than staying updated to the latest created_at after the comments have been retrieved. I'm also not sure how I should directly refresh the comments when a comment is posted. Is it possible to force a call to periodically_call_remote on a successful save?

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  • Self updating app, wont overwrite existing app, using Android packagemanager?

    - by LokiSinclair
    I know there are plenty of questions about this on here, but I've tried everything (but the correct 'thing', obviously!) and nothing seems to shine any light on the problem I'm having. I've written an app (for a customer), which is designed to be hosted on their own server. The app references a simple text file with the latest version code in it and checks it against it's own version. If it's out of date it goes off and downloads the update. Everything is working as intended up to this point. I use the: Intent i = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); i.setDataAndType(Uri.fromFile(outputFile), "application/vnd.android.package-archive"); i.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); startActivity(i); ...code to start the install process of the newly downloaded .apk file. And that all starts as I would expect. I click on "Install" - when I'm prompted to confirm the overwriting of the current app, with the new. It starts, and then displays: App not installed. And existing package by the same name with a conflicting signature is already installed. Now I'm aware that Android can't have multiple applications sharing the same package name, which is fine, but nothing comes up in LogCat and I can only assume that the OS is annoyed at me attempting to 'update' my app, even though I'm going through all the correct channels and using the inbuilt package manager to do it for me! Can anyone tell me what the OS is moaning about? I'm not attempting to install two apps side by side, I want it to update it, which it starts to do, and then gets really confused. Is it something to do with me using the same keystore for signing the packages? I highly doubt it as I've used the same keystores previously to handle updates to games and the like, but I just can't figure out what it's complaining about. Hopefully someone out there has had this issue and solved it, and can point me in the right direction. I'm flying a bit blind with the limited information it's giving me :( Cheers.

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  • Simplest way to flatten document to a view in RavenDB

    - by degorolls
    Given the following classes: public class Lookup { public string Code { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class DocA { public string Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public Lookup Currency { get; set; } } public class ViewA // Simply a flattened version of the doc { public string Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public string CurrencyName { get; set; } // View just gets the name of the currency } I can create an index that allows client to query the view as follows: public class A_View : AbstractIndexCreationTask<DocA, ViewA> { public A_View() { Map = docs => from doc in docs select new ViewA { Id = doc.Id, Name = doc.Name, CurrencyName = doc.Currency.Name }; Reduce = results => from result in results group on new ViewA { Id = result.Id, Name = result.Name, CurrencyName = result.CurrencyName } into g select new ViewA { Id = g.Key.Id, Name = g.Key.Name, CurrencyName = g.Key.CurrencyName }; } } This certainly works and produces the desired result of a view with the data transformed to the structure required at the client application. However, it is unworkably verbose, will be a maintenance nightmare and is probably fairly inefficient with all the redundant object construction. Is there a simpler way of creating an index with the required structure (ViewA) given a collection of documents (DocA)? FURTHER INFORMATION The issue appears to be that in order to have the index hold the data in the transformed structure (ViewA), we have to do a Reduce. It appears that a Reduce must have both a GROUP ON and a SELECT in order to work as expected so the following are not valid: INVALID REDUCE CLAUSE 1: Reduce = results => from result in results group on new ViewA { Id = result.Id, Name = result.Name, CurrencyName = result.CurrencyName } into g select g.Key; This produces: System.InvalidOperationException: Variable initializer select must have a lambda expression with an object create expression Clearly we need to have the 'select new'. INVALID REDUCE CLAUSE 2: Reduce = results => from result in results select new ViewA { Id = result.Id, Name = result.Name, CurrencyName = result.CurrencyName }; This prduces: System.InvalidCastException: Unable to cast object of type 'ICSharpCode.NRefactory.Ast.IdentifierExpression' to type 'ICSharpCode.NRefactory.Ast.InvocationExpression'. Clearly, we also need to have the 'group on new'. Thanks for any assistance you can provide. (Note: removing the type (ViewA) from the constructor calls has no effect on the above)

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  • How can I make this client as a multithread client?

    - by Johanna
    Hi, I have read a lot about multithread client but for this one,I can not make it multithread! would you please help me? public class MainClient implements Runnable{ private static InformationClass info = new InformationClass(); private static Socket c; private static String text; public static String getText() { return text; } public static void setText(String text) { MainClient.text = text; } private static PrintWriter os; private static BufferedReader is; static boolean closed = false; /** * @param args the command line arguments */ public static void main(String[] args) { MainFrame farme = new MainFrame(); farme.setVisible(true); try { c = new Socket("localhost", 5050); os = new PrintWriter(c.getOutputStream(), true); is = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(c.getInputStream())); } catch (UnknownHostException ex) { Logger.getLogger(MainClient.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } catch (IOException ex) { Logger.getLogger(MainClient.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } } public static void active() { String teXt = MainClient.getText(); System.out.println(teXt); os.println(teXt); try { String line = is.readLine(); System.out.println("Text received: " + line); os.flush(); is.close(); is.close(); c.close(); } catch (IOException ex) { Logger.getLogger(MainClient.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } } } also active method will be called when the client write something on the text area and then clicks on the send button. 2) also i have a question that: in the other class I have this action performed for my send button,does it mean that client is multithread?? private void jButton1ActionPerformed(java.awt.event.ActionEvent evt) { new Thread(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { // This gets run in a background thread String text = jTextArea1.getText(); jTextArea2.append(client.getCurrentName() + " : " + text + "\n"); MainClient.setText(client.getCurrentName() + " : " + text + "\n"); clear(); MainClient.active(); } }).start(); } Last EDIT: this is my active method: public static void active() { String teXt = MainClient.getText(); os.println(teXt); String line = is.readLine(); System.out.println("Text received: " + line); os.flush(); is.close(); is.close(); c.close(); }

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  • How can this PHP/FQL code be modified to increase the performance and usability?

    - by Kaoukkos
    I try to get some insights from the pages I am administrator on Facebook. What my code does, it gets the IDs of the pages I want to work with through mySQL. I did not include that part though.After this, I get the page_id, name and fan_count of each of those facebook IDs and are saved in fancounts[]. Using the IDs ( pages[] ) I get two messages max from each page. There may be no messages, there may be 1 or 2 messages max. Possibly I will increase it later. messages[] holds the messages of each page. I have two problems with it. It has a very slow performance I can't find a way to echo the data like this: ID - Name of the page - Fan Count Here goes the first message Here goes the second one //here is a break ID - Name of the page 2 - Fan Count Here goes the first message of page 2 Here goes the second one of page 2 My questions are, how can the code be modified to increase performance and show the data as above? I read about fql.multiquery. Can it be used here? Please provide me with code examples. Thank you $pages = array(); // I get the IDs I want to work with $pagesIds = implode(',', $pages); // fancounts[] holds the page_id, name and fan_count of the Ids I work with $fancounts = array(); $pagesFanCounts = $facebook->api("/fql", array( "q" => "SELECT page_id, name, fan_count FROM page WHERE page_id IN ({$pagesIds})" )); foreach ($pagesFanCounts['data'] as $page){ $fancounts[] = $page['page_id']."-".$page['name']."-".$page['fan_count']; } //messages[] holds from 0 to 2 messages from each of the above pages $messages = array(); foreach( $pages as $id) { $getMessages = $facebook->api("/fql", array( "q" => "SELECT message FROM stream WHERE source_id = '$id' LIMIT 2" )); $messages[] = $getMessages['data']; } // this is how I print them now but it does not give me the best output. ( thanks goes to Mark for providing me this code ) $count = min(count($fancounts),count($messages)); for($i=0; $i<$count; ++$i) { echo $fancounts[$i],'<br>'; foreach($messages[$i] as $msg) { echo $msg['message'],'<br>'; } }

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  • Using PHP session_id() to Make Sure iframe is Generated by Our Server Dynamically

    - by Michael Robinson
    We use iframes to show ads on our site. Iframes are used to allow us to keep the ad generation code and other site modules separate. As we track ad views on our site, and need to be able to keep an accurate count of which pagetype gets what views, I must ensure that users can't simply copy-paste the iframe in which the ad is loaded onto another site. This would cause ad count to become inflated for this page, and the count would not match the view count of the page the iframe "should" be displayed in. Before anyone says so: no I can't simply compare the page view count with the ad view count, or use the page view count * number of ads per page, as # of ads per page will not necessarily be static. I need to come up with a solution that will allow ads to be shown only for iframes that are generated dynamically and are shown on our pages. I am not familiar with PHP sessions, but from what little reading I have had time to do, the following seems to be to be an acceptable solution: Add "s = session_id()" to the src of the ad's iframe. In the code that receives and processes ad requests, only return (and count) and ad if s == session_id(). Please correct me if I'm wrong, but this would ensure: Ads would only be returned to iframes whose src was generated alongside the rest of the page's content, as is the case during normal use. We can return our logo to ad calls with an invalid session_id. So a simple example would be: One of our pages: <?php session_start(); ?> <div id="someElement"> <!-- EVERYONE LOVES ADS --> <iframe src="http//awesomesite.com/ad/can_has_ad.php?s=<?php echo session_id(); ?>></iframe> </div> ad/can_has_ad.php: <?php session_start(); ?> if($_GET['s'] == session_id()){ echo 'can has ad'; } else{ echo '<img src="http://awesomesite.com/images/canhaslogo.jpg"/>'; } And finally, copied code with static 's' parameter: <!-- HAHA LULZ I WILL SCREW WITH YOUR AD VIEW COUNTS LULZ HAHA --> <iframe src="http//awesomesite.com/ad/can_has_ad.php?s=77f2b5fcdab52f52607888746969b0ad></iframe> Which would give them an iframe showing our awesome site's logo, and not screw with our view counts. I made some basic test cases: two files, one that generates the iframe and echos it, and one that the iframe's src is pointed to, that checks the 's' parameter and shows an appropriate message depending on the result. I copied the iframe into a file and hosted it on a different server, and the correct message was displayed (cannot has ad). So, my question is: Would this work or am I being a PHP session noob, with the above test being a total fluke? Thanks for your time! Edit: I'm trying to solve this without touching the SQL server

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  • How to remove music/videos DRM protection and convert to Mobile Devices such as iPod, iPhone, PSP, Z

    - by tonywesley
    The music/video files you purchased from online music stores like iTunes, Yahoo Music or Wal-Mart are under DRM protection. So you can't convert them to the formats supported by your own mobile devices such as Nokia phone, Creative Zen palyer, iPod, PSP, Walkman, Zune… You also can't share your purchased music/videos with your friends. The following step by step tutorial is dedicated to instructing music lovers to how to convert your DRM protected music/videos to mobile devices. Method 1: If you only want to remove DRM protection from your protected music, this method will not spend your money. Step 1: Burn your protected music files to CD-R/RW disc to make an audio CD Step 2: Find a free CD Ripper software to convert the audio CD track back to MP3, WAV, WMA, M4A, AAC, RA… Method 2: This guide will show you how to crack drm from protected wmv, wma, m4p, m4v, m4a, aac files and convert to unprotected WMV, MP4, MP3, WMA or any video and audio formats you like, such as AVI, MP4, Flv, MPEG, MOV, 3GP, m4a, aac, wmv, ogg, wav... I have been using Media Converter software, it is the quickest and easiest solution to remove drm from WMV, M4V, M4P, WMA, M4A, AAC, M4B, AA files by quick recording. It gets audio and video stream at the bottom of operating system, so the output quality is lossless and the conversion speed is fast . The process is as follows. Step 1: Download and install the software Step 2: Run the software and click "Add…" button to load WMA or M4A, M4B, AAC, WMV, M4P, M4V, ASF files Step 3: Choose output formats. If you want to convert protected audio files, please select "Convert audio to" list; If you want to convert protected video files, please select "Convert video to" list. Step 4: You can click "Settings" button to custom preference for output files. Click "Settings" button bellow "Convert audio to" list for protected audio files Click "Settings" button bellow "Convert video to" list for protected video files Step 5: Start remove DRM and convert your DRM protected music and videos by click on "Start" button. What is DRM? DRM, which is most commonly found in movies and music files, doesn't mean just basic copy-protection of video, audio and ebooks, but it basically means full protection for digital content, ranging from delivery to end user's ways to use the content. We can remove the Drm from video and audio files legally by quick recording.

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  • How to replace all id attributes of a child collection of complex types using jQuery in ASP.net MVC

    - by TJB
    Here's my situation: I'm writing an ASP.net MVC 1 website and I have a create/edit form that uses the default model binding to parse the form into a strongly typed complex object. The object I'm posting has a child collection of another complex type and the way I format my id's for the model binder is as follows: <div class="childContainer" > <!-- There's one of these for each property for each child collection item --> <%= Html.TextBox("ChildCollectionName[0].ChildPropertyName", /* blah blah */ ) %> <%= Html.TextBox("ChildCollectionName[0].OtherChildPropertyName", /* blah blah */ ) %> <!-- ... --> </div> This gets rendered as <div class="childContainer" > <input id="ChildCollectionName[0]_ChildPropertyName" ... /> <input id="ChildCollectionName[0]_OtherChildPropertyName" ... /> ... </div> <div class="childContainer" > <input id="ChildCollectionName[1]_ChildPropertyName" ... /> <input id="ChildCollectionName[1]_OtherChildPropertyName" ... /> ... </div> For each entry in the chlid collection. This collection is dynamically created in the form using jQuery, so entries can be added, removed etc. and whenever there's an operation on the collection I need to update the indexes so that it's bound correctly on the server side. What's the best way to replace all the html input id's when I'm updating the index within the child e.g. replace all [*] -- [N] where N is the correct index. using jQuery / JavaScript ? I have something coded now, but its buggy and I think there is a simpler solution. Also, if you have an easier way to identify the child collection I'll take any advice on that as well. Thanx!

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  • Emails sent using Flex app are delayed

    - by user363825
    I'm currently building an application in Flex that utilizes SMTP Mailer to automatically send out emails to the user when a particular condition is satisfied. The application checks this condition every 30 seconds. The condition is satisfied based on new records being returned from a database table. The problem is as follows: When the condition is first satisfied, the email is delivered to the user with no issues. The second time the condition is satisfied, the email is not delivered. In the smtp logs, the delivery attempt appears to get hung up on the following line: 354 Start mail input; end with <CRLF>.<CRLF> No error codes are present in the smtp logs, but I do trace the following event from the SMTP Mailer class: [Event type="mailError" bubbles=false cancelable=false eventPhase=2] When the condition is satisfied a third time, the email that was not delivered when the condition was satisfied the previous time is now delivered, along with the email for this instance. This pattern then repeats itself, with the next email not being sent followed by two emails being sent simulatneously when the condition is met again. The smtp server being used is Windows 2003, on an internal network. The email is being sent to an outlook account hosted on an exchange server that is also on this internal network. Here is the actionscript code that creates the SMTPMailer object: public var testMail:SMTPMailer = null; public function alertNotify() { Security.loadPolicyFile("crossdomain.xml"); this.testMail = new SMTPMailer("myserver.ec.local",25); this.testMail.addEventListener(SMTPEvent.MAIL_SENT, onEmailEvent); this.testMail.addEventListener(SMTPEvent.MAIL_ERROR, onEmailError); this.testMail.addEventListener(SMTPEvent.DISCONNECTED, onEmailConn); this.testMail.addEventListener(SecurityErrorEvent.SECURITY_ERROR, onEmailError); } Here is the code that creates the email body and calls the method to send the email: public function alertUser(emailAC:ArrayCollection):void { trace ("In alertUser() before send, testMail.connected = " + testMail.connected.toString()); var testStr:String = " Key Location Event Type Comment Update Time "; for each (var event:rEntity in emailAC) { testStr = testStr + "" + event.key.toString() + "" + event.xml.address.toString() + " " + [email protected]() + "" + [email protected]() + "" + [email protected]() + "" + event.xml.attribute("update-time").toXMLString() + ""; } testStr = testStr + ""; testMail.flush(); testMail.sendHTMLMail("[email protected]","[email protected]","Event Notification",testStr); } Really not sure where the email that gets hung up is being stored until it is finally sent.... Any suggestions as to how to begin to remedy this issue would be much appreciated.

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  • WCF facility : Metadata publishing for this service is currently disabled

    - by cvista
    I asked this before and got no where so i'm asking again as i'm now desperate!! Hey if i create a new wcf project i can browse the meta instantly. if I try - when using the WCF facility - i get the following: Metadata publishing for this service is currently disabled. i followed the instructions there and in a million other places and get no where. if i copy the contents of my faciltity service into the newly created project it complains that aspNetCompatibilityEnabled isnt enabled. so i enable it and then mex is disabled again and i get: Metadata publishing for this service is currently disabled. again!! this is driving me crazy - i have tried tried tried to follow every example on the web!! here is my current configuration - there is no client yet: <system.serviceModel> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" /> <services> <service name="IbzStar.WebServices.UserServices" behaviorConfiguration="ServiceBehavior"> <!-- Service Endpoints --> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="IbzStar.WebServices.IUserServices"> <!-- Upon deployment, the following identity element should be removed or replaced to reflect the identity under which the deployed service runs. If removed, WCF will infer an appropriate identity automatically. --> <identity> <dns value="localhost"/> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange"/> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="ServiceBehavior"> <!-- To avoid disclosing metadata information, set the value below to false and remove the metadata endpoint above before deployment --> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> <!-- To receive exception details in faults for debugging purposes, set the value below to true. Set to false before deployment to avoid disclosing exception information --> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="false"/> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> please someone help me out before my laptop gets launched into orbit!! w://

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  • .Net Entity Framework SaveChanges is adding without add method

    - by tmfkmoney
    I'm new to the entity framework and I'm really confused about how savechanges works. There's probably a lot of code in my example which could be improved, but here's the problem I'm having. The user enters a bunch of picks. I make sure the user hasn't already entered those picks. Then I add the picks to the database. var db = new myModel() var predictionArray = ticker.Substring(1).Split(','); // Get rid of the initial comma. var user = Membership.GetUser(); var userId = Convert.ToInt32(user.ProviderUserKey); // Get the member with all his predictions for today. var memberQuery = (from member in db.Members where member.user_id == userId select new { member, predictions = from p in member.Predictions where p.start_date == null select p }).First(); // Load all the company ids. foreach (var prediction in memberQuery.predictions) { prediction.CompanyReference.Load(); } var picks = from prediction in predictionArray let data = prediction.Split(':') let companyTicker = data[0] where !(from i in memberQuery.predictions select i.Company.ticker).Contains(companyTicker) select new Prediction { Member = memberQuery.member, Company = db.Companies.Where(c => c.ticker == companyTicker).First(), is_up = data[1] == "up", // This turns up and down into true and false. }; // Save the records to the database. // HERE'S THE PART I DON'T UNDERSTAND. // This saves the records, even though I don't have db.AddToPredictions(pick) foreach (var pick in picks) { db.SaveChanges(); } // This does not save records when the db.SaveChanges outside of a loop of picks. db.SaveChanges(); foreach (var pick in picks) { } // This saves records, but it will insert all the picks exactly once no matter how many picks you have. //The fact you're skipping a pick makes no difference in what gets inserted. var counter = 1; foreach (var pick in picks) { if (counter == 2) { db.SaveChanges(); } counter++; } There's obviously something going on with the context I don't understand. I'm guessing I've somehow loaded my new picks as pending changes, but even if that's true I don't understand I have to loop over them to save changes. Can someone explain this to me?

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  • Memory corruption in System.Move due to changed 8087CW mode (png + stretchblt)

    - by André Mussche
    I have strange a memory corruption problem. After many hours debugging and trying I think I found something. For example: I do a simple string assignment: sTest := 'SET LOCK_TIMEOUT '; However, the result sometimes becomes: sTest = 'SET LOCK'#0'TIMEOUT ' So, the _ gets replaced by an 0 byte. I have seen this happening once (reproducing is tricky, dependent on timing) in the System.Move function, when it uses the FPU stack (fild, fistp) for fast memory copy (in case of 9 till 32 bytes to move): ... @@SmallMove: {9..32 Byte Move} fild qword ptr [eax+ecx] {Load Last 8} fild qword ptr [eax] {Load First 8} cmp ecx, 8 jle @@Small16 fild qword ptr [eax+8] {Load Second 8} cmp ecx, 16 jle @@Small24 fild qword ptr [eax+16] {Load Third 8} fistp qword ptr [edx+16] {Save Third 8} ... Using the FPU view and 2 memory debug views (Delphi - View - Debug - CPU - Memory) I saw it going wrong... once... could not reproduce however... This morning I read something about the 8087CW mode, and yes, if this is changed into $27F I get memory corruption! Normally it is $133F: The difference between $133F and $027F is that $027F sets up the FPU for doing less precise calculations (limiting to Double in stead of Extended) and different infiniti handling (which was used for older FPU’s, but is not used any more). Okay, now I found why but not when! I changed the working of my AsmProfiler with a simple check (so all functions are checked at enter and leave): if Get8087CW = $27F then //normally $1372? if MainThreadID = GetCurrentThreadId then //only check mainthread DebugBreak; I "profiled" some units and dll's and bingo (see stack): Windows.StretchBlt(3372289943,0,0,514,345,4211154027,0,0,514,345,13369376) pngimage.TPNGObject.DrawPartialTrans(4211154027,(0, 0, 514, 345, (0, 0), (514, 345))) pngimage.TPNGObject.Draw($7FF62450,(0, 0, 514, 345, (0, 0), (514, 345))) Graphics.TCanvas.StretchDraw((0, 0, 514, 345, (0, 0), (514, 345)),$7FECF3D0) ExtCtrls.TImage.Paint Controls.TGraphicControl.WMPaint((15, 4211154027, 0, 0)) So it is happening in StretchBlt... What to do now? Is it a fault of Windows, or a bug in PNG (included in D2007)? Or is the System.Move function not failsafe?

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  • JSF 2.0: Preserving component state across multiple views

    - by tlind
    The web application I am developing using MyFaces 2.0.3 / PrimeFaces 2.2RC2 is divided into a content and a navigation area. In the navigation area, which is included into multiple pages using templating (i.e. <ui:define>), there are some widgets (e.g. a navigation tree, collapsible panels etc.) of which I want to preserve the component state across views. For example, let's say I am on the home page. When I navigate to a product details page by clicking on a product in the navigation tree, my Java code triggers a redirect using navigationHandler.handleNavigation(context, null, "/detailspage.jsf?faces-redirect=true") Another way of getting to that details page would be by directly clicking on a product teaser that is shown on the home page. The corresponding <h:link> would lead us to the details page. In both cases, the expansion state of my navigation tree (a PrimeFaces tree component) and my collapsible panels is lost. I understand this is because the redirect / h:link results in the creation of a new view. What is the best way of dealing with this? I am already using MyFaces Orchestra in my project along with its conversation scope, but I am not sure if this is of any help here (since I'd have to bind the expansion/collapsed state of the widgets to a backing bean... but as far as I know, this is not possible). Is there a way of telling JSF which component states to propagate to the next view, assuming that the same component exists in that view? I guess I could need a pointer into the right direction here. Thanks! Update 1: I just tried binding the panels and the tree to a session-scoped bean, but this seems to have no effect. Also, I guess I would have to bind all child components (if any) manually, so this doesn't seem like the way to go. Update 2: Binding UI components to non-request scoped beans is not a good idea (see link I posted in a comment below). If there is no easier approach, I might have to proceed as follows: When a panel is collapsed or the tree is expanded, save the current state in a session-scoped backing bean (!= the UI component itself) The components' states are stored in a map. The map key is the component's (hopefully) unique, relative ID. I cannot use the whole absolute component path here, since the IDs of the parent naming containers might change if the view changes, assuming these IDs are generated programmatically. As soon as a new view gets constructed, retrieve the components' states from the map and apply them to the components. For example, in case of the panels, I can set the collapsed attribute to a value retrieved from my session-scoped backing bean.

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  • LinearLayout as custom button, OnClickListener never called

    - by ohra
    I've been using the common Android Button with both icon (drawableTop) and text. It works really poorly if you want to have a non-standard size button, so I decided to make a custom button with a LinearLayout having the following layout: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" style="@style/ButtonHoloDark" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:gravity="center" android:clickable="true" android:focusable="true" android:orientation="vertical" > <ImageView android:id="@+id/buttonIcon" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:duplicateParentState="true" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/buttonText" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:duplicateParentState="true" android:gravity="center" android:textColor="@color/white" /> </LinearLayout> The layout is used by a custom class: public class CustomIconButton extends LinearLayout { public CustomIconButton(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { super(context, attrs); setAttributes(context, attrs); LayoutInflater.from(context).inflate(R.layout.custom_icon_button, this, true); } ... But when I set an OnClickListener on my button in its parent layout it never gets called. I can only receive clicks if a set the listener to the ImageView and/or TextView. This leads to two possible effects when the button is clicked: The click is inside the ImageView or the TextView. The click is registered ok, but the buttons state drawable doesn't change i.e. it doesn't appear depressed. The click is inside the "empty area" of the button. The click is not registered, but the state drawable works ok. Neither of these is feasible. I've played around with the following attributes on the LinearLayout or its children, but none really seem to have any effect whether true or false: duplicateParentState clickable focusable There doesn't seem to be any reasonable way to get the LinearLayout parent receive clicks instead of its children. I've seen some possible solutions overriding dispatchTouchEvent or onInterceptTouchEvent on the custom component itself, but that really seems like a big mess if I have to start analyzing touch events to identify proper clicks. So OnClickListener on a LinearLayout with children = no go?

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  • Add/delete row from a table

    - by yogsma
    I have this table with some dependents information and there is a add and delete button for each row to add/delete additional dependents. When I click "add" button, a new row gets added to the table, but when I click the "delete" button, it deletes the header row first and then on subsequent clicking, it deletes the corresponding row. Here is what I have: Javascript code function deleteRow(row){ var d = row.parentNode.parentNode.rowIndex; document.getElementById('dsTable').deleteRow(d); } HTML code <table id = 'dsTable' > <tr> <td> Relationship Type </td> <td> Date of Birth </td> <td> Gender </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Spouse </td> <td> 1980-22-03 </td> <td> female </td> <td> <input type="button" id ="addDep" value="Add" onclick = "add()" </td> <td> <input type="button" id ="deleteDep" value="Delete" onclick = "deleteRow(this)" </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Child </td> <td> 2008-23-06 </td> <td> female </td> <td> <input type="button" id ="addDep" value="Add" onclick = "add()"</td> <td> <input type="button" id ="deleteDep" value="Delete" onclick = "deleteRow(this)" </td> </tr> </table>

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  • Measure width() with jQuery after DOM refresh

    - by o_O Tync
    My script dynamically creates a <ul> width left-floating <li>s inside: it's a paginator. Afterwards, the script measures width of all <li>s and summs them up. The problem is that after the nodes are injected into the document — the browser refreshed DOM and applies CSS styles which takes a while. It has a negative effect on my script: when these operations are not complete before I measure the width — my script gets a wrong value. If I perform the measure in a second — everything is ok. The thing I'm looking for is a way to detect the moment when the <ul> is fully drawn, styles applied and the width has stabilizes. Or at least a way to detect every dimensions changes. Of course I can use setTimeout(..., 100) but it's ugly and I guess — not a solution at all. If there's a way to detect width stabilization — I would do the measuring right after it to get the correct values. HTML code generated by the DOM <div> <ul> <li><a href="...">1</a></li> <li><a href="...">2</a></li> .... </ul> </div> P.S. Why I need this. My paginator's left-floating <li> items tend to move to the next line when the <ul> tries to become wider than the page itself. Even though most of <li>s are invisible because of parent <div>'s width restriction: div { width: 500px; overflow: hidden; } div ul { width: 100%; white-space: nowrap; } div ul li { display: block; float: left; } they still go down unless I specify the actual summed width of the <ul> with the script.

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  • How to perform duplicate key validation using entlib (or DataAnnotations), MVC, and Repository pattern

    - by olivehour
    I have a set of ASP.NET 4 projects that culminate in an MVC (3 RC2) app. The solution uses Unity and EntLib Validation for cross-cutting dependency injection and validation. Both are working great for injecting repository and service layer implementations. However, I can't figure out how to do duplicate key validation. For example, when a user registers, we want to make sure they don't pick a UserID that someone else is already using. For this type of validation, the validating object must have a repository reference... or some other way to get an IQueryable / IEnumerable reference to check against other rows already in the DB. What I have is a UserMetadata class that has all of the property setters and getters for a user, along with all of the appropriate DataAnnotations and EntLib Validation attributes. There is also a UserEntity class implemented using EF4 POCO Entity Generator templates. The UserEntity depends on UserMetadata, because it has a MetadataTypeAttribute. I also have a UserViewModel class that has the same exact MetadataType attribute. This way, I can apply the same validation rules, via attributes, to both the entity and viewmodel. There are no concrete references to the Repository classes whatsoever. All repositories are injected using Unity. There is also a service layer that gets dependency injection. In the MVC project, service layer implementation classes are injected into the Controller classes (the controller classes only contain service layer interface references). Unity then injects the Repository implementations into the service layer classes (service classes also only contain interface references). I've experimented with the DataAnnotations CustomValidationAttribute in the metadata class. The problem with this is the validation method must be static, and the method cannot instantiate a repository implementation directly. My repository interface is IRepository, and I have only one single repository implementation class defined as EntityRepository for all domain objects. To instantiate a repository explicitly I would need to say new EntityRepository(), which would result in a circular dependency graph: UserMetadata [depends on] DuplicateUserIDValidator [depends on] UserEntity [depends on] UserMetadata. I've also tried creating a custom EntLib Validator along with a custom validation attribute. Here I don't have the same problem with a static method. I think I could get this to work if I could just figure out how to make Unity inject my EntityRepository into the validator class... which I can't. Right now, all of the validation code is in my Metadata class library, since that's where the custom validation attribute would go. Any ideas on how to perform validations that need to check against the current repository state? Can Unity be used to inject a dependency into a lower-layer class library?

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  • Best way to run remote VBScript in ASP.net? WMI or PsExec?

    - by envinyater
    I am doing some research to find out the best and most efficient method for this. I will need to execute remote scripts on a number of Window Servers/Computers (while we are building them). I have a web application that is going to automate this task, I currently have my prototype working to use PsExec to execute remote scripts. This requires PsExec to be installed on the system. A colleague suggested I should use WMI for this. I did some research in WMI and I couldn't find what I'm looking for. I want to either upload the script to the server and execute it and read the results, or already have the script on the server and execute it and read the results. I would prefer the first option though! Which is more ideal, PsExec or WMI? For reference, this is my prototype PsExec code. This script is only executing a small script to get the Windows OS and Service Pack Info. Protected Sub windowsScript(ByVal COMPUTERNAME As String) ' Create an array to store VBScript results Dim winVariables(2) As String nameLabel.Text = Name.Text ' Use PsExec to execute remote scripts Dim Proc As New System.Diagnostics.Process ' Run PsExec locally Proc.StartInfo = New ProcessStartInfo("C:\Windows\psexec.exe") ' Pass in following arguments to PsExec Proc.StartInfo.Arguments = COMPUTERNAME & " -s cmd /C c:\systemInfo.vbs" Proc.StartInfo.RedirectStandardInput = True Proc.StartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = True Proc.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = False Proc.Start() ' Pause for script to run System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1500) Proc.Close() System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(2500) 'Allows the system a chance to finish with the process. Dim filePath As String = COMPUTERNAME & "\TTO\somefile.txt" 'Download file created by script on Remote system to local system My.Computer.Network.DownloadFile(filePath, "C:\somefile.txt") System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000) ' Pause so file gets downloaded ''Import data from text file into variables textRead("C:\somefile.txt", winVariables) WindowsOSLbl.Text = winVariables(0).ToString() SvcPckLbl.Text = winVariables(1).ToString() System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000) ' ''Delete the file on server - we don't need it anymore Dim Proc2 As New System.Diagnostics.Process Proc2.StartInfo = New ProcessStartInfo("C:\Windows\psexec.exe") Proc2.StartInfo.Arguments = COMPUTERNAME & " -s cmd /C del c:\somefile.txt" Proc2.StartInfo.RedirectStandardInput = True Proc2.StartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = True Proc2.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = False Proc2.Start() System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(500) Proc2.Close() ' Delete file locally File.Delete("C:\somefile.txt") End Sub

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  • UIScrollView Infinite Scrolling

    - by Ben Robinson
    I'm attempting to setup a scrollview with infinite (horizontal) scrolling. Scrolling forward is easy - I have implemented scrollViewDidScroll, and when the contentOffset gets near the end I make the scrollview contentsize bigger and add more data into the space (i'll have to deal with the crippling effect this will have later!) My problem is scrolling back - the plan is to see when I get near the beginning of the scroll view, then when I do make the contentsize bigger, move the existing content along, add the new data to the beginning and then - importantly adjust the contentOffset so the data under the view port stays the same. This works perfectly if I scroll slowly (or enable paging) but if I go fast (not even very fast!) it goes mad! Heres the code: - (void) scrollViewDidScroll:(UIScrollView *)scrollView { float pageNumber = scrollView.contentOffset.x / 320; float pageCount = scrollView.contentSize.width / 320; if (pageNumber > pageCount-4) { //Add 10 new pages to end mainScrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(mainScrollView.contentSize.width + 3200, mainScrollView.contentSize.height); //add new data here at (320*pageCount, 0); } //*** the problem is here - I use updatingScrollingContent to make sure its only called once (for accurate testing!) if (pageNumber < 4 && !updatingScrollingContent) { updatingScrollingContent = YES; mainScrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(mainScrollView.contentSize.width + 3200, mainScrollView.contentSize.height); mainScrollView.contentOffset = CGPointMake(mainScrollView.contentOffset.x + 3200, 0); for (UIView *view in [mainContainerView subviews]) { view.frame = CGRectMake(view.frame.origin.x+3200, view.frame.origin.y, view.frame.size.width, view.frame.size.height); } //add new data here at (0, 0); } //** MY CHECK! NSLog(@"%f", mainScrollView.contentOffset.x); } As the scrolling happens the log reads: 1286.500000 1285.500000 1284.500000 1283.500000 1282.500000 1281.500000 1280.500000 Then, when pageNumber<4 (we're getting near the beginning): 4479.500000 4479.500000 Great! - but the numbers should continue to go down in the 4,000s but the next log entries read: 1278.000000 1277.000000 1276.500000 1275.500000 etc.... Continiuing from where it left off! Just for the record, if scrolled slowly the log reads: 1294.500000 1290.000000 1284.500000 1280.500000 4476.000000 4476.000000 4473.000000 4470.000000 4467.500000 4464.000000 4460.500000 4457.500000 etc.... Any ideas???? Thanks Ben.

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  • Quick question regarding this issue, Why doesnt it print out the second value(converted second value

    - by sil3nt
    Quick question, What have I done wrong here. The purpose of this code is to get the input into a string, the input being "12 34", with a space in between the "12" and "32" and to convert and print the two separate numbers from an integer variable known as number. Why doesn't the second call to the function copyTemp, not produce the value 34?. I have an index_counter variable which keeps track of the string index and its meant to skip the 'space' character?? what have i done wrong? thanks. #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> int index_counter = 0; int number; void copyTemp(char *expr,char *temp); int main(){ char exprstn[80]; //as global? char tempstr[80]; gets(exprstn); copyTemp(exprstn,tempstr); printf("Expression: %s\n",exprstn); printf("Temporary: %s\n",tempstr); printf("number is: %d\n",number); copyTemp(exprstn,tempstr); //second call produces same output shouldnt it now produce 34 in the variable number? printf("Expression: %s\n",exprstn); printf("Temporary: %s\n",tempstr); printf("number is: %d\n",number); return 0; } void copyTemp(char *expr,char *temp){ int i; for(i = index_counter; expr[i] != '\0'; i++){ if (expr[i] == '0'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '1'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '2'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '3'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '4'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '5'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '6'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '7'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '8'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '9'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == ' '){ temp[i] = '\0'; sscanf(temp,"%d",&number); index_counter = i+1; //skips? } } // is this included here? temp[i] = '\0'; }

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  • Monitoring UDP socket in glib(mm) eats up CPU time

    - by Gyorgy Szekely
    Hi, I have a GTKmm Windows application (built with MinGW) that receives UDP packets (no sending). The socket is native winsock and I use glibmm IOChannel to connect it to the application main loop. The socket is read with recvfrom. My problem is: this setup eats 25% percent CPU time on a 3GHz workstation. Can somebody tell me why? The application is idle in this case, and if I remove the UDP code, CPU usage drops down to almost zero. As the application has to perform some CPU intensive tasks, I could image better ways to spend that 25% Here are some code excerpts: (sorry for the printf's ;) ) /* bind */ void UDPInterface::bindToPort(unsigned short port) { struct sockaddr_in target; WSADATA wsaData; target.sin_family = AF_INET; target.sin_port = htons(port); target.sin_addr.s_addr = 0; if ( WSAStartup ( 0x0202, &wsaData ) ) { printf("WSAStartup failed!\n"); exit(0); // :) WSACleanup(); } sock = socket( AF_INET, SOCK_DGRAM, 0 ); if (sock == INVALID_SOCKET) { printf("invalid socket!\n"); exit(0); } if (bind(sock,(struct sockaddr*) &target, sizeof(struct sockaddr_in) ) == SOCKET_ERROR) { printf("failed to bind to port!\n"); exit(0); } printf("[UDPInterface::bindToPort] listening on port %i\n", port); } /* read */ bool UDPInterface::UDPEvent(Glib::IOCondition io_condition) { recvfrom(sock, (char*)buf, BUF_SIZE*4, 0, NULL, NULL); /* process packet... */ } /* glibmm connect */ Glib::RefPtr channel = Glib::IOChannel::create_from_win32_socket(udp.sock); Glib::signal_io().connect( sigc::mem_fun(udp, &UDPInterface::UDPEvent), channel, Glib::IO_IN ); I've read here in some other question, and also in glib docs (g_io_channel_win32_new_socket()) that the socket is put into nonblocking mode, and it's "a side-effect of the implementation and unavoidable". Does this explain the CPU effect, it's not clear to me? Whether or not I use glib to access the socket or call recvfrom() directly doesn't seem to make much difference, since CPU is used up before any packet arrives and the read handler gets invoked. Also glibmm docs state that it's ok to call recvfrom() even if the socket is polled (Glib::IOChannel::create_from_win32_socket()) I've tried compiling the program with -pg and created a per function cpu usage report with gprof. This wasn't usefull because the time is not spent in my program, but in some external glib/glibmm dll.

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  • Cannot Call WordPress Plugin Files Under wp-content

    - by Volomike
    I have a client who has many blog customers. Each of these WordPress blogs calls a plugin that provides a product link. The way that link is composed looks like this: {website}/wp-content/plugins/prodx/product?id=432320 This works fine on all blogs except two. On those two, when you try to call the URL, you get a 404. So, I disabled all plugins except prodx and reverted the theme to default (Kubrick), thinking perhaps a plugin intercept with add_action() API was doing this, such as intercepting URLs and redirecting them. However, this did not help. So, I upgraded the WordPress to the latest version. Again, didn't fix. So, I checked permissions, comparing with a blog that worked just fine. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced the .htaccess, using one from a working blog. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced all the files using some from a working blog that was identical to this one, and then restored the wp-config.php file back so that it talked to the right blog database. Again, didn't fix. Again I checked permissions meticulously, comparing to a perfectly working blog. Again, didn't fix. So, I created a test.php that looks like so: <?php print_r($_GET); echo "hello world"; I then copied it into another plugin folder and used my browser to get to it -- again, 404. So I copied it into the root of wp-content/plugins and tried to call it there -- again, 404. So I copied it into wp-content -- again, 404. Last, I copied it into the root of the WordPress blog website, and this time, it worked! Doesn't make sense. I started to think that perhaps something was going on with /etc/httpd/conf/httpd.conf for this customer, but the only thing I saw different in their for this customer was the IP address was different than the customer's blog that worked. Each customer gets their own IP in this environment my client has built. My client sysop is baffled too. What do you think is going on? Is there something wrong in the WP database for this customer? Is there something wrong in httpd.conf?

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  • iPhone memory management

    - by Prazi
    I am newbie to iPhone programming. I am not using Interface Builder in my programming. I have some doubt about memory management, @property topics in iPhone. Consider the following code @interface LoadFlag : UIViewController { UIImage *flag; UIImageView *preview; } @property (nonatomic, retain) UIImageView *preview; @property (nonatomic, retain) UIImage *flag; @implementation @synthesize preview; @synthesize flag; - (void)viewDidLoad { flag = [UIImage imageNamed:@"myImage.png"]]; NSLog(@"Preview: %d\n",[preview retainCount]); //Count: 0 but shouldn't it be 1 as I am retaining it in @property in interface file preview=[[UIImageView alloc]init]; NSLog(@"Count: %d\n",[preview retainCount]); //Count: 1 preview.frame=CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 100.0f, 100.0f); preview.image = flag; [self.view addSubview:preview]; NSLog(@"Count: %d\n",[preview retainCount]); //Count: 2 [preview release]; NSLog(@"Count: %d\n",[preview retainCount]); //Count: 1 } When & Why(what is the need) do I have to set @property with retain (in above case for UIImage & UIImageView) ? I saw this statement in many sample programs but didn't understood the need of it. When I declare @property (nonatomic, retain) UIImageView *preview; statement the retain Count is 0. Why doesn't it increase by 1 inspite of retaining it in @property. Also when I declare [self.view addSubview:preview]; then retain Count increments by 1 again. In this case does the "Autorelease pool" releases for us later or we have to take care of releasing it. I am not sure but I think that the Autorelease should handle it as we didn't explicitly retained it so why should we worry of releasing it. Now, after the [preview release]; statement my count is 1. Now I don't need UIImageView anymore in my program so when and where should I release it so that the count becomes 0 and the memory gets deallocated. Again, I am not sure but I think that the Autorelease should handle it as we didn't explicitly retained it so why should we worry of releasing it. What will happen if I release it in -(void) dealloc method In the statement - flag = [UIImage imageNamed:@"myImage.png"]]; I haven't allocated any memory to flag but how can I still use it in my program. In this case if I do not allocate memory then who allocates & deallocates memory to it or is the "flag" just a reference pointing to - [UIImage imageNamed:@"myImage.png"]];. If it is a reference only then do i need to release it. Thanks in advance.

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