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• Consolidating coding styles: Funcs, private method, single method classes

  - by jdoig

  Hi all, We currently have 3 devs with, some, conflicting styles and I'm looking for a way to bring peace to the kingdom... The Coders: Foo 1: Likes to use Func's & Action's inside public methods. He uses actions to alias off lengthy method calls and Func's to perform simple tasks that can be expressed in 1 or 2 lines and will be used frequently through out the code Pros: The main body of his code is succinct and very readable, often with only one or 2 public methods per class and rarely any private methods. Cons: The start of methods contain blocks of lambda rich code that other developers don't enjoy reading; and, on occasion, can contain higher order functions that other dev's REALLY don't like reading. Foo 2: Likes to create a private method for (almost) everything the public method will have to do . Pros: Public methods remain small and readable (to all developers). Cons: Private methods are numerous. With private methods that call into other private methods, that call into... etc, etc. Making code hard to navigate. Foo 3: Likes to create a public class with a, single, public method for every, non-trivial, task that needs performing, then dependency inject them into other objects. Pros: Easily testable, easy to understand (one object, one responsibility). Cons: project gets littered by classes, opening multiple class files to understand what code does makes navigation awkward. It would be great to take the best of all these techniques... Foo-1 Has really nice, readable (almost dsl-like) code... for the most part, except for all the Action and Func lambda shenanigans bulked together at the start of a method. Foo-3 Has highly testable and extensible code that just feels a bit "belt-&-braces" for some solutions and has some code-navigation niggles (constantly hitting F12 in VS and opening 5 other .cs files to find out what a single method does). And Foo-2... Well I'm not sure I like anything about the one-huge .cs file with 2 public methods and 12 private ones, except for the fact it's easier for juniors to dig into. I admit I grossly over-simplified the explanations of those coding styles; but if any one knows of any patterns, practices or diplomatic-manoeuvres that can help unite our three developers (without just telling any of them to just "stop it!") that would be great. From a feasibility standpoint : Foo-1's style meets with the most resistance due to some developers finding lambda and/or Func's hard to read. Foo-2's style meets with a less resistance as it's just so easy to fall into. Foo-3's style requires the most forward thinking and is difficult to enforce when time is short. Any ideas on some coding styles or conventions that can make this work?

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• How can this PHP/FQL code be modified to increase the performance and usability?

  - by Kaoukkos

  I try to get some insights from the pages I am administrator on Facebook. What my code does, it gets the IDs of the pages I want to work with through mySQL. I did not include that part though.After this, I get the page_id, name and fan_count of each of those facebook IDs and are saved in fancounts[]. Using the IDs ( pages[] ) I get two messages max from each page. There may be no messages, there may be 1 or 2 messages max. Possibly I will increase it later. messages[] holds the messages of each page. I have two problems with it. It has a very slow performance I can't find a way to echo the data like this: ID - Name of the page - Fan Count Here goes the first message Here goes the second one //here is a break ID - Name of the page 2 - Fan Count Here goes the first message of page 2 Here goes the second one of page 2 My questions are, how can the code be modified to increase performance and show the data as above? I read about fql.multiquery. Can it be used here? Please provide me with code examples. Thank you $pages = array(); // I get the IDs I want to work with $pagesIds = implode(',', $pages); // fancounts[] holds the page_id, name and fan_count of the Ids I work with $fancounts = array(); $pagesFanCounts = $facebook->api("/fql", array( "q" => "SELECT page_id, name, fan_count FROM page WHERE page_id IN ({$pagesIds})" )); foreach ($pagesFanCounts['data'] as $page){ $fancounts[] = $page['page_id']."-".$page['name']."-".$page['fan_count']; } //messages[] holds from 0 to 2 messages from each of the above pages $messages = array(); foreach( $pages as $id) { $getMessages = $facebook->api("/fql", array( "q" => "SELECT message FROM stream WHERE source_id = '$id' LIMIT 2" )); $messages[] = $getMessages['data']; } // this is how I print them now but it does not give me the best output. ( thanks goes to Mark for providing me this code ) $count = min(count($fancounts),count($messages)); for($i=0; $i<$count; ++$i) { echo $fancounts[$i],'<br>'; foreach($messages[$i] as $msg) { echo $msg['message'],'<br>'; } }

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• Improving performance on data pasting 2000 rows with validations

  - by Lohit

  I have N rows (which could be nothing less than 1000) on an excel spreadsheet. And in this sheet our project has 150 columns like this: Now, our application needs data to be copied (using normal Ctrl+C) and pasted (using Ctrl+V) from the excel file sheet on our GUI sheet. Copy pasting 1000 records takes around 5-6 seconds which is okay for our requirement, but the problem is when we need to make sure the data entered is valid. So we have to validate data in each row generate appropriate error messages and format the data as per requirement. So we need to at runtime parse and evaluate data in each row. Now all the formatting of data and validations come from the back-end database and we have it in a data-table (dtValidateAndFormatConditions). The conditions would be around 50. So you can see how slow this whole process becomes since N X 150 X 50 operations are required to complete this whole process. Initially it took approximately 2-3 minutes but now i have reduced it to 20 - 30 seconds. However i have increased the speed by making an expression parser of my own - and not by any algorithm, is there any other way i can improve performance, by using Divide and Conquer or some other mechanism. Currently i am not really sure how to go about this. Here is what part of my code looks like: public virtual void ValidateAndFormatOnCopyPaste(DataTable DtCopied, int CurRow) { foreach (DataRow dRow in dtValidateAndFormatConditions.Rows) { string Condition = dRow["Condition"]; string FormatValue = Value = dRow["Value"]; GetValidatedFormattedData(DtCopied,ref Condition, ref FormatValue ,iRowIndex); Condition = Parse(Condition); dRow["Condition"] = Condition; FormatValue = Parse(FormatValue ); dRow["Value"] = FormatValue; } } The above code gets called row-wise like this: public override void ValidateAndFormat(DataTable dtChangedRecords, CellRange cr) { int iRowStart = cr.Row, iRowEnd = cr.Row + cr.RowCount; for (int iRow = iRowStart; iRow < iRowEnd; iRow++) { ValidateAndFormatOnCopyPaste(dtChangedRecords,iRow); } } Please know my question needs a more algorithmic solution than code optimization, however any answers containing code related optimizations will be appreciated as well. (Tagged Linq because although not seen i have been using linq in some parts of my code).

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• IQueryable and lazy loading

  - by Nelson

  I'm having a hard time determining the best way to handle this... With Entity Framework (and L2S), LINQ queries return IQueryable. I have read various opinions on whether the DAL/BLL should return IQueryable, IEnumerable or IList. Assuming we go with IList, then the query is run immediately and that control is not passed on to the next layer. This makes it easier to unit test, etc. You lose the ability to refine the query at higher levels, but you could simply create another method that allows you to refine the query and still return IList. And there are many more pros/cons. So far so good. Now comes Entity Framework and lazy loading. I am using POCO objects with proxies in .NET 4/VS 2010. In the presentation layer I do: foreach (Order order in bll.GetOrders()) { foreach (OrderLine orderLine in order.OrderLines) { // Do something } } In this case, GetOrders() returns IList so it executes immediately before returning to the PL. But in the next foreach, you have lazy loading which executes multiple SQL queries as it gets all the OrderLines. So basically, the PL is running SQL queries "on demand" in the wrong layer. Is there any sensible way to avoid this? I could turn lazy loading off, but then what's the point of having this "feature" that everyone was complaining EF1 didn't have? And I'll admit it is very useful in many scenarios. So I see several options: Somehow remove all associations in the entities and add methods to return them. This goes against the default EF behavior/code generation and makes it harder to do some composite (multiple entity) LINQ queries. It seems like a step backwards. I vote no. If we have lazy loading anyway which makes it hard to unit test, then go all the way and return IQueryable. You'll have more control farther up the layers. I still don't think this is a good option because IQueryable ties you to L2S, L2E, or your own full implementation of IQueryable. Lazy loading may run queries "on demand", but doesn't tie you to any specific interface. I vote no. Turn off lazy loading. You'll have to handle your associations manually. This could be with eager loading's .Include(). I vote yes in some specific cases. Keep IList and lazy loading. I vote yes in many cases, only due to the troubles with the others. Any other options or suggestions? I haven't found an option that really convinces me.

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• Passing array into constructor to use on JList

  - by OVERTONE

  I know the title sound confusing and thats because it is. its a bit long so try too stay with me. this is the layout i have my code designed variables constructor methods. im trying too fill a Jlist full on names. i want too get those names using a method. so here goes. in my variables i have my JList. its called contactNames; i also have an array which stores 5 strings which are the contacts names; heres the code for that anyway String contact1; String contact2; String contact3; String contact4; String contact5; String[] contactListNames; JList contactList; simple enough. then in my constructor i have the Jlist defined to fill itself with the contents of the array fillContactList(); JList contactList = new JList(contactListNames); that method fillContactList() is coming up shortly. notice i dont have the array defined in the constructor. so heres my first question. can i do that? define the array to contain something in te constructor rather than filling it fromt the array. now heres where stuff gets balls up. ive created three different methods all of which havent worked. basically im trying to fill the array with all of them. this is the simplest one. it doesnt set the Jlist, it doesnt do anything compilicated. all it trys too do is fill the array one bit at a time public void fillContactList() { for(int i = 0;i<3;i++) { try { String contact; System.out.println(" please fill the list at index "+ i); Scanner in = new Scanner(System.in); contact = in.next(); contactListNames[i] = contact; in.nextLine(); } catch(Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } unfortunately this doesnt qwork. i get the print out to fill it at index 0; i input something and i get a nice big stack trace starting at contactListNames[i] = contact; so my two questions in short are how i define an array in a constructor. and why cant i fill the array from that method. ************************888 **************************888 stack trace by request please fill the list at index 0 overtone java.lang.NullPointerException please fill the list at index 1 at project.AdminMessages.fillContactList(AdminMessages.java:408) at project.AdminMessages.<init>(AdminMessages.java:88) at project.AdminUser.createAdminMessages(AdminUser.java:32) at project.AdminUser.<init>(AdminUser.java:18) at project.AdminUser.main(AdminUser.java:47) it was a null poiinter exception

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• Bound DataGridView not updating data source

  - by Max Yaffe

  I'm trying to bind a table of structures to a DataGridView. Loading and viewing the table is working fine but I can't edit a value and get it stored back into the table. Here's what I'm doing. I have a "primitive" data type, Real defined by public struct MyReal:IMyPrimative { public Double m_Real; //... public MyReal(String val) { m_Real = default(Double); Init(val); } //... } It gets used in a structure: public struct MyReal_Record : IMyRecord { public MyReal Freq { get; set;} MyReal_Record(String[] vals) { Init(vals); } } And the structure is used to define a table using a generic Binding List public class MyTable<S> : BindingList<S> where S: struct, IMyRecord { public Type typeofS; public MyTable() { typeofS = typeof(S); // ... } This table is used as a binding source for a grid, dynamically. private void miLoadFile_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { MyModel.Table<Real_Record> RTable = new MyModel.Table<Real_Record>(); //... Table initialized here //set up grid with virtual mode dataGridView1.DataSource = RTable; } All of this works fine and I can create RTable, initialize it and display it in a grid. The grid allows editing and has events set for CellParsing and CellFormatting which look like: private void dataGridView1_CellFormatting(object sender, DataGridViewCellFormattingEventArgs e) { if (e.DesiredType != typeof(String)) return; e.Value = e.Value.ToString(); } private void dataGridView1_CellParsing(object sender, DataGridViewCellParsingEventArgs e) { if (e.DesiredType != typeof(MyReal)) return; e.Value = new MyReal(e.Value.ToString()); e.ParsingApplied = true; this.dataGridView1.UpdateCellValue(e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex); } When I edit a value in a cell, I can change the text. On leaving the cell, CellParsing fires and the event handler is called. Everything seems to be correct going into the CellParsing handler. e.DesiredType is MyReal. e.Value is a string with the new value. After the new MyReal is created from the string, e.Value is set correctly. RowIndex and ColumnIndex are correct. ReadOnly is set false. However, when I leave the cell, the system restores the original value to the cell. I thought the UpdateCellValue would replace the value in the dataSource but I seem to be missing something. What did I miss? Thanks, Max

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• JSF 2.0: Preserving component state across multiple views

  - by tlind

  The web application I am developing using MyFaces 2.0.3 / PrimeFaces 2.2RC2 is divided into a content and a navigation area. In the navigation area, which is included into multiple pages using templating (i.e. <ui:define>), there are some widgets (e.g. a navigation tree, collapsible panels etc.) of which I want to preserve the component state across views. For example, let's say I am on the home page. When I navigate to a product details page by clicking on a product in the navigation tree, my Java code triggers a redirect using navigationHandler.handleNavigation(context, null, "/detailspage.jsf?faces-redirect=true") Another way of getting to that details page would be by directly clicking on a product teaser that is shown on the home page. The corresponding <h:link> would lead us to the details page. In both cases, the expansion state of my navigation tree (a PrimeFaces tree component) and my collapsible panels is lost. I understand this is because the redirect / h:link results in the creation of a new view. What is the best way of dealing with this? I am already using MyFaces Orchestra in my project along with its conversation scope, but I am not sure if this is of any help here (since I'd have to bind the expansion/collapsed state of the widgets to a backing bean... but as far as I know, this is not possible). Is there a way of telling JSF which component states to propagate to the next view, assuming that the same component exists in that view? I guess I could need a pointer into the right direction here. Thanks! Update 1: I just tried binding the panels and the tree to a session-scoped bean, but this seems to have no effect. Also, I guess I would have to bind all child components (if any) manually, so this doesn't seem like the way to go. Update 2: Binding UI components to non-request scoped beans is not a good idea (see link I posted in a comment below). If there is no easier approach, I might have to proceed as follows: When a panel is collapsed or the tree is expanded, save the current state in a session-scoped backing bean (!= the UI component itself) The components' states are stored in a map. The map key is the component's (hopefully) unique, relative ID. I cannot use the whole absolute component path here, since the IDs of the parent naming containers might change if the view changes, assuming these IDs are generated programmatically. As soon as a new view gets constructed, retrieve the components' states from the map and apply them to the components. For example, in case of the panels, I can set the collapsed attribute to a value retrieved from my session-scoped backing bean.

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• UIScrollView Infinite Scrolling

  - by Ben Robinson

  I'm attempting to setup a scrollview with infinite (horizontal) scrolling. Scrolling forward is easy - I have implemented scrollViewDidScroll, and when the contentOffset gets near the end I make the scrollview contentsize bigger and add more data into the space (i'll have to deal with the crippling effect this will have later!) My problem is scrolling back - the plan is to see when I get near the beginning of the scroll view, then when I do make the contentsize bigger, move the existing content along, add the new data to the beginning and then - importantly adjust the contentOffset so the data under the view port stays the same. This works perfectly if I scroll slowly (or enable paging) but if I go fast (not even very fast!) it goes mad! Heres the code: - (void) scrollViewDidScroll:(UIScrollView *)scrollView { float pageNumber = scrollView.contentOffset.x / 320; float pageCount = scrollView.contentSize.width / 320; if (pageNumber > pageCount-4) { //Add 10 new pages to end mainScrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(mainScrollView.contentSize.width + 3200, mainScrollView.contentSize.height); //add new data here at (320*pageCount, 0); } //*** the problem is here - I use updatingScrollingContent to make sure its only called once (for accurate testing!) if (pageNumber < 4 && !updatingScrollingContent) { updatingScrollingContent = YES; mainScrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(mainScrollView.contentSize.width + 3200, mainScrollView.contentSize.height); mainScrollView.contentOffset = CGPointMake(mainScrollView.contentOffset.x + 3200, 0); for (UIView *view in [mainContainerView subviews]) { view.frame = CGRectMake(view.frame.origin.x+3200, view.frame.origin.y, view.frame.size.width, view.frame.size.height); } //add new data here at (0, 0); } //** MY CHECK! NSLog(@"%f", mainScrollView.contentOffset.x); } As the scrolling happens the log reads: 1286.500000 1285.500000 1284.500000 1283.500000 1282.500000 1281.500000 1280.500000 Then, when pageNumber<4 (we're getting near the beginning): 4479.500000 4479.500000 Great! - but the numbers should continue to go down in the 4,000s but the next log entries read: 1278.000000 1277.000000 1276.500000 1275.500000 etc.... Continiuing from where it left off! Just for the record, if scrolled slowly the log reads: 1294.500000 1290.000000 1284.500000 1280.500000 4476.000000 4476.000000 4473.000000 4470.000000 4467.500000 4464.000000 4460.500000 4457.500000 etc.... Any ideas???? Thanks Ben.

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• Best way to run remote VBScript in ASP.net? WMI or PsExec?

  - by envinyater

  I am doing some research to find out the best and most efficient method for this. I will need to execute remote scripts on a number of Window Servers/Computers (while we are building them). I have a web application that is going to automate this task, I currently have my prototype working to use PsExec to execute remote scripts. This requires PsExec to be installed on the system. A colleague suggested I should use WMI for this. I did some research in WMI and I couldn't find what I'm looking for. I want to either upload the script to the server and execute it and read the results, or already have the script on the server and execute it and read the results. I would prefer the first option though! Which is more ideal, PsExec or WMI? For reference, this is my prototype PsExec code. This script is only executing a small script to get the Windows OS and Service Pack Info. Protected Sub windowsScript(ByVal COMPUTERNAME As String) ' Create an array to store VBScript results Dim winVariables(2) As String nameLabel.Text = Name.Text ' Use PsExec to execute remote scripts Dim Proc As New System.Diagnostics.Process ' Run PsExec locally Proc.StartInfo = New ProcessStartInfo("C:\Windows\psexec.exe") ' Pass in following arguments to PsExec Proc.StartInfo.Arguments = COMPUTERNAME & " -s cmd /C c:\systemInfo.vbs" Proc.StartInfo.RedirectStandardInput = True Proc.StartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = True Proc.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = False Proc.Start() ' Pause for script to run System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1500) Proc.Close() System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(2500) 'Allows the system a chance to finish with the process. Dim filePath As String = COMPUTERNAME & "\TTO\somefile.txt" 'Download file created by script on Remote system to local system My.Computer.Network.DownloadFile(filePath, "C:\somefile.txt") System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000) ' Pause so file gets downloaded ''Import data from text file into variables textRead("C:\somefile.txt", winVariables) WindowsOSLbl.Text = winVariables(0).ToString() SvcPckLbl.Text = winVariables(1).ToString() System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000) ' ''Delete the file on server - we don't need it anymore Dim Proc2 As New System.Diagnostics.Process Proc2.StartInfo = New ProcessStartInfo("C:\Windows\psexec.exe") Proc2.StartInfo.Arguments = COMPUTERNAME & " -s cmd /C del c:\somefile.txt" Proc2.StartInfo.RedirectStandardInput = True Proc2.StartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = True Proc2.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = False Proc2.Start() System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(500) Proc2.Close() ' Delete file locally File.Delete("C:\somefile.txt") End Sub

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• How to replace all id attributes of a child collection of complex types using jQuery in ASP.net MVC

  - by TJB

  Here's my situation: I'm writing an ASP.net MVC 1 website and I have a create/edit form that uses the default model binding to parse the form into a strongly typed complex object. The object I'm posting has a child collection of another complex type and the way I format my id's for the model binder is as follows: <div class="childContainer" > <!-- There's one of these for each property for each child collection item --> <%= Html.TextBox("ChildCollectionName[0].ChildPropertyName", /* blah blah */ ) %> <%= Html.TextBox("ChildCollectionName[0].OtherChildPropertyName", /* blah blah */ ) %> <!-- ... --> </div> This gets rendered as <div class="childContainer" > <input id="ChildCollectionName[0]_ChildPropertyName" ... /> <input id="ChildCollectionName[0]_OtherChildPropertyName" ... /> ... </div> <div class="childContainer" > <input id="ChildCollectionName[1]_ChildPropertyName" ... /> <input id="ChildCollectionName[1]_OtherChildPropertyName" ... /> ... </div> For each entry in the chlid collection. This collection is dynamically created in the form using jQuery, so entries can be added, removed etc. and whenever there's an operation on the collection I need to update the indexes so that it's bound correctly on the server side. What's the best way to replace all the html input id's when I'm updating the index within the child e.g. replace all [*] -- [N] where N is the correct index. using jQuery / JavaScript ? I have something coded now, but its buggy and I think there is a simpler solution. Also, if you have an easier way to identify the child collection I'll take any advice on that as well. Thanx!

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• Loading Modules in Angular

  - by SL Dev

  I'm new to AngularJS. In my efforts to learn, I've relied on the AngularJS tutorials. Now, I'm trying to build an app using the AngularSeed project template. I'm trying to make my project as modular as possible. For that reason, my controllers are broken out into several files. Currently, I have the following: /app index.html login.html home.html javascript app.js loginCtrl.js homeCtrl.js my app.js file has the following: 'use strict'; var app = angular.module('site', ['ngRoute']); app.config(function($routeProvider, $locationProvider) { $locationProvider.html5Mode(true); $routeProvider.when('/login', {templateUrl: 'app/login.html', controller:'loginCtrl'}); $routeProvider.when('/home', {templateUrl: 'app/home.html', controller:'homeCtrl'}); $routeProvider.otherwise({redirectTo: '/login'}); }); my loginCtrl.js file is very basic at the moment. It only has: 'use strict'; app.controller('loginCtrl', function loginCtrl($scope) { } ); My homeCtrl.js is almost the same, except for the name. It looks like the following: 'use strict'; app.controller('homeCtrl', function homeCtrl($scope) { } ); My index.html file is the angularSeed index-async.html file. However, when I load the dependencies, I have the following: // load all of the dependencies asynchronously. $script([ 'http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/angularjs/1.2.0-rc.3/angular.min.js', 'http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/angularjs/1.2.0-rc.3/angular-route.min.js', 'javascript/app.js', 'javascript/loginCtrl.js', 'javascript/homeCtrl.js' ], function() { // when all is done, execute bootstrap angular application angular.bootstrap(document, ['site']); }); My problem is, sometimes my app works and sometimes it doesn't. It's almost like something gets loaded before something else. Occasionally, I receive this error. Other times, I get an error in the console window that says: 'Uncaught ReferenceError: app is not defined' in loginCtrl.js. Sometimes it happens with homeCtrl.js. What am I doing wrong? It feels like I need to have my controllers in a module and pass that module in my app.config in the app.js file. However, a) I'm not sure if that allowed and b) I'm not sure how to do it.

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• How do I use a custom #theme function to a fieldset in a drupal module?

  - by Rob Crowell

  I have a module that builds a form that includes a fieldset. Instead of using the <legend> element to render the fieldset title, I want to place this content in a <div> element instead. But I want to change the behavior only for the form returned by my module, so I don't want to place any new functionality into my theme's template.php file. In mymod.module I have defined: // custom rendering function for fieldset elements function theme_mymod_fieldset($element) { return 'test'; } // implement hook_theme function mymod_theme() { return array( 'mymod_fieldset' => array('arguments' => array('element' => NULL)), 'mymod_form' => array('arguments' => array()) ); } // return a form that is based on the 'Basic Account Info' category of the user profile function mymod_form() { // load the user's profile global $user; $account = user_load($user->uid); // load the profile form, and then edit it $form_state = array(); $form = drupal_retrieve_form('user_profile_form', $form_state, $account, 'Basic Account Info'); // set the custom #theme function for this fieldset $form['Basic Account Info']['#theme'] = 'mymod_fieldset'; // more form manipulations // ... return $form; } When my page gets rendered, I expected to see the fieldset representing 'Basic Account Info' to be wholly replaced by my test message 'test'. Instead what happens is that the <fieldset> and <legend> elements are rendered as normal, but with the body of the fieldset replaced by the test message instead, like this: <fieldset> <legend>Basic Account Info</legend> test </fieldset> Why doesn't my #theme function have the chance to replace the entire <fieldset> element? If I wrap a textfield in this function instead, I am able to completely replace the <input> element along with its label. Furthermore, if I provide an override in my site's template.php for theme_fieldset, it works as expected and I am able to completely replace the <fieldset>, so I know it is possible. What's different about providing #theme functions to fieldsets inside a module?

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• .Net Entity Framework SaveChanges is adding without add method

  - by tmfkmoney

  I'm new to the entity framework and I'm really confused about how savechanges works. There's probably a lot of code in my example which could be improved, but here's the problem I'm having. The user enters a bunch of picks. I make sure the user hasn't already entered those picks. Then I add the picks to the database. var db = new myModel() var predictionArray = ticker.Substring(1).Split(','); // Get rid of the initial comma. var user = Membership.GetUser(); var userId = Convert.ToInt32(user.ProviderUserKey); // Get the member with all his predictions for today. var memberQuery = (from member in db.Members where member.user_id == userId select new { member, predictions = from p in member.Predictions where p.start_date == null select p }).First(); // Load all the company ids. foreach (var prediction in memberQuery.predictions) { prediction.CompanyReference.Load(); } var picks = from prediction in predictionArray let data = prediction.Split(':') let companyTicker = data[0] where !(from i in memberQuery.predictions select i.Company.ticker).Contains(companyTicker) select new Prediction { Member = memberQuery.member, Company = db.Companies.Where(c => c.ticker == companyTicker).First(), is_up = data[1] == "up", // This turns up and down into true and false. }; // Save the records to the database. // HERE'S THE PART I DON'T UNDERSTAND. // This saves the records, even though I don't have db.AddToPredictions(pick) foreach (var pick in picks) { db.SaveChanges(); } // This does not save records when the db.SaveChanges outside of a loop of picks. db.SaveChanges(); foreach (var pick in picks) { } // This saves records, but it will insert all the picks exactly once no matter how many picks you have. //The fact you're skipping a pick makes no difference in what gets inserted. var counter = 1; foreach (var pick in picks) { if (counter == 2) { db.SaveChanges(); } counter++; } There's obviously something going on with the context I don't understand. I'm guessing I've somehow loaded my new picks as pending changes, but even if that's true I don't understand I have to loop over them to save changes. Can someone explain this to me?

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• properies profile when writing word file

  - by avani-nature

  Hai frnds i am new to php i am having following problems in my coding... 1.Actually i am opening word document with com object and storing it in textarea. 2.when content gets opened in textarea i am editing that content and saving the document 3.actually when i edited that file and done save after that if i open word document then file properties-custom the old content getting removed i wannt to retain that even if i edited the word document..please do the needful i am using below code <?php $filename = 'C:/xampp/htdocs/mts/sites/default/files/a.doc'; //echo $filename; if(isset($_REQUEST['Save'])){ $somecontent = stripslashes($_POST['somecontent']); // Let's make sure the file exists and is writable first. if (is_writable($filename)) { // In our example we're opening $filename in append mode. // The file pointer is at the bottom of the file hence // that's where $somecontent will go when we fwrite() it. if (!$handle = fopen($filename, 'w')) { echo "Cannot open file ($filename)"; exit; } // Write $somecontent to our opened fi<form action="" method="get"></form>le. if (fwrite($handle, $somecontent) === FALSE) { echo "Cannot write to file ($filename)"; exit; } echo "Success, wrote ($somecontent) to file ($filename) <a href=".$_SERVER['PHP_SELF']."> - Continue - "; fclose($handle); } else { echo "The file $filename is not writable"; } } else{ // get contents of a file into a string $handle = fopen($filename, "r"); $somecontent = fread($handle, filesize($filename)); $word = new COM("word.application") or die ("Could not initialise MS Word object."); $word->Documents->Open(realpath("$filename")); // Extract content. $somecontent = (string) $word->ActiveDocument->Content; //echo $somecontent; $word->ActiveDocument->Close(false); $word->Quit(); $word = null; unset($word); fclose($handle); } ?> <h6>Edit file --------><? $filenam=explode("/",$filename);$filename=$filename[7]; echo $filename ;?></h6> <form name="form1" method="post" action=""> <p> <textarea name="somecontent" cols="100" rows="20"><? echo $somecontent ;?></textarea> </p> <div style='padding-left:250px;'><input type="submit" name="Save" value="Save"></div> </p> </form> <? } ?>

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• Measure width() with jQuery after DOM refresh

  - by o_O Tync

  My script dynamically creates a <ul> width left-floating <li>s inside: it's a paginator. Afterwards, the script measures width of all <li>s and summs them up. The problem is that after the nodes are injected into the document — the browser refreshed DOM and applies CSS styles which takes a while. It has a negative effect on my script: when these operations are not complete before I measure the width — my script gets a wrong value. If I perform the measure in a second — everything is ok. The thing I'm looking for is a way to detect the moment when the <ul> is fully drawn, styles applied and the width has stabilizes. Or at least a way to detect every dimensions changes. Of course I can use setTimeout(..., 100) but it's ugly and I guess — not a solution at all. If there's a way to detect width stabilization — I would do the measuring right after it to get the correct values. HTML code generated by the DOM <div> <ul> <li><a href="...">1</a></li> <li><a href="...">2</a></li> .... </ul> </div> P.S. Why I need this. My paginator's left-floating <li> items tend to move to the next line when the <ul> tries to become wider than the page itself. Even though most of <li>s are invisible because of parent <div>'s width restriction: div { width: 500px; overflow: hidden; } div ul { width: 100%; white-space: nowrap; } div ul li { display: block; float: left; } they still go down unless I specify the actual summed width of the <ul> with the script.

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• Help with C# program design implementation: multiple array of lists or a better way?

  - by Bob

  I'm creating a 2D tile-based RPG in XNA and am in the initial design phase. I was thinking of how I want my tile engine to work and came up with a rough sketch. Basically I want a grid of tiles, but at each tile location I want to be able to add more than one tile and have an offset. I'd like this so that I could do something like add individual trees on the world map to give more flair. Or set bottles on a bar in some town without having to draw a bunch of different bar tiles with varying bottles. But maybe my reach is greater than my grasp. I went to implement the idea and had something like this in my Map object: List<Tile>[,] Grid; But then I thought about it. Let's say I had a world map of 200x200, which would actually be pretty small as far as RPGs go. That would amount to 40,000 Lists. To my mind I think there has to be a better way. Now this IS pre-mature optimization. I don't know if the way I happen to design my maps and game will be able to handle this, but it seems needlessly inefficient and something that could creep up if my game gets more complex. One idea I have is to make the offset and the multiple tiles optional so that I'm only paying for them when needed. But I'm not sure how I'd do this. A multiple array of objects? object[,] Grid; So here's my criteria: A 2D grid of tile locations Each tile location has a minimum of 1 tile, but can optionally have more Each extra tile can optionally have an x and y offset for pinpoint placement Can anyone help with some ideas for implementing such a design (don't need it done for me, just ideas) while keeping memory usage to a minimum? If you need more background here's roughly what my Map and Tile objects amount to: public struct Map { public Texture2D Texture; public List<Rectangle> Sources; //Source Rectangles for where in Texture to get the sprite public List<Tile>[,] Grid; } public struct Tile { public int Index; //Where in Sources to find the source Rectangle public int X, Y; //Optional offsets }

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• How do you clear RootLayoutPanel in GWT?

  - by kerrr

  I have Buttons attached to elements on the modules entrypoint html page using RootPanel.get("foo").add(button). If I subsequently create a LayoutPanel and attach it using RootLayoutPanel.get.add(layoutpanal) then the buttons cannot be clicked. This is all fine. If I then try and remove the layoutpanel or clear the RootLayoutPanel the buttons still cannot be clicked. Any ideas how to clear this? Have I missed a step or should you simply never try and get back to using a page's RootPanel if you have used a RootLayoutPanel? Sample code: public void onModuleLoad(){ final LayoutPanel lp1=new LayoutPanel(); ClickPanel ping=new ClickPanel("Ping"); ping.getElement().getStyle().setBackgroundColor( "#fdd" ); ping.addClickHandler( new ClickHandler(){ @Override public void onClick( ClickEvent event ){ Window.alert( "Ping!!!" ); //lp1.removeFromParent(); //RootLayoutPanel.get().remove(lp1); //RootLayoutPanel.get().removeFromParent(); RootLayoutPanel.get().clear(); } } ); ClickPanel bong=new ClickPanel("Bong"); bong.getElement().getStyle().setBackgroundColor( "#ddf" ); bong.addClickHandler( new ClickHandler(){ @Override public void onClick( ClickEvent event ){ Window.alert( "Bong!!!" ); } } ); lp1.add( ping ); lp1.setWidgetLeftWidth( ping, 100, Style.Unit.PX, 500, Style.Unit.PX ); lp1.setWidgetTopHeight( ping, 100, Style.Unit.PX, 500, Style.Unit.PX ); lp1.add( bong ); lp1.setWidgetLeftWidth( bong, 50, Style.Unit.PCT, 600, Style.Unit.PX ); lp1.setWidgetTopHeight( bong, 50, Style.Unit.PCT, 200, Style.Unit.PX ); Button b=new Button("Click Me"); b.addClickHandler( new ClickHandler(){ @Override public void onClick( ClickEvent event ){ RootLayoutPanel.get().add( lp1 ); } } ); RootPanel.get("button1").add( b ); } ClickPanel is simply overrides HTMLPanel implementing HasClickHandelers. Clicking "Click Me" opens the layout panel. Clicking the panel ping gets rid of the layout panel, but the button "Click Me" cannot be clicked. I've tried various options.

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• iPhone memory management

  - by Prazi

  I am newbie to iPhone programming. I am not using Interface Builder in my programming. I have some doubt about memory management, @property topics in iPhone. Consider the following code @interface LoadFlag : UIViewController { UIImage *flag; UIImageView *preview; } @property (nonatomic, retain) UIImageView *preview; @property (nonatomic, retain) UIImage *flag; @implementation @synthesize preview; @synthesize flag; - (void)viewDidLoad { flag = [UIImage imageNamed:@"myImage.png"]]; NSLog(@"Preview: %d\n",[preview retainCount]); //Count: 0 but shouldn't it be 1 as I am retaining it in @property in interface file preview=[[UIImageView alloc]init]; NSLog(@"Count: %d\n",[preview retainCount]); //Count: 1 preview.frame=CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 100.0f, 100.0f); preview.image = flag; [self.view addSubview:preview]; NSLog(@"Count: %d\n",[preview retainCount]); //Count: 2 [preview release]; NSLog(@"Count: %d\n",[preview retainCount]); //Count: 1 } When & Why(what is the need) do I have to set @property with retain (in above case for UIImage & UIImageView) ? I saw this statement in many sample programs but didn't understood the need of it. When I declare @property (nonatomic, retain) UIImageView *preview; statement the retain Count is 0. Why doesn't it increase by 1 inspite of retaining it in @property. Also when I declare [self.view addSubview:preview]; then retain Count increments by 1 again. In this case does the "Autorelease pool" releases for us later or we have to take care of releasing it. I am not sure but I think that the Autorelease should handle it as we didn't explicitly retained it so why should we worry of releasing it. Now, after the [preview release]; statement my count is 1. Now I don't need UIImageView anymore in my program so when and where should I release it so that the count becomes 0 and the memory gets deallocated. Again, I am not sure but I think that the Autorelease should handle it as we didn't explicitly retained it so why should we worry of releasing it. What will happen if I release it in -(void) dealloc method In the statement - flag = [UIImage imageNamed:@"myImage.png"]]; I haven't allocated any memory to flag but how can I still use it in my program. In this case if I do not allocate memory then who allocates & deallocates memory to it or is the "flag" just a reference pointing to - [UIImage imageNamed:@"myImage.png"]];. If it is a reference only then do i need to release it. Thanks in advance.

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• Add/delete row from a table

  - by yogsma

  I have this table with some dependents information and there is a add and delete button for each row to add/delete additional dependents. When I click "add" button, a new row gets added to the table, but when I click the "delete" button, it deletes the header row first and then on subsequent clicking, it deletes the corresponding row. Here is what I have: Javascript code function deleteRow(row){ var d = row.parentNode.parentNode.rowIndex; document.getElementById('dsTable').deleteRow(d); } HTML code <table id = 'dsTable' > <tr> <td> Relationship Type </td> <td> Date of Birth </td> <td> Gender </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Spouse </td> <td> 1980-22-03 </td> <td> female </td> <td> <input type="button" id ="addDep" value="Add" onclick = "add()" </td> <td> <input type="button" id ="deleteDep" value="Delete" onclick = "deleteRow(this)" </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Child </td> <td> 2008-23-06 </td> <td> female </td> <td> <input type="button" id ="addDep" value="Add" onclick = "add()"</td> <td> <input type="button" id ="deleteDep" value="Delete" onclick = "deleteRow(this)" </td> </tr> </table>

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• Connection hangs after time of inactivity

  - by Sinuhe

  In my application, Spring manages connection pool for database access. Hibernate uses these connections for its queries. At first glance, I have no problems with the pool: it works correctly with concurrent clients and a pool with only one connection. I can execute a lot of queries, so I think that I (or Spring) don't leave open connections. My problem appears after some time of inactivity (sometimes 30 minutes, sometimes more than 2 hours). Then, when Hibernate does some search, it lasts too much. Setting log4j level to TRACE, I get this logs: ... 18:27:01 DEBUG nsactionSynchronizationManager - Retrieved value [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.SessionHolder@99abd7] for key [org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl@7d2897] bound to thread [http-8080-Processor24] 18:27:01 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Found thread-bound Session [org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl@8878cd] for Hibernate transaction 18:27:01 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Using transaction object [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateTransactionManager$HibernateTransactionObject@1b2ffee] 18:27:01 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Creating new transaction with name [com.acjoventut.service.GenericManager.findByExample]: PROPAGATION_REQUIRED,ISOLATION_DEFAULT 18:27:01 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Preparing JDBC Connection of Hibernate Session [org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl@8878cd] 18:27:01 TRACE SessionImpl - setting flush mode to: AUTO 18:27:01 DEBUG JDBCTransaction - begin 18:27:01 DEBUG ConnectionManager - opening JDBC connection Here it gets frozen for about 2 - 10 minutes. But then continues: 18:30:11 DEBUG JDBCTransaction - current autocommit status: true 18:30:11 DEBUG JDBCTransaction - disabling autocommit 18:30:11 TRACE JDBCContext - after transaction begin 18:30:11 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Exposing Hibernate transaction as JDBC transaction [jdbc:oracle:thin:@212.31.39.50:30998:orcl, UserName=DEVELOP, Oracle JDBC driver] 18:30:11 DEBUG nsactionSynchronizationManager - Bound value [org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.ConnectionHolder@843a9d] for key [org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource@7745fd] to thread [http-8080-Processor24] 18:30:11 DEBUG nsactionSynchronizationManager - Initializing transaction synchronization ... After that, it works with no problems, until another period of inactivity. IMHO, it seems like connection pool returns an invalid/closed connection, and when Hibernate realizes that, ask another connection to the pool. I don't know how can I solve this problem or things I can do for delimiting it. Any help achieving this will be appreciate. Thanks. EDIT: Well, it finally was due a firewall rule. Database detects the connection is lost, but pool (dbcp or c3p0) not. So, it tries to query the database with no success. What is still strange for me is that timeout period is very variable. Maybe the rule is specially strange or firewall doesn't work correctly. Anyway, I have no access to that machine and I can only wait for an explanation. :(

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• Doing some stuff right before the user exits the page

  - by Mike

  I have seen some questions here regarding what I want to achieve and have based what I have so far on those answer. But there is a slight misbehavior that is still irritating me. What I have is sort of a recovery feature. Whenever you are typing text, the client sends a sync request to the server every 45 seconds. It does 2 things. First, it extends the lease the client has on the record (only one person may edit at one time) for another 60 seconds. Second, it sends the text typed so far to the server in case the server crashes, internet connection fails, etc. In that case, the next time the user enters our application, the user is notified that something has gone wrong and that some text was recovered. Think of Microsoft or OpenOffice recovery whenever they crash! Of course, if the user leaves the page willingly, the user does not need to be notified and as a result, the recovery is deleted. I do that final request via a beforeunload event. Everything went fine until I was asked to make a final adjustment... The same behavior you have here at stack overflow when you exit the editor... a confirm dialogue. This works so far, BUT, the confirm dialogue is shown twice. Here is the code. The event if (local.sync.autosave_textelement) { window.onbeforeunload = exitConfirm; } The function function exitConfirm() { var local = Core; if (confirm('blub?')) { local.sync.autosave_destroy = true; sync(false); return true; } else { return false; } }; Some problem irrelevant clarifications: Core is a global Object that contains a lot of variables that are used everywhere. sync makes an ajax request. The values are based on the values that the Core.sync object contains. The parameter determines if the call should be async (default) or sync. Edit 1 I did try to separate both things (recovery deletion and user confirmation that is) into beforeunload and unload. The problem there was that unload is a bit too late. The user gets informed that there is a recovery even though it is scheduled to be deleted. If you refresh the page 1 second later, the dialogue disappears as the file was deleted by then.

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• Using PHP session_id() to Make Sure iframe is Generated by Our Server Dynamically

  - by Michael Robinson

  We use iframes to show ads on our site. Iframes are used to allow us to keep the ad generation code and other site modules separate. As we track ad views on our site, and need to be able to keep an accurate count of which pagetype gets what views, I must ensure that users can't simply copy-paste the iframe in which the ad is loaded onto another site. This would cause ad count to become inflated for this page, and the count would not match the view count of the page the iframe "should" be displayed in. Before anyone says so: no I can't simply compare the page view count with the ad view count, or use the page view count * number of ads per page, as # of ads per page will not necessarily be static. I need to come up with a solution that will allow ads to be shown only for iframes that are generated dynamically and are shown on our pages. I am not familiar with PHP sessions, but from what little reading I have had time to do, the following seems to be to be an acceptable solution: Add "s = session_id()" to the src of the ad's iframe. In the code that receives and processes ad requests, only return (and count) and ad if s == session_id(). Please correct me if I'm wrong, but this would ensure: Ads would only be returned to iframes whose src was generated alongside the rest of the page's content, as is the case during normal use. We can return our logo to ad calls with an invalid session_id. So a simple example would be: One of our pages: <?php session_start(); ?> <div id="someElement"> <!-- EVERYONE LOVES ADS --> <iframe src="http//awesomesite.com/ad/can_has_ad.php?s=<?php echo session_id(); ?>></iframe> </div> ad/can_has_ad.php: <?php session_start(); ?> if($_GET['s'] == session_id()){ echo 'can has ad'; } else{ echo '<img src="http://awesomesite.com/images/canhaslogo.jpg"/>'; } And finally, copied code with static 's' parameter: <!-- HAHA LULZ I WILL SCREW WITH YOUR AD VIEW COUNTS LULZ HAHA --> <iframe src="http//awesomesite.com/ad/can_has_ad.php?s=77f2b5fcdab52f52607888746969b0ad></iframe> Which would give them an iframe showing our awesome site's logo, and not screw with our view counts. I made some basic test cases: two files, one that generates the iframe and echos it, and one that the iframe's src is pointed to, that checks the 's' parameter and shows an appropriate message depending on the result. I copied the iframe into a file and hosted it on a different server, and the correct message was displayed (cannot has ad). So, my question is: Would this work or am I being a PHP session noob, with the above test being a total fluke? Thanks for your time! Edit: I'm trying to solve this without touching the SQL server

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• How to perform duplicate key validation using entlib (or DataAnnotations), MVC, and Repository pattern

  - by olivehour

  I have a set of ASP.NET 4 projects that culminate in an MVC (3 RC2) app. The solution uses Unity and EntLib Validation for cross-cutting dependency injection and validation. Both are working great for injecting repository and service layer implementations. However, I can't figure out how to do duplicate key validation. For example, when a user registers, we want to make sure they don't pick a UserID that someone else is already using. For this type of validation, the validating object must have a repository reference... or some other way to get an IQueryable / IEnumerable reference to check against other rows already in the DB. What I have is a UserMetadata class that has all of the property setters and getters for a user, along with all of the appropriate DataAnnotations and EntLib Validation attributes. There is also a UserEntity class implemented using EF4 POCO Entity Generator templates. The UserEntity depends on UserMetadata, because it has a MetadataTypeAttribute. I also have a UserViewModel class that has the same exact MetadataType attribute. This way, I can apply the same validation rules, via attributes, to both the entity and viewmodel. There are no concrete references to the Repository classes whatsoever. All repositories are injected using Unity. There is also a service layer that gets dependency injection. In the MVC project, service layer implementation classes are injected into the Controller classes (the controller classes only contain service layer interface references). Unity then injects the Repository implementations into the service layer classes (service classes also only contain interface references). I've experimented with the DataAnnotations CustomValidationAttribute in the metadata class. The problem with this is the validation method must be static, and the method cannot instantiate a repository implementation directly. My repository interface is IRepository, and I have only one single repository implementation class defined as EntityRepository for all domain objects. To instantiate a repository explicitly I would need to say new EntityRepository(), which would result in a circular dependency graph: UserMetadata [depends on] DuplicateUserIDValidator [depends on] UserEntity [depends on] UserMetadata. I've also tried creating a custom EntLib Validator along with a custom validation attribute. Here I don't have the same problem with a static method. I think I could get this to work if I could just figure out how to make Unity inject my EntityRepository into the validator class... which I can't. Right now, all of the validation code is in my Metadata class library, since that's where the custom validation attribute would go. Any ideas on how to perform validations that need to check against the current repository state? Can Unity be used to inject a dependency into a lower-layer class library?

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• Setting default values for inherited property without using accessor in Objective-C?

  - by Ben Stock

  I always see people debating whether or not to use a property's setter in the -init method. I don't know enough about the Objective-C language yet to have an opinion one way or the other. With that said, lately I've been sticking to ivars exclusively. It seems cleaner in a way. I don't know. I digress. Anyway, here's my problem … Say we have a class called Dude with an interface that looks like this: @interface Dude : NSObject { @private NSUInteger _numberOfGirlfriends; } @property (nonatomic, assign) NSUInteger numberOfGirlfriends; @end And an implementation that looks like this: @implementation Dude - (instancetype)init { self = [super init]; if (self) { _numberOfGirlfriends = 0; } } @end Now let's say I want to extend Dude. My subclass will be called Playa. And since a playa should have mad girlfriends, when Playa gets initialized, I don't want him to start with 0; I want him to have 10. Here's Playa.m: @implementation Playa - (instancetype)init { self = [super init]; if (self) { // Attempting to set the ivar directly will result in the compiler saying, // "Instance variable `_numberOfGirlfriends` is private." // _numberOfGirlfriends = 10; <- Can't do this. // Thus, the only way to set it is with the mutator: self.numberOfGirlfriends = 10; // Or: [self setNumberOfGirlfriends:10]; } } @end So what's a Objective-C newcomer to do? Well, I mean, there's only one thing I can do, and that's set the property. Unless there's something I'm missing. Any ideas, suggestions, tips, or tricks? Sidenote: The other thing that bugs me about setting the ivar directly — and what a lot of ivar-proponents say is a "plus" — is that there are no KVC notifications. A lot of times, I want the KVC magic to happen. 50% of my setters end in [self setNeedsDisplay:YES], so without the notification, my UI doesn't update unless I remember to manually add -setNeedsDisplay. That's a bad example, but the point stands. I utilize KVC all over the place, so without notifications, things can act wonky. Anyway, any info is much appreciated. Thanks!

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• Nested Transaction issues within custom Windows Service

  - by pdwetz

  I have a custom Windows Service I recently upgraded to use TransactionScope for nested transactions. It worked fine locally on my old dev machine (XP sp3) and on a test server (Server 2003). However, it fails on my new Windows 7 machine as well as on 2008 Server. It was targeting 2.0 framework; I tried targeting 3.5 instead, but it still fails. The strange part is really in how it fails; no exception is thrown. The service itself merely times out. I added tracing code, and it fails when opening the connection for Database lookup #2 below. I also enabled tracing for System.Transactions; it literally cuts out partway while writing the block for the failed connection. We ran a SQL trace, but only the first lookup shows up. I put in code traces, and it gets to the trace the line before the second lookup, but nothing after. I've had the same experience hitting two different SQL servers (both are SQL 2005 running on Server 2003). The connection string is utilizing a SQL account (not Windows integration). All connections are against the same database in this case, but given the nature of the code it is being escalated to MSDTC. Here's the basic code structure: TransactionOptions options = new TransactionOptions(); options.IsolationLevel = System.Transactions.IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted; using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.RequiresNew, options)) { // Database lookup #1 TransactionOptions options = new TransactionOptions(); options.IsolationLevel = Transaction.Current != null ? Transaction.Current.IsolationLevel : System.Transactions.IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted; using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.Required, options)) { // Database lookup #2; fails on connection.Open() // Database save (never reached) scope.Complete();<br/> } scope.Complete();<br/> } My local firewall is disabled. The service normally runs using Network Service, but I also tried my user account (same results). The short of it is that I use the same general technique widely in my web applications and haven't had any issues. I pulled out the code and ran it fine within a local Windows Form application. If anyone has any additional debugging ideas (or, even better, solutions) I'd love to hear them.

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