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  • IE7 bug, my form input fields get indented

    - by kmunky
    HTML <form id="contact_form" action="#" name="" method="POST"> <label for="name">NAME</label> <input type="text" name="name" id="name" class="contact_form_input" /> <label for="email">EMAIL</label> <input type="text" name="email" id="email" class="contact_form_input" /> <label for="subject">SUBJECT</label> <input type="text" name="subject" id="subject" class="contact_form_input" /> <label for="message">MESSAGE</label> <textarea name="message" id="message"></textarea> <input type="submit" class="submit" name="submit" value="Submit" /> <input type="reset" class="reset" name="reset" value="Reset" /> </form> CSS form#contact_form{ width:auto; height:auto; margin:0px; margin-left:73px; padding:0px; float:left; clear:both; } form#contact_form label{ float:left; clear:both; margin-left:3px; margin-bottom:6px; font-family:Verdana, Geneva, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; font-size:12px; font-style:italic; font-weight:bold; } input.contact_form_input{ width:474px; height:36px; margin:0px; margin-bottom:9px; padding:0px; float:left; clear:left; } form#contact_form textarea{ width:479px; height:150px; margin-bottom:9px; float:left; clear:left; } you can see here that in IE7 that text inputs gets some kind of "margin-left". How can i get rid of that margin? thanks

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  • LinearLayout as custom button, OnClickListener never called

    - by ohra
    I've been using the common Android Button with both icon (drawableTop) and text. It works really poorly if you want to have a non-standard size button, so I decided to make a custom button with a LinearLayout having the following layout: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" style="@style/ButtonHoloDark" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:gravity="center" android:clickable="true" android:focusable="true" android:orientation="vertical" > <ImageView android:id="@+id/buttonIcon" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:duplicateParentState="true" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/buttonText" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:duplicateParentState="true" android:gravity="center" android:textColor="@color/white" /> </LinearLayout> The layout is used by a custom class: public class CustomIconButton extends LinearLayout { public CustomIconButton(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { super(context, attrs); setAttributes(context, attrs); LayoutInflater.from(context).inflate(R.layout.custom_icon_button, this, true); } ... But when I set an OnClickListener on my button in its parent layout it never gets called. I can only receive clicks if a set the listener to the ImageView and/or TextView. This leads to two possible effects when the button is clicked: The click is inside the ImageView or the TextView. The click is registered ok, but the buttons state drawable doesn't change i.e. it doesn't appear depressed. The click is inside the "empty area" of the button. The click is not registered, but the state drawable works ok. Neither of these is feasible. I've played around with the following attributes on the LinearLayout or its children, but none really seem to have any effect whether true or false: duplicateParentState clickable focusable There doesn't seem to be any reasonable way to get the LinearLayout parent receive clicks instead of its children. I've seen some possible solutions overriding dispatchTouchEvent or onInterceptTouchEvent on the custom component itself, but that really seems like a big mess if I have to start analyzing touch events to identify proper clicks. So OnClickListener on a LinearLayout with children = no go?

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  • How do I use a custom #theme function to a fieldset in a drupal module?

    - by Rob Crowell
    I have a module that builds a form that includes a fieldset. Instead of using the <legend> element to render the fieldset title, I want to place this content in a <div> element instead. But I want to change the behavior only for the form returned by my module, so I don't want to place any new functionality into my theme's template.php file. In mymod.module I have defined: // custom rendering function for fieldset elements function theme_mymod_fieldset($element) { return 'test'; } // implement hook_theme function mymod_theme() { return array( 'mymod_fieldset' => array('arguments' => array('element' => NULL)), 'mymod_form' => array('arguments' => array()) ); } // return a form that is based on the 'Basic Account Info' category of the user profile function mymod_form() { // load the user's profile global $user; $account = user_load($user->uid); // load the profile form, and then edit it $form_state = array(); $form = drupal_retrieve_form('user_profile_form', $form_state, $account, 'Basic Account Info'); // set the custom #theme function for this fieldset $form['Basic Account Info']['#theme'] = 'mymod_fieldset'; // more form manipulations // ... return $form; } When my page gets rendered, I expected to see the fieldset representing 'Basic Account Info' to be wholly replaced by my test message 'test'. Instead what happens is that the <fieldset> and <legend> elements are rendered as normal, but with the body of the fieldset replaced by the test message instead, like this: <fieldset> <legend>Basic Account Info</legend> test </fieldset> Why doesn't my #theme function have the chance to replace the entire <fieldset> element? If I wrap a textfield in this function instead, I am able to completely replace the <input> element along with its label. Furthermore, if I provide an override in my site's template.php for theme_fieldset, it works as expected and I am able to completely replace the <fieldset>, so I know it is possible. What's different about providing #theme functions to fieldsets inside a module?

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  • IE not triggering keyboard event on a form with ONE FIELD

    - by raj
    I'm seeing my Friend's code here... <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN"> <HTML> <HEAD> <TITLE> Check action </TITLE> <script> function detectEvent(){ if(window.event.keyCode==13) { alert("you hit return!"); } } </script> </HEAD> <BODY> <form name="name1" onkeyup="detectEvent()" action="page2.html"> <p> Field1 <input type="text" id="text1"/> </p> </form> </BODY> </HTML> and when he tried entering a value in the textbox and pressed enter, it did not call the detectEvent(). I said, it'll always call onSubmit on enter button..... and he surprised me, <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN"> <HTML> <HEAD> <TITLE> Check action </TITLE> <script> function detectEvent(){ if(window.event.keyCode==13) { alert("you hit return!"); } } </script> </HEAD> <BODY> <form name="name1" onkeyup="detectEvent()" action="page2.html"> <p> Field1 <input type="text" id="text1"/> </p> <p> Field1 <input type="text" id="text2"/> </p> </form> </BODY> </HTML> Now press enter, The function gets called..... Why so!? Why onKeyUp not called on forms with just one field.!!! am i missing something?

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  • Loading Modules in Angular

    - by SL Dev
    I'm new to AngularJS. In my efforts to learn, I've relied on the AngularJS tutorials. Now, I'm trying to build an app using the AngularSeed project template. I'm trying to make my project as modular as possible. For that reason, my controllers are broken out into several files. Currently, I have the following: /app index.html login.html home.html javascript app.js loginCtrl.js homeCtrl.js my app.js file has the following: 'use strict'; var app = angular.module('site', ['ngRoute']); app.config(function($routeProvider, $locationProvider) { $locationProvider.html5Mode(true); $routeProvider.when('/login', {templateUrl: 'app/login.html', controller:'loginCtrl'}); $routeProvider.when('/home', {templateUrl: 'app/home.html', controller:'homeCtrl'}); $routeProvider.otherwise({redirectTo: '/login'}); }); my loginCtrl.js file is very basic at the moment. It only has: 'use strict'; app.controller('loginCtrl', function loginCtrl($scope) { } ); My homeCtrl.js is almost the same, except for the name. It looks like the following: 'use strict'; app.controller('homeCtrl', function homeCtrl($scope) { } ); My index.html file is the angularSeed index-async.html file. However, when I load the dependencies, I have the following: // load all of the dependencies asynchronously. $script([ 'http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/angularjs/1.2.0-rc.3/angular.min.js', 'http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/angularjs/1.2.0-rc.3/angular-route.min.js', 'javascript/app.js', 'javascript/loginCtrl.js', 'javascript/homeCtrl.js' ], function() { // when all is done, execute bootstrap angular application angular.bootstrap(document, ['site']); }); My problem is, sometimes my app works and sometimes it doesn't. It's almost like something gets loaded before something else. Occasionally, I receive this error. Other times, I get an error in the console window that says: 'Uncaught ReferenceError: app is not defined' in loginCtrl.js. Sometimes it happens with homeCtrl.js. What am I doing wrong? It feels like I need to have my controllers in a module and pass that module in my app.config in the app.js file. However, a) I'm not sure if that allowed and b) I'm not sure how to do it.

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  • Unset/Change Binding in WPF

    - by captcalamares
    How can I unset the binding applied to an object so that I can apply another binding to it from a different location? Suppose I have two data templates binded to the same object reference. Data Template #1 is the default template to be loaded. I try to bind a button command to a Function1 from my DataContext class: <Button Content="Button 1" CommandParameter="{Binding }" Command="{Binding DataContext.Function1, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}"/> This actually works and the function gets binded. However, when I try to load Data Template # 2 to the same object (while trying to bind another button command to a different function (Function2) from my DataContext class): <Button Content="Button 2" CommandParameter="{Binding }" Command="{Binding DataContext.Function2, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" /> It doesn't work and the first binding is still the one executed. Is there a workaround to this? EDIT (for better problem context): I defined my templates in my Window.Resources: <Window.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModel1}"> <local:View1 /> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModel2}"> <local:View2 /> </DataTemplate> </Window.Resources> The View1.xaml and the View2.xaml contain the button definitions that I described above (I want them to command the control of my process flow). ViewModel1 and ViewModel2 are my ViewModels that implement the interface IPageViewModel which is the type of my variable CurrentPageViewModel. In my XAML, I binded ContentControl to the variable CurrentPageViewModel: <ContentControl Content="{Binding CurrentPageViewModel}" HorizontalAlignment="Center"/> In my .CS, I have a list defined as List<IPageViewModel> PageViewModels, which I use to contain the instances of my two View Models: PageViewModels.Add(new ViewModel1()); PageViewModels.Add(new ViewModel2()); // Set starting page CurrentPageViewModel = PageViewModels[0]; When I try to change my CurrentPageViewModel to the other view model, this is when I want the new binding to work. Unfortunately, it doesn't. Am I doing things the right way?

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  • Measure width() with jQuery after DOM refresh

    - by o_O Tync
    My script dynamically creates a <ul> width left-floating <li>s inside: it's a paginator. Afterwards, the script measures width of all <li>s and summs them up. The problem is that after the nodes are injected into the document — the browser refreshed DOM and applies CSS styles which takes a while. It has a negative effect on my script: when these operations are not complete before I measure the width — my script gets a wrong value. If I perform the measure in a second — everything is ok. The thing I'm looking for is a way to detect the moment when the <ul> is fully drawn, styles applied and the width has stabilizes. Or at least a way to detect every dimensions changes. Of course I can use setTimeout(..., 100) but it's ugly and I guess — not a solution at all. If there's a way to detect width stabilization — I would do the measuring right after it to get the correct values. HTML code generated by the DOM <div> <ul> <li><a href="...">1</a></li> <li><a href="...">2</a></li> .... </ul> </div> P.S. Why I need this. My paginator's left-floating <li> items tend to move to the next line when the <ul> tries to become wider than the page itself. Even though most of <li>s are invisible because of parent <div>'s width restriction: div { width: 500px; overflow: hidden; } div ul { width: 100%; white-space: nowrap; } div ul li { display: block; float: left; } they still go down unless I specify the actual summed width of the <ul> with the script.

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  • UIScrollView Infinite Scrolling

    - by Ben Robinson
    I'm attempting to setup a scrollview with infinite (horizontal) scrolling. Scrolling forward is easy - I have implemented scrollViewDidScroll, and when the contentOffset gets near the end I make the scrollview contentsize bigger and add more data into the space (i'll have to deal with the crippling effect this will have later!) My problem is scrolling back - the plan is to see when I get near the beginning of the scroll view, then when I do make the contentsize bigger, move the existing content along, add the new data to the beginning and then - importantly adjust the contentOffset so the data under the view port stays the same. This works perfectly if I scroll slowly (or enable paging) but if I go fast (not even very fast!) it goes mad! Heres the code: - (void) scrollViewDidScroll:(UIScrollView *)scrollView { float pageNumber = scrollView.contentOffset.x / 320; float pageCount = scrollView.contentSize.width / 320; if (pageNumber > pageCount-4) { //Add 10 new pages to end mainScrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(mainScrollView.contentSize.width + 3200, mainScrollView.contentSize.height); //add new data here at (320*pageCount, 0); } //*** the problem is here - I use updatingScrollingContent to make sure its only called once (for accurate testing!) if (pageNumber < 4 && !updatingScrollingContent) { updatingScrollingContent = YES; mainScrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(mainScrollView.contentSize.width + 3200, mainScrollView.contentSize.height); mainScrollView.contentOffset = CGPointMake(mainScrollView.contentOffset.x + 3200, 0); for (UIView *view in [mainContainerView subviews]) { view.frame = CGRectMake(view.frame.origin.x+3200, view.frame.origin.y, view.frame.size.width, view.frame.size.height); } //add new data here at (0, 0); } //** MY CHECK! NSLog(@"%f", mainScrollView.contentOffset.x); } As the scrolling happens the log reads: 1286.500000 1285.500000 1284.500000 1283.500000 1282.500000 1281.500000 1280.500000 Then, when pageNumber<4 (we're getting near the beginning): 4479.500000 4479.500000 Great! - but the numbers should continue to go down in the 4,000s but the next log entries read: 1278.000000 1277.000000 1276.500000 1275.500000 etc.... Continiuing from where it left off! Just for the record, if scrolled slowly the log reads: 1294.500000 1290.000000 1284.500000 1280.500000 4476.000000 4476.000000 4473.000000 4470.000000 4467.500000 4464.000000 4460.500000 4457.500000 etc.... Any ideas???? Thanks Ben.

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  • How do you clear RootLayoutPanel in GWT?

    - by kerrr
    I have Buttons attached to elements on the modules entrypoint html page using RootPanel.get("foo").add(button). If I subsequently create a LayoutPanel and attach it using RootLayoutPanel.get.add(layoutpanal) then the buttons cannot be clicked. This is all fine. If I then try and remove the layoutpanel or clear the RootLayoutPanel the buttons still cannot be clicked. Any ideas how to clear this? Have I missed a step or should you simply never try and get back to using a page's RootPanel if you have used a RootLayoutPanel? Sample code: public void onModuleLoad(){ final LayoutPanel lp1=new LayoutPanel(); ClickPanel ping=new ClickPanel("Ping"); ping.getElement().getStyle().setBackgroundColor( "#fdd" ); ping.addClickHandler( new ClickHandler(){ @Override public void onClick( ClickEvent event ){ Window.alert( "Ping!!!" ); //lp1.removeFromParent(); //RootLayoutPanel.get().remove(lp1); //RootLayoutPanel.get().removeFromParent(); RootLayoutPanel.get().clear(); } } ); ClickPanel bong=new ClickPanel("Bong"); bong.getElement().getStyle().setBackgroundColor( "#ddf" ); bong.addClickHandler( new ClickHandler(){ @Override public void onClick( ClickEvent event ){ Window.alert( "Bong!!!" ); } } ); lp1.add( ping ); lp1.setWidgetLeftWidth( ping, 100, Style.Unit.PX, 500, Style.Unit.PX ); lp1.setWidgetTopHeight( ping, 100, Style.Unit.PX, 500, Style.Unit.PX ); lp1.add( bong ); lp1.setWidgetLeftWidth( bong, 50, Style.Unit.PCT, 600, Style.Unit.PX ); lp1.setWidgetTopHeight( bong, 50, Style.Unit.PCT, 200, Style.Unit.PX ); Button b=new Button("Click Me"); b.addClickHandler( new ClickHandler(){ @Override public void onClick( ClickEvent event ){ RootLayoutPanel.get().add( lp1 ); } } ); RootPanel.get("button1").add( b ); } ClickPanel is simply overrides HTMLPanel implementing HasClickHandelers. Clicking "Click Me" opens the layout panel. Clicking the panel ping gets rid of the layout panel, but the button "Click Me" cannot be clicked. I've tried various options.

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  • Improving performance on data pasting 2000 rows with validations

    - by Lohit
    I have N rows (which could be nothing less than 1000) on an excel spreadsheet. And in this sheet our project has 150 columns like this: Now, our application needs data to be copied (using normal Ctrl+C) and pasted (using Ctrl+V) from the excel file sheet on our GUI sheet. Copy pasting 1000 records takes around 5-6 seconds which is okay for our requirement, but the problem is when we need to make sure the data entered is valid. So we have to validate data in each row generate appropriate error messages and format the data as per requirement. So we need to at runtime parse and evaluate data in each row. Now all the formatting of data and validations come from the back-end database and we have it in a data-table (dtValidateAndFormatConditions). The conditions would be around 50. So you can see how slow this whole process becomes since N X 150 X 50 operations are required to complete this whole process. Initially it took approximately 2-3 minutes but now i have reduced it to 20 - 30 seconds. However i have increased the speed by making an expression parser of my own - and not by any algorithm, is there any other way i can improve performance, by using Divide and Conquer or some other mechanism. Currently i am not really sure how to go about this. Here is what part of my code looks like: public virtual void ValidateAndFormatOnCopyPaste(DataTable DtCopied, int CurRow) { foreach (DataRow dRow in dtValidateAndFormatConditions.Rows) { string Condition = dRow["Condition"]; string FormatValue = Value = dRow["Value"]; GetValidatedFormattedData(DtCopied,ref Condition, ref FormatValue ,iRowIndex); Condition = Parse(Condition); dRow["Condition"] = Condition; FormatValue = Parse(FormatValue ); dRow["Value"] = FormatValue; } } The above code gets called row-wise like this: public override void ValidateAndFormat(DataTable dtChangedRecords, CellRange cr) { int iRowStart = cr.Row, iRowEnd = cr.Row + cr.RowCount; for (int iRow = iRowStart; iRow < iRowEnd; iRow++) { ValidateAndFormatOnCopyPaste(dtChangedRecords,iRow); } } Please know my question needs a more algorithmic solution than code optimization, however any answers containing code related optimizations will be appreciated as well. (Tagged Linq because although not seen i have been using linq in some parts of my code).

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  • iPhone memory management

    - by Prazi
    I am newbie to iPhone programming. I am not using Interface Builder in my programming. I have some doubt about memory management, @property topics in iPhone. Consider the following code @interface LoadFlag : UIViewController { UIImage *flag; UIImageView *preview; } @property (nonatomic, retain) UIImageView *preview; @property (nonatomic, retain) UIImage *flag; @implementation @synthesize preview; @synthesize flag; - (void)viewDidLoad { flag = [UIImage imageNamed:@"myImage.png"]]; NSLog(@"Preview: %d\n",[preview retainCount]); //Count: 0 but shouldn't it be 1 as I am retaining it in @property in interface file preview=[[UIImageView alloc]init]; NSLog(@"Count: %d\n",[preview retainCount]); //Count: 1 preview.frame=CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 100.0f, 100.0f); preview.image = flag; [self.view addSubview:preview]; NSLog(@"Count: %d\n",[preview retainCount]); //Count: 2 [preview release]; NSLog(@"Count: %d\n",[preview retainCount]); //Count: 1 } When & Why(what is the need) do I have to set @property with retain (in above case for UIImage & UIImageView) ? I saw this statement in many sample programs but didn't understood the need of it. When I declare @property (nonatomic, retain) UIImageView *preview; statement the retain Count is 0. Why doesn't it increase by 1 inspite of retaining it in @property. Also when I declare [self.view addSubview:preview]; then retain Count increments by 1 again. In this case does the "Autorelease pool" releases for us later or we have to take care of releasing it. I am not sure but I think that the Autorelease should handle it as we didn't explicitly retained it so why should we worry of releasing it. Now, after the [preview release]; statement my count is 1. Now I don't need UIImageView anymore in my program so when and where should I release it so that the count becomes 0 and the memory gets deallocated. Again, I am not sure but I think that the Autorelease should handle it as we didn't explicitly retained it so why should we worry of releasing it. What will happen if I release it in -(void) dealloc method In the statement - flag = [UIImage imageNamed:@"myImage.png"]]; I haven't allocated any memory to flag but how can I still use it in my program. In this case if I do not allocate memory then who allocates & deallocates memory to it or is the "flag" just a reference pointing to - [UIImage imageNamed:@"myImage.png"]];. If it is a reference only then do i need to release it. Thanks in advance.

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  • JSF 2.0: Preserving component state across multiple views

    - by tlind
    The web application I am developing using MyFaces 2.0.3 / PrimeFaces 2.2RC2 is divided into a content and a navigation area. In the navigation area, which is included into multiple pages using templating (i.e. <ui:define>), there are some widgets (e.g. a navigation tree, collapsible panels etc.) of which I want to preserve the component state across views. For example, let's say I am on the home page. When I navigate to a product details page by clicking on a product in the navigation tree, my Java code triggers a redirect using navigationHandler.handleNavigation(context, null, "/detailspage.jsf?faces-redirect=true") Another way of getting to that details page would be by directly clicking on a product teaser that is shown on the home page. The corresponding <h:link> would lead us to the details page. In both cases, the expansion state of my navigation tree (a PrimeFaces tree component) and my collapsible panels is lost. I understand this is because the redirect / h:link results in the creation of a new view. What is the best way of dealing with this? I am already using MyFaces Orchestra in my project along with its conversation scope, but I am not sure if this is of any help here (since I'd have to bind the expansion/collapsed state of the widgets to a backing bean... but as far as I know, this is not possible). Is there a way of telling JSF which component states to propagate to the next view, assuming that the same component exists in that view? I guess I could need a pointer into the right direction here. Thanks! Update 1: I just tried binding the panels and the tree to a session-scoped bean, but this seems to have no effect. Also, I guess I would have to bind all child components (if any) manually, so this doesn't seem like the way to go. Update 2: Binding UI components to non-request scoped beans is not a good idea (see link I posted in a comment below). If there is no easier approach, I might have to proceed as follows: When a panel is collapsed or the tree is expanded, save the current state in a session-scoped backing bean (!= the UI component itself) The components' states are stored in a map. The map key is the component's (hopefully) unique, relative ID. I cannot use the whole absolute component path here, since the IDs of the parent naming containers might change if the view changes, assuming these IDs are generated programmatically. As soon as a new view gets constructed, retrieve the components' states from the map and apply them to the components. For example, in case of the panels, I can set the collapsed attribute to a value retrieved from my session-scoped backing bean.

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  • properies profile when writing word file

    - by avani-nature
    Hai frnds i am new to php i am having following problems in my coding... 1.Actually i am opening word document with com object and storing it in textarea. 2.when content gets opened in textarea i am editing that content and saving the document 3.actually when i edited that file and done save after that if i open word document then file properties-custom the old content getting removed i wannt to retain that even if i edited the word document..please do the needful i am using below code <?php $filename = 'C:/xampp/htdocs/mts/sites/default/files/a.doc'; //echo $filename; if(isset($_REQUEST['Save'])){ $somecontent = stripslashes($_POST['somecontent']); // Let's make sure the file exists and is writable first. if (is_writable($filename)) { // In our example we're opening $filename in append mode. // The file pointer is at the bottom of the file hence // that's where $somecontent will go when we fwrite() it. if (!$handle = fopen($filename, 'w')) { echo "Cannot open file ($filename)"; exit; } // Write $somecontent to our opened fi<form action="" method="get"></form>le. if (fwrite($handle, $somecontent) === FALSE) { echo "Cannot write to file ($filename)"; exit; } echo "Success, wrote ($somecontent) to file ($filename) <a href=".$_SERVER['PHP_SELF']."> - Continue - "; fclose($handle); } else { echo "The file $filename is not writable"; } } else{ // get contents of a file into a string $handle = fopen($filename, "r"); $somecontent = fread($handle, filesize($filename)); $word = new COM("word.application") or die ("Could not initialise MS Word object."); $word->Documents->Open(realpath("$filename")); // Extract content. $somecontent = (string) $word->ActiveDocument->Content; //echo $somecontent; $word->ActiveDocument->Close(false); $word->Quit(); $word = null; unset($word); fclose($handle); } ?> <h6>Edit file --------><? $filenam=explode("/",$filename);$filename=$filename[7]; echo $filename ;?></h6> <form name="form1" method="post" action=""> <p> <textarea name="somecontent" cols="100" rows="20"><? echo $somecontent ;?></textarea> </p> <div style='padding-left:250px;'><input type="submit" name="Save" value="Save"></div> </p> </form> <? } ?>

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  • How can this PHP/FQL code be modified to increase the performance and usability?

    - by Kaoukkos
    I try to get some insights from the pages I am administrator on Facebook. What my code does, it gets the IDs of the pages I want to work with through mySQL. I did not include that part though.After this, I get the page_id, name and fan_count of each of those facebook IDs and are saved in fancounts[]. Using the IDs ( pages[] ) I get two messages max from each page. There may be no messages, there may be 1 or 2 messages max. Possibly I will increase it later. messages[] holds the messages of each page. I have two problems with it. It has a very slow performance I can't find a way to echo the data like this: ID - Name of the page - Fan Count Here goes the first message Here goes the second one //here is a break ID - Name of the page 2 - Fan Count Here goes the first message of page 2 Here goes the second one of page 2 My questions are, how can the code be modified to increase performance and show the data as above? I read about fql.multiquery. Can it be used here? Please provide me with code examples. Thank you $pages = array(); // I get the IDs I want to work with $pagesIds = implode(',', $pages); // fancounts[] holds the page_id, name and fan_count of the Ids I work with $fancounts = array(); $pagesFanCounts = $facebook->api("/fql", array( "q" => "SELECT page_id, name, fan_count FROM page WHERE page_id IN ({$pagesIds})" )); foreach ($pagesFanCounts['data'] as $page){ $fancounts[] = $page['page_id']."-".$page['name']."-".$page['fan_count']; } //messages[] holds from 0 to 2 messages from each of the above pages $messages = array(); foreach( $pages as $id) { $getMessages = $facebook->api("/fql", array( "q" => "SELECT message FROM stream WHERE source_id = '$id' LIMIT 2" )); $messages[] = $getMessages['data']; } // this is how I print them now but it does not give me the best output. ( thanks goes to Mark for providing me this code ) $count = min(count($fancounts),count($messages)); for($i=0; $i<$count; ++$i) { echo $fancounts[$i],'<br>'; foreach($messages[$i] as $msg) { echo $msg['message'],'<br>'; } }

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  • .Net Entity Framework SaveChanges is adding without add method

    - by tmfkmoney
    I'm new to the entity framework and I'm really confused about how savechanges works. There's probably a lot of code in my example which could be improved, but here's the problem I'm having. The user enters a bunch of picks. I make sure the user hasn't already entered those picks. Then I add the picks to the database. var db = new myModel() var predictionArray = ticker.Substring(1).Split(','); // Get rid of the initial comma. var user = Membership.GetUser(); var userId = Convert.ToInt32(user.ProviderUserKey); // Get the member with all his predictions for today. var memberQuery = (from member in db.Members where member.user_id == userId select new { member, predictions = from p in member.Predictions where p.start_date == null select p }).First(); // Load all the company ids. foreach (var prediction in memberQuery.predictions) { prediction.CompanyReference.Load(); } var picks = from prediction in predictionArray let data = prediction.Split(':') let companyTicker = data[0] where !(from i in memberQuery.predictions select i.Company.ticker).Contains(companyTicker) select new Prediction { Member = memberQuery.member, Company = db.Companies.Where(c => c.ticker == companyTicker).First(), is_up = data[1] == "up", // This turns up and down into true and false. }; // Save the records to the database. // HERE'S THE PART I DON'T UNDERSTAND. // This saves the records, even though I don't have db.AddToPredictions(pick) foreach (var pick in picks) { db.SaveChanges(); } // This does not save records when the db.SaveChanges outside of a loop of picks. db.SaveChanges(); foreach (var pick in picks) { } // This saves records, but it will insert all the picks exactly once no matter how many picks you have. //The fact you're skipping a pick makes no difference in what gets inserted. var counter = 1; foreach (var pick in picks) { if (counter == 2) { db.SaveChanges(); } counter++; } There's obviously something going on with the context I don't understand. I'm guessing I've somehow loaded my new picks as pending changes, but even if that's true I don't understand I have to loop over them to save changes. Can someone explain this to me?

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  • How to replace all id attributes of a child collection of complex types using jQuery in ASP.net MVC

    - by TJB
    Here's my situation: I'm writing an ASP.net MVC 1 website and I have a create/edit form that uses the default model binding to parse the form into a strongly typed complex object. The object I'm posting has a child collection of another complex type and the way I format my id's for the model binder is as follows: <div class="childContainer" > <!-- There's one of these for each property for each child collection item --> <%= Html.TextBox("ChildCollectionName[0].ChildPropertyName", /* blah blah */ ) %> <%= Html.TextBox("ChildCollectionName[0].OtherChildPropertyName", /* blah blah */ ) %> <!-- ... --> </div> This gets rendered as <div class="childContainer" > <input id="ChildCollectionName[0]_ChildPropertyName" ... /> <input id="ChildCollectionName[0]_OtherChildPropertyName" ... /> ... </div> <div class="childContainer" > <input id="ChildCollectionName[1]_ChildPropertyName" ... /> <input id="ChildCollectionName[1]_OtherChildPropertyName" ... /> ... </div> For each entry in the chlid collection. This collection is dynamically created in the form using jQuery, so entries can be added, removed etc. and whenever there's an operation on the collection I need to update the indexes so that it's bound correctly on the server side. What's the best way to replace all the html input id's when I'm updating the index within the child e.g. replace all [*] -- [N] where N is the correct index. using jQuery / JavaScript ? I have something coded now, but its buggy and I think there is a simpler solution. Also, if you have an easier way to identify the child collection I'll take any advice on that as well. Thanx!

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  • Add/delete row from a table

    - by yogsma
    I have this table with some dependents information and there is a add and delete button for each row to add/delete additional dependents. When I click "add" button, a new row gets added to the table, but when I click the "delete" button, it deletes the header row first and then on subsequent clicking, it deletes the corresponding row. Here is what I have: Javascript code function deleteRow(row){ var d = row.parentNode.parentNode.rowIndex; document.getElementById('dsTable').deleteRow(d); } HTML code <table id = 'dsTable' > <tr> <td> Relationship Type </td> <td> Date of Birth </td> <td> Gender </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Spouse </td> <td> 1980-22-03 </td> <td> female </td> <td> <input type="button" id ="addDep" value="Add" onclick = "add()" </td> <td> <input type="button" id ="deleteDep" value="Delete" onclick = "deleteRow(this)" </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Child </td> <td> 2008-23-06 </td> <td> female </td> <td> <input type="button" id ="addDep" value="Add" onclick = "add()"</td> <td> <input type="button" id ="deleteDep" value="Delete" onclick = "deleteRow(this)" </td> </tr> </table>

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  • Using PHP session_id() to Make Sure iframe is Generated by Our Server Dynamically

    - by Michael Robinson
    We use iframes to show ads on our site. Iframes are used to allow us to keep the ad generation code and other site modules separate. As we track ad views on our site, and need to be able to keep an accurate count of which pagetype gets what views, I must ensure that users can't simply copy-paste the iframe in which the ad is loaded onto another site. This would cause ad count to become inflated for this page, and the count would not match the view count of the page the iframe "should" be displayed in. Before anyone says so: no I can't simply compare the page view count with the ad view count, or use the page view count * number of ads per page, as # of ads per page will not necessarily be static. I need to come up with a solution that will allow ads to be shown only for iframes that are generated dynamically and are shown on our pages. I am not familiar with PHP sessions, but from what little reading I have had time to do, the following seems to be to be an acceptable solution: Add "s = session_id()" to the src of the ad's iframe. In the code that receives and processes ad requests, only return (and count) and ad if s == session_id(). Please correct me if I'm wrong, but this would ensure: Ads would only be returned to iframes whose src was generated alongside the rest of the page's content, as is the case during normal use. We can return our logo to ad calls with an invalid session_id. So a simple example would be: One of our pages: <?php session_start(); ?> <div id="someElement"> <!-- EVERYONE LOVES ADS --> <iframe src="http//awesomesite.com/ad/can_has_ad.php?s=<?php echo session_id(); ?>></iframe> </div> ad/can_has_ad.php: <?php session_start(); ?> if($_GET['s'] == session_id()){ echo 'can has ad'; } else{ echo '<img src="http://awesomesite.com/images/canhaslogo.jpg"/>'; } And finally, copied code with static 's' parameter: <!-- HAHA LULZ I WILL SCREW WITH YOUR AD VIEW COUNTS LULZ HAHA --> <iframe src="http//awesomesite.com/ad/can_has_ad.php?s=77f2b5fcdab52f52607888746969b0ad></iframe> Which would give them an iframe showing our awesome site's logo, and not screw with our view counts. I made some basic test cases: two files, one that generates the iframe and echos it, and one that the iframe's src is pointed to, that checks the 's' parameter and shows an appropriate message depending on the result. I copied the iframe into a file and hosted it on a different server, and the correct message was displayed (cannot has ad). So, my question is: Would this work or am I being a PHP session noob, with the above test being a total fluke? Thanks for your time! Edit: I'm trying to solve this without touching the SQL server

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  • Best way to run remote VBScript in ASP.net? WMI or PsExec?

    - by envinyater
    I am doing some research to find out the best and most efficient method for this. I will need to execute remote scripts on a number of Window Servers/Computers (while we are building them). I have a web application that is going to automate this task, I currently have my prototype working to use PsExec to execute remote scripts. This requires PsExec to be installed on the system. A colleague suggested I should use WMI for this. I did some research in WMI and I couldn't find what I'm looking for. I want to either upload the script to the server and execute it and read the results, or already have the script on the server and execute it and read the results. I would prefer the first option though! Which is more ideal, PsExec or WMI? For reference, this is my prototype PsExec code. This script is only executing a small script to get the Windows OS and Service Pack Info. Protected Sub windowsScript(ByVal COMPUTERNAME As String) ' Create an array to store VBScript results Dim winVariables(2) As String nameLabel.Text = Name.Text ' Use PsExec to execute remote scripts Dim Proc As New System.Diagnostics.Process ' Run PsExec locally Proc.StartInfo = New ProcessStartInfo("C:\Windows\psexec.exe") ' Pass in following arguments to PsExec Proc.StartInfo.Arguments = COMPUTERNAME & " -s cmd /C c:\systemInfo.vbs" Proc.StartInfo.RedirectStandardInput = True Proc.StartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = True Proc.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = False Proc.Start() ' Pause for script to run System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1500) Proc.Close() System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(2500) 'Allows the system a chance to finish with the process. Dim filePath As String = COMPUTERNAME & "\TTO\somefile.txt" 'Download file created by script on Remote system to local system My.Computer.Network.DownloadFile(filePath, "C:\somefile.txt") System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000) ' Pause so file gets downloaded ''Import data from text file into variables textRead("C:\somefile.txt", winVariables) WindowsOSLbl.Text = winVariables(0).ToString() SvcPckLbl.Text = winVariables(1).ToString() System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000) ' ''Delete the file on server - we don't need it anymore Dim Proc2 As New System.Diagnostics.Process Proc2.StartInfo = New ProcessStartInfo("C:\Windows\psexec.exe") Proc2.StartInfo.Arguments = COMPUTERNAME & " -s cmd /C del c:\somefile.txt" Proc2.StartInfo.RedirectStandardInput = True Proc2.StartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = True Proc2.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = False Proc2.Start() System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(500) Proc2.Close() ' Delete file locally File.Delete("C:\somefile.txt") End Sub

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  • Help with C# program design implementation: multiple array of lists or a better way?

    - by Bob
    I'm creating a 2D tile-based RPG in XNA and am in the initial design phase. I was thinking of how I want my tile engine to work and came up with a rough sketch. Basically I want a grid of tiles, but at each tile location I want to be able to add more than one tile and have an offset. I'd like this so that I could do something like add individual trees on the world map to give more flair. Or set bottles on a bar in some town without having to draw a bunch of different bar tiles with varying bottles. But maybe my reach is greater than my grasp. I went to implement the idea and had something like this in my Map object: List<Tile>[,] Grid; But then I thought about it. Let's say I had a world map of 200x200, which would actually be pretty small as far as RPGs go. That would amount to 40,000 Lists. To my mind I think there has to be a better way. Now this IS pre-mature optimization. I don't know if the way I happen to design my maps and game will be able to handle this, but it seems needlessly inefficient and something that could creep up if my game gets more complex. One idea I have is to make the offset and the multiple tiles optional so that I'm only paying for them when needed. But I'm not sure how I'd do this. A multiple array of objects? object[,] Grid; So here's my criteria: A 2D grid of tile locations Each tile location has a minimum of 1 tile, but can optionally have more Each extra tile can optionally have an x and y offset for pinpoint placement Can anyone help with some ideas for implementing such a design (don't need it done for me, just ideas) while keeping memory usage to a minimum? If you need more background here's roughly what my Map and Tile objects amount to: public struct Map { public Texture2D Texture; public List<Rectangle> Sources; //Source Rectangles for where in Texture to get the sprite public List<Tile>[,] Grid; } public struct Tile { public int Index; //Where in Sources to find the source Rectangle public int X, Y; //Optional offsets }

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  • difference between calling javascript function on body load or directly from script.

    - by Abbas
    i am using a javascript where in i am creating multiple div (say 5) at runtime, using javascript function, all the divs contain some text, which is again set at runtime, now i want to disable all the divs at runtime and have the page numbers in the bottom, so that whenever user clicks on the page number only that div should get visible else other should get disable, i have created a function, which accepts parameter, as page number, i enable the div whose page number is clicked and using a for loop, i disable all the other divs, now here my problem is i have created two functions, 1st (for adding divs and disabling all the divs except 1st) and writing content to it, and other for enabling the div whose page number is clicked, and i have called the Adding div function on body onload; now first time when i run, page everthing goes well, but next time when i click on any of the page number, it just gets enabled and again that AddDiv function, runs and re-enables all the divs.. Please reply why this is happening and how should i resolve my issue... Below is my script, content for the div are coming using Json. <body onload="JsonScript();"> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function JsonScript() { var existingDiv = document.getElementById("form1"); var newAnchorDiv = document.createElement("div"); newAnchorDiv.id = "anchorDiv"; var list = { "Article": articleList }; for(var i=0; i < list.Article.length; i++) { var newDiv = document.createElement("div"); newDiv.id = "div"+(i+1); newDiv.innerHTML = list.Article[i].toString(); newAnchorDiv.innerHTML += "<a href='' onclick='displayMessage("+(i+1)+")'>"+(i+1)+"</a>&nbsp;"; existingDiv.appendChild(newDiv); existingDiv.appendChild(newAnchorDiv); } for(var j = 2; j < list.Article.length + 1; j ++) { var getDivs = document.getElementById("div"+j); getDivs.style.display = "none"; } } function displayMessage(currentId) { var list = {"Article" : articleList} document.getElementById("div"+currentId).style.display = 'block'; for(var i = 1; i < list.Article.length + 1; i++) { if (i != currentId) { document.getElementById("div"+i).style.display = 'none'; } } } </script> Thanks and Regards

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  • How to remove music/videos DRM protection and convert to Mobile Devices such as iPod, iPhone, PSP, Z

    - by tonywesley
    The music/video files you purchased from online music stores like iTunes, Yahoo Music or Wal-Mart are under DRM protection. So you can't convert them to the formats supported by your own mobile devices such as Nokia phone, Creative Zen palyer, iPod, PSP, Walkman, Zune… You also can't share your purchased music/videos with your friends. The following step by step tutorial is dedicated to instructing music lovers to how to convert your DRM protected music/videos to mobile devices. Method 1: If you only want to remove DRM protection from your protected music, this method will not spend your money. Step 1: Burn your protected music files to CD-R/RW disc to make an audio CD Step 2: Find a free CD Ripper software to convert the audio CD track back to MP3, WAV, WMA, M4A, AAC, RA… Method 2: This guide will show you how to crack drm from protected wmv, wma, m4p, m4v, m4a, aac files and convert to unprotected WMV, MP4, MP3, WMA or any video and audio formats you like, such as AVI, MP4, Flv, MPEG, MOV, 3GP, m4a, aac, wmv, ogg, wav... I have been using Media Converter software, it is the quickest and easiest solution to remove drm from WMV, M4V, M4P, WMA, M4A, AAC, M4B, AA files by quick recording. It gets audio and video stream at the bottom of operating system, so the output quality is lossless and the conversion speed is fast . The process is as follows. Step 1: Download and install the software Step 2: Run the software and click "Add…" button to load WMA or M4A, M4B, AAC, WMV, M4P, M4V, ASF files Step 3: Choose output formats. If you want to convert protected audio files, please select "Convert audio to" list; If you want to convert protected video files, please select "Convert video to" list. Step 4: You can click "Settings" button to custom preference for output files. Click "Settings" button bellow "Convert audio to" list for protected audio files Click "Settings" button bellow "Convert video to" list for protected video files Step 5: Start remove DRM and convert your DRM protected music and videos by click on "Start" button. What is DRM? DRM, which is most commonly found in movies and music files, doesn't mean just basic copy-protection of video, audio and ebooks, but it basically means full protection for digital content, ranging from delivery to end user's ways to use the content. We can remove the Drm from video and audio files legally by quick recording.

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  • Return only the new database items since last check in Rails

    - by Smith
    I'm fairly new to Ruby, and currently trying to implement an AJAX style commenting system. When the user views a topic, all the current comments on that topic will be displayed. The user can post a comment on the page of a topic and it should automatically display without having to refresh the page, along with any new comments that have been posted since the last comment currently displayed to the user. The comments should also automatically refresh at a specified frequency. I currently have the following code: views/idea/view.html.erb <%= periodically_call_remote(:update => "div_chat", :frequency => 1, :position => "top", :url => {:controller => "comment", :action => :test_view, :idea_id => @idea.id } ) %> <div id="div_chat"> </div> views/comment/test_view.html.erb <% @comments.each do |c| %><div id="comment"> <%= c.comment %> </div> <% end %> controllers/comment_controller.rb class CommentController < ApplicationController before_filter :start_defs def add_comment @comment = Comment.new params[:comment] if @comment.save flash[:notice] = "Successfully commented." else flash[:notice] = "UnSuccessfully commented." end end def test_render @comments = Comment.find_all_by_idea_id(params[:idea_id], :order => "created_at DESC", :conditions => ["created_at > ?", @latest_time] ) @latest = Comment.find(:first, :order => "created_at DESC") @latest_time = @latest.created_at end def start_defs @latest = Comment.find(:first, :order => "created_at ASC") @latest_time = @latest.created_at end end The problem is that every time periodically_call_remote makes a call, it returns the entire list of comments for that topic. From what I can tell, the @latest_time gets constantly reset to the earliest created_at, rather than staying updated to the latest created_at after the comments have been retrieved. I'm also not sure how I should directly refresh the comments when a comment is posted. Is it possible to force a call to periodically_call_remote on a successful save?

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  • Connection hangs after time of inactivity

    - by Sinuhe
    In my application, Spring manages connection pool for database access. Hibernate uses these connections for its queries. At first glance, I have no problems with the pool: it works correctly with concurrent clients and a pool with only one connection. I can execute a lot of queries, so I think that I (or Spring) don't leave open connections. My problem appears after some time of inactivity (sometimes 30 minutes, sometimes more than 2 hours). Then, when Hibernate does some search, it lasts too much. Setting log4j level to TRACE, I get this logs: ... 18:27:01 DEBUG nsactionSynchronizationManager - Retrieved value [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.SessionHolder@99abd7] for key [org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl@7d2897] bound to thread [http-8080-Processor24] 18:27:01 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Found thread-bound Session [org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl@8878cd] for Hibernate transaction 18:27:01 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Using transaction object [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateTransactionManager$HibernateTransactionObject@1b2ffee] 18:27:01 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Creating new transaction with name [com.acjoventut.service.GenericManager.findByExample]: PROPAGATION_REQUIRED,ISOLATION_DEFAULT 18:27:01 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Preparing JDBC Connection of Hibernate Session [org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl@8878cd] 18:27:01 TRACE SessionImpl - setting flush mode to: AUTO 18:27:01 DEBUG JDBCTransaction - begin 18:27:01 DEBUG ConnectionManager - opening JDBC connection Here it gets frozen for about 2 - 10 minutes. But then continues: 18:30:11 DEBUG JDBCTransaction - current autocommit status: true 18:30:11 DEBUG JDBCTransaction - disabling autocommit 18:30:11 TRACE JDBCContext - after transaction begin 18:30:11 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Exposing Hibernate transaction as JDBC transaction [jdbc:oracle:thin:@212.31.39.50:30998:orcl, UserName=DEVELOP, Oracle JDBC driver] 18:30:11 DEBUG nsactionSynchronizationManager - Bound value [org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.ConnectionHolder@843a9d] for key [org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource@7745fd] to thread [http-8080-Processor24] 18:30:11 DEBUG nsactionSynchronizationManager - Initializing transaction synchronization ... After that, it works with no problems, until another period of inactivity. IMHO, it seems like connection pool returns an invalid/closed connection, and when Hibernate realizes that, ask another connection to the pool. I don't know how can I solve this problem or things I can do for delimiting it. Any help achieving this will be appreciate. Thanks. EDIT: Well, it finally was due a firewall rule. Database detects the connection is lost, but pool (dbcp or c3p0) not. So, it tries to query the database with no success. What is still strange for me is that timeout period is very variable. Maybe the rule is specially strange or firewall doesn't work correctly. Anyway, I have no access to that machine and I can only wait for an explanation. :(

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  • How can I make this client as a multithread client?

    - by Johanna
    Hi, I have read a lot about multithread client but for this one,I can not make it multithread! would you please help me? public class MainClient implements Runnable{ private static InformationClass info = new InformationClass(); private static Socket c; private static String text; public static String getText() { return text; } public static void setText(String text) { MainClient.text = text; } private static PrintWriter os; private static BufferedReader is; static boolean closed = false; /** * @param args the command line arguments */ public static void main(String[] args) { MainFrame farme = new MainFrame(); farme.setVisible(true); try { c = new Socket("localhost", 5050); os = new PrintWriter(c.getOutputStream(), true); is = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(c.getInputStream())); } catch (UnknownHostException ex) { Logger.getLogger(MainClient.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } catch (IOException ex) { Logger.getLogger(MainClient.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } } public static void active() { String teXt = MainClient.getText(); System.out.println(teXt); os.println(teXt); try { String line = is.readLine(); System.out.println("Text received: " + line); os.flush(); is.close(); is.close(); c.close(); } catch (IOException ex) { Logger.getLogger(MainClient.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } } } also active method will be called when the client write something on the text area and then clicks on the send button. 2) also i have a question that: in the other class I have this action performed for my send button,does it mean that client is multithread?? private void jButton1ActionPerformed(java.awt.event.ActionEvent evt) { new Thread(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { // This gets run in a background thread String text = jTextArea1.getText(); jTextArea2.append(client.getCurrentName() + " : " + text + "\n"); MainClient.setText(client.getCurrentName() + " : " + text + "\n"); clear(); MainClient.active(); } }).start(); } Last EDIT: this is my active method: public static void active() { String teXt = MainClient.getText(); os.println(teXt); String line = is.readLine(); System.out.println("Text received: " + line); os.flush(); is.close(); is.close(); c.close(); }

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