Search Results

Search found 21692 results on 868 pages for 'win key'.

Page 435/868 | < Previous Page | 431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442  | Next Page >

  • Importing Excel spreadsheet data into existing Access DB

    - by Keeb13r
    I've designed an Access 2003 DB with 3 tables: APPLICATIONS, SERVERS, and INSTALLATIONS. Records in the APPLICATIONS and SERVERS tables are uniquely identified by a synthetic primary key (in Access, an "auto number"). The INSTALLATIONS table is essentially a mapping table between APPLICATIONS and SERVERS: it's a list of records of which applications are installed on which servers. A record in the INSTALLATIONS table is also identified by a synthetic primary key, and it consists of an APPLICATION_ID and SERVER_ID for the records in their respective tables. I have an Excel 2003 spreadsheet I would like to import into this database, but it's proving difficult. The spreadsheet is made up of several tabs/worksheets, each one representing a server with its own listing of installed applications. I'm not sure how to proceed with an import - the "Get External Data -- Import" feature in Access has an import "In an Existing Table" option, but it's greyed out. I'm also unsure how I build the relationships between applications and servers for importing records into the INSTALLATIONS table. I had previously fooled around with adding some security to the Access DB file. I think I removed everything but perhaps I didn't and that's causing the problem? Some sample data from the Excel spreadsheet: SERVER101 * Adobe Reader 9 * BMC Remedy User 7.0 * HostExplorer 2008 * Microsoft Office 2003 * Microsoft Office 2007 * Notepad++ SERVER102 * Adobe Reader 9 * DameWare Mini Remote Control * Microsoft Office 2003 * Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 SP1 * Oracle 9.2 SERVER103 * AWDView * EXTRA! Personal Client 32-bit * Microsoft Office 2003 * Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 SP1 * Snagit 9.1 * WinZip 12.1 The Access DB design is very simple: APPLICATION * APPLICATION_ID (autonumber) * APPLICATION_NAME (varchar) SERVER * SERVER_ID (autonumber) * SERVER_NAME (varchar) INSTALLATION * INSTALLATION_ID (autonumber) * APPLICATION_ID (number) * SERVER_ID (number)

    Read the article

  • Access to map data

    - by herzl shemuelian
    I have a complex map that defined typedef short short1 typedef short short2 typedef map<short1,short2> data_list; typedef map<string,list> table_list; I have a class that fill table_list class GroupingClass { table_list m_table_list; string Buildkey(OD e1){ string ostring; ostring+=string(e1.m_Date,sizeof(Date)); ostring+=string(e1.m_CT,sizeof(CT)); ostring+=string(e1.m_PT,sizeof(PT)); return ostring; } void operator() (const map<short1,short2>::value_type& myPair) { OptionsDefine e1=myPair.second; string key=Buildkey(e1); m_table_list[key][e1.m_short2]=e1.m_short2; } operator table_list() { return m_table_list; } }; and I use it by table_list TL2 GroupingClass gc; TL2=for_each(mapOD.begin(), mapOD.end(), gc); but when I try to access to internal map I have problems for example data_list tmp; tmp=TL2["AAAA"]; short i=tmp[1]; //I dont update i variable but if i use a loop by itrator this work properly why this no work at first way thanks herzl

    Read the article

  • Appengine JDO dataclasses to python model

    - by M.A. Cape
    Does anyone have tried to implement an app in GAE having both java and python? I have an existing app and my front end is in java. Now I want to use the existing datastore to be interfaced by python. My problem is i don't know how to define the relationships and model that would be equivalent to the one in java. I have tried the one-to-many relationship in python but when stored in the datastore, the fields are different than the one-to-many of java. My data classes are as follows. //one-to-many owned Parent Class public class Parent{ @PrimaryKey @Persistent private String unitID; //some other fields... @Persistent @Order(extensions = @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="list-ordering", value="dateCreated desc")) private List <Child> child; //methods & constructors were omitted } Child public class Child{ @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private Key uId; @Persistent private String name; /* etc... */ }

    Read the article

  • Best Practice: Protecting Personally Identifiable Data in a ASP.NET / SQL Server 2008 Environment

    - by William
    Thanks to a SQL injection vulnerability found last week, some of my recommendations are being investigated at work. We recently re-did an application which stores personally identifiable information whose disclosure could lead to identity theft. While we read some of the data on a regular basis, the restricted data we only need a couple of times a year and then only two employees need it. I've read up on SQL Server 2008's encryption function, but I'm not convinced that's the route I want to go. My problem ultimately boils down to the fact that we're either using symmetric keys or assymetric keys encrypted by a symmetric key. Thus it seems like a SQL injection attack could lead to a data leak. I realize permissions should prevent that, permissions should also prevent the leaking in the first place. It seems to me the better method would be to asymmetrically encrypt the data in the web application. Then store the private key offline and have a fat client that they can run the few times a year they need to access the restricted data so the data could be decrypted on the client. This way, if the server get compromised, we don't leak old data although depending on what they do we may leak future data. I think the big disadvantage is this would require re-writing the web application and creating a new fat application (to pull the restricted data). Due to the recent problem, I can probably get the time allocated, so now would be the proper time to make the recommendation. Do you have a better suggestion? Which method would you recommend? More importantly why?

    Read the article

  • Java 7 API design best practice - return Array or return Collection

    - by Shengjie
    I know this question has be asked before generic comes out. Array does win out a bit given Array enforces the return type, it's more type-safe. But now, with latest JDK 7, every time when I design this type of APIs: public String[] getElements(String type) vs public List<String> getElements(String type) I am always struggling to think of some good reasons to return A Collection over An Array or another way around. What's the best practice when it comes to the case of choosing String[] or List as the API's return type? Or it's courses for horses. I don't have a special case in my mind, I am more looking for a generic pros/cons comparison.

    Read the article

  • nhibernate mapping: delete collection, insert new collection with old IDs

    - by npeBeg
    my issue lokks similar to this one: (link) but i have one-to-many association: <set name="Fields" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="false" inverse="true"> <key column="[TEMPLATE_ID]"></key> <one-to-many class="MyNamespace.Field, MyLibrary"/> </set> (i also tried to use ) this mapping is for Template object. this one and the Field object has their ID generators set to identity. so when i call session.Update for the Template object it works fine, well, almost: if the Field object has an Id number, UPDATE sql request is called, if the Id is 0, the INSERT is performed. But if i delete a Field object from the collection it has no effect for the Database. I found that if i also call session.Delete for this Field object, everything will be ok, but due to client-server architecture i don't know what to delete. so i decided to delete all the collection elements from the DB and call session.Update with a new collection. and i've got an issue: nhibernate performs the UPDATE operation for the Field objects that has non-zero Id, but they are removed from DB! maybe i should use some other Id generator or smth.. what is the best way to make nhibernate perform "delete all"/"insert all" routine for the collection?

    Read the article

  • Discovered: Run A Video In An Image

    - by Moon .
    okay i have found the way to run a video in a image.... the procedure as given below 1 - Run a video in Windows Media Player 2 - While the video running, Press Print Screen 3 - Paste it in MS Paint 4 - Save the image in JPEG or BMP format 5 - Run any video in Windows Media Player again 6 - Now open that image, in Windows Page\Fax Viewer or ACDsee etc. 7 - at this time the win. media player is playing and the image is open 8- Switch to image (focus on image) and you will see the currently running video in the image can anybody with extensive knowledge of windows tell me why does this happen. Well this doesn't work in all versions of windows and media players. i tried this on the follwing setup Windows Media Player 10 Windows XP 2006 SP2

    Read the article

  • Binding Data into a Resource

    - by Jordan
    How do you bind data from the view model into an object in the resources of the user control? Here is a very abstract example: <UserControl ... xmlns:local="clr-namespace:My.Local.Namespace" Name="userControl"> <UserControl.Resources> <local:GroupingProvider x:Key="groupingProvider" GroupValue="{Binding ???}" /> </UserControl.Resources> <Grid> <local:GroupingConsumer Name="groupingConsumer1" Provider={StaticResource groupingProvider"} /> <local:GroupingConsumer Name="groupingConsumer2" Provider={StaticResource groupingProvider"} /> </Grid> </UserControl> How do I bind GroupValue to a property in the view model behind this view. I've tried the following: <local:GroupingProvider x:Key="groupingProvider" GroupValue="{Binding ElementName=userControl, Path=DataContext.Property}"/> But this doesn't work. Edit: GroupProvider extends DependencyObject and GroupValue is the name of a DependencyProperty. I'm getting an debugging message telling me that the property to which I am binding doesn't exist.

    Read the article

  • Applying correct bindings to WPF datatemplate to maximize reusability

    - by johncatfish
    Hi. I have a WPF application. I want to apply that datatemplate to a Listbox filled with records from Table02. Then, for each listboxitem I need to bind the combobox to the same database table (Table01), but for each listboxitem the selected item will vary. It will be a foreign key to Table01. <DataTemplate x:Key="Table01DataTemplate"> <Grid> <ComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding Model.IQueryable_Table01, RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" SelectedValue="{Binding Table01_ForeignKey}" DisplayMemberPath="name" SelectedValuePath="id" /> <!-- Other stuff --> </Grid> </DataTemplate> <ListBox x:Name="lbTest" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource Table01DataTemplate}" /> <!-- In .cs file lbTest.DataContext = this; --> Notes: Model.IQueryable_Table01 is a property which encapsulates a Linq-to-sql call returning a IQueryable. lbTest will be filled by setting ItemsSource with a Linq-to-sql call. Is this a good way to do the bindings in a data template for a maximum reusability? I also thought of replacing AncestorType={x:Type Window} with lbTest.DataContext = this; AncestorType={x:Type Application} and lbTest.DataContext = App.Current; But it didn't work (Exception on loading) and I don't know if there's any caveats or down-sides to this approach. Is this good? Any suggestions or improvements? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio WCF Application now asking to manually attach to process

    - by JL
    I have a console app that is calling a WCF app hosted in IIS. Up until now everything has been fine and I am able to debug the app - step through it without any problems... Until I added my dev pc to a domain.... now every time I get step into the code hosted in IIS, a popup comes up asking if I would like to attach to this process... I can then continue debugging... again not a huge train smash - however... now it randomly just jumps to the end of the process (almost like some kind of timeout) and I am not able to reliably step and debug the IIS hosted code.... Any ideas? All the projects are in the same solution, and all running on the local dev pc... Using Visual Studio 2008, dev PC is Win 7

    Read the article

  • How Optimize sql query make it faster

    - by user502083
    Hello every one : I have a very simple small database, 2 of tables are: Node (Node_ID, Node_name, Node_Date) : Node_ID is primary key Citation (Origin_Id, Target_Id) : PRIMARY KEY (Origin_Id, Target_Id) each is FK in Node Now I write a query that first find all citations that their Origin_Id has a specific date and then I want to know what are the target dates of these records. I'm using sqlite in python the Node table has 3000 record and Citation has 9000 records, and my query is like this in a function: def cited_years_list(self, date): c=self.cur try: c.execute("""select n.Node_Date,count(*) from Node n INNER JOIN (select c.Origin_Id AS Origin_Id, c.Target_Id AS Target_Id, n.Node_Date AS Date from CITATION c INNER JOIN NODE n ON c.Origin_Id=n.Node_Id where CAST(n.Node_Date as INT)={0}) VW ON VW.Target_Id=n.Node_Id GROUP BY n.Node_Date;""".format(date)) cited_years=c.fetchall() self.conn.commit() print('Cited Years are : \n ',str(cited_years)) except Exception as e: print('Cited Years retrival failed ',e) return cited_years Then I call this function for some specific years, But it's crazy slowwwwwwwww :( (around 1 min for a specific year) Although my query works fine, it is slow. would you please give me a suggestion to make it faster? I'd appreciate any idea about optimizing this query :) I also should mention that I have indices on Origin_Id and Target_Id, so the inner join should be pretty fast, but it's not!!!

    Read the article

  • NUnit - Multiple properties of the same name? Linking to requirements

    - by Ryan Ternier
    I'm linking all our our System Tests to test cases and to our Requirements. Every requirement has an ID. Every Test Case / System Tests tests a variety of requirements. Every module of code links to multiple requirements. I'm trying to find the best way to link every system test to its driving requirements. I was hoping to do something like: [NUnit.Framework.Property("Release", "6.0.0")] [NUnit.Framework.Property("Requirement", "FR50082")] [NUnit.Framework.Property("Requirement", "FR50084")] [NUnit.Framework.Property("Requirement", "FR50085")] [TestCase(....)] public void TestSomething(string a, string b...) However, that will break because Property is a Key-Value pair. The system will not allow me to have multiple Properties with the same key. The reason I'm wanting this is to be able to test specific requirements in our system if a module changes that touches these requirements. Rather than run over 1,000 system tests on every build, this would allow us to target what to test based on changes done to our code. Some system tests run upwards of 5 minutes (Enterprise healthcare system), so "Just run all of them" isn't a viable solution. We do that, but only before promoting through our environments. Thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Is this the intention behavior in JComboBox? How I can avoid this behavior?

    - by Yan Cheng CHEOK
    I realize that if you are having a same selection in JComboBox, using up/down arrow key, will not help you to navigate the selection around. How I can avoid this behavior? See the below screen shoot /* * To change this template, choose Tools | Templates * and open the template in the editor. */ /* * NewJFrame.java * * Created on May 8, 2010, 7:46:28 PM */ package javaapplication26; /** * * @author yccheok */ public class NewJFrame extends javax.swing.JFrame { /** Creates new form NewJFrame */ public NewJFrame() { initComponents(); /* If you are having 3 same strings here. Using, up/down arrow key, * will not move the selection around. */ this.jComboBox1.addItem("Intel"); this.jComboBox1.addItem("Intel"); this.jComboBox1.addItem("Intel"); } /** This method is called from within the constructor to * initialize the form. * WARNING: Do NOT modify this code. The content of this method is * always regenerated by the Form Editor. */ @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") // <editor-fold defaultstate="collapsed" desc="Generated Code"> private void initComponents() { jComboBox1 = new javax.swing.JComboBox(); setDefaultCloseOperation(javax.swing.WindowConstants.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); jComboBox1.setEditable(true); javax.swing.GroupLayout layout = new javax.swing.GroupLayout(getContentPane()); getContentPane().setLayout(layout); layout.setHorizontalGroup( layout.createParallelGroup(javax.swing.GroupLayout.Alignment.LEADING) .addGroup(layout.createSequentialGroup() .addGap(105, 105, 105) .addComponent(jComboBox1, javax.swing.GroupLayout.PREFERRED_SIZE, 158, javax.swing.GroupLayout.PREFERRED_SIZE) .addContainerGap(137, Short.MAX_VALUE)) ); layout.setVerticalGroup( layout.createParallelGroup(javax.swing.GroupLayout.Alignment.LEADING) .addGroup(layout.createSequentialGroup() .addGap(63, 63, 63) .addComponent(jComboBox1, javax.swing.GroupLayout.PREFERRED_SIZE, javax.swing.GroupLayout.DEFAULT_SIZE, javax.swing.GroupLayout.PREFERRED_SIZE) .addContainerGap(217, Short.MAX_VALUE)) ); pack(); }// </editor-fold> /** * @param args the command line arguments */ public static void main(String args[]) { java.awt.EventQueue.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { new NewJFrame().setVisible(true); } }); } // Variables declaration - do not modify private javax.swing.JComboBox jComboBox1; // End of variables declaration }

    Read the article

  • WPF CollectionViewSource Grouping

    - by Miles
    I'm using a Collection View Source to group my data. In my data, I have Property1 and Property2 that I'm needing to group on. The only stipulation is that I don't want sub-groups of another group. So, when I group by these two properties, I don't want to have it so that Property2 because a subgroup of Property1's group. The reason why I'm wanting this is because I'm wanting to have a header that shows the following information: Header: <TextBlock.Text> <MultiBinding StringFormat="Property1: {0}, Property2: {1}"> <Binding Path="Property1"/> <Binding Path="Property2"/> </MultiBinding> </TextBlock.Text> I've tried this with my CollectionViewSource but was not able to "combine" the group and subgroup together: <CollectionViewSource x:Key="myKey" Source="{Binding myDataSource}"> <CollectionViewSource.GroupDescriptions> <PropertyGroupDescription PropertyName="Property1" /> <PropertyGroupDescription PropertyName="Property2" /> </CollectionViewSource.GroupDescriptions> </CollectionViewSource> Is it possible to group two properties together? Something like below? <CollectionViewSource x:Key="myKey" Source="{Binding myDataSource}"> <CollectionViewSource.GroupDescriptions> <PropertyGroupDescription PropertyName="Property1,Property2" /> </CollectionViewSource.GroupDescriptions> </CollectionViewSource>

    Read the article

  • Another Nim's Game Variant

    - by Terry Smith
    Given N binary sequence Example : given one sequence 101001 means player 0 can only choose a position with 0 element and cut the sequence from that position {1,101,1010} player 1 can only choose a position with 1 element ans cut the sequence from that position {null,10,101000} now player 0 and player 1 take turn cutting the sequence, on each turn they can cut any one non-null sequence, if a player k can't make a move because there's no more k element on any sequence, he lose. Assume both player play optimally, who will win ? I tried to solve this problem with grundy but i'm unable to reduce the sequence to a grundy number because it both player don't have the same option to move. Can anyone give me a hint to solve this problem ?

    Read the article

  • SQLAlchemy Mapping problem

    - by asdvalkn
    Dear Everyone, I am trying to sqlalchemy to correctly map my data. Note that a unified group is basically a group of groups. (One unifiedGroup maps to many groups but each group can only map to one ug). So basically this is the definition of my unifiedGroups: CREATE TABLE `unifiedGroups` ( `ugID` INT AUTO_INCREMENT, `gID` INT NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY(`ugID`, `gID`), KEY( `gID`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 ; Note that each row is a ugID, gID tuple. ( I do not know before hand how many gID is per ugID so this is probably the most sensible and simplest method). Definition for my UnifiedGroup class class UnifiedGroup(object): """UnifiedProduct behaves very much like a group """ def __init__(self, ugID): self.ugID=ugID #Added by mapping self.groups=False def __str__(self): return '<%s:%s>' % (self.ugID, ','.join( [g for g in self.groups])) These are my mapping tables: tb_groupsInfo = Table( 'groupsInfo', metadata, Column('gID', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('gName', String(128)), ) tb_unifiedGroups = Table( 'unifiedGroups', metadata, Column('ugID', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('gID', Integer, ForeignKey('groupsInfo.gID')), ) My mapper maps in the following manner: mapper( UnifiedGroup, tb_unifiedGroups, properties={ 'groups': relation( Group, backref='unifiedGroup') }) However, when I tried to do groupInstance.unifiedGroup, I am getting an empty list [], while groupInstance.unifiedGroup.groups returns me an error: AttributeError: 'InstrumentedList' object has no attribute 'groups' Traceback (most recent call last): File "Mapping.py", line 119, in <module> print p.group.unifiedGroup.groups AttributeError: 'InstrumentedList' object has no attribute 'groups' What is wrong?

    Read the article

  • Fluent NHibernate AutoMap

    - by Markus
    Hi. I have a qouestion regarding the AutoMap xml generation. I have two classes: public class User { virtual public Guid Id { get; private set; } virtual public String Name { get; set; } virtual public String Email { get; set; } virtual public String Password { get; set; } virtual public IList<OpenID> OpenIDs { get; set; } } public class OpenID { virtual public Guid Id { get; private set; } virtual public String Provider { get; set; } virtual public String Ticket { get; set; } virtual public User User { get; set; } } The generated sequences of xml files are: For User class: <bag name="OpenIDs"> <key> <column name="User_Id" /> </key> <one-to-many class="BL_DAL.Entities.OpenID, BL_DAL, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" /> </bag> For OpenID class: <many-to-one class="BL_DAL.Entities.User, BL_DAL, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="User"> <column name="User_id" /> </many-to-one> I don't see the inverse=true attribute for the User mapping. Is it a normal behavior, or I made a mistake somewhere?

    Read the article

  • named type not used for constructor injection

    - by nmarun
    Hi, I have a simple console application where I have the following setup: public interface ILogger { void Log(string message); } class NullLogger : ILogger { private readonly string version; public NullLogger() { version = "1.0"; } public NullLogger(string v) { version = v; } public void Log(string message) { Console.WriteLine("NULL " + version + " : " + message); } } The configuration details are below: <type type="UnityConsole.ILogger, UnityConsole" mapTo="UnityConsole.NullLogger, UnityConsole"> My calling code looks as below: IUnityContainer container = new UnityContainer(); UnityConfigurationSection section = (UnityConfigurationSection)ConfigurationManager.GetSection("unity"); section.Containers.Default.Configure(container); ILogger nullLogger = container.Resolve(); nullLogger.Log("hello"); This works fine, but once I give a name to this type something like: <type type="UnityConsole.ILogger, UnityConsole" mapTo="UnityConsole.NullLogger, UnityConsole" name="NullLogger"> The above calling code does not work even if I explicitly register the type using container.RegisterType<ILogger, NullLogger>(); I get the error: {"Resolution of the dependency failed, type = \"UnityConsole.ILogger\", name = \"\". Exception message is: The current build operation (build key Build Key[UnityConsole.NullLogger, null]) failed: The parameter v could not be resolved when attempting to call constructor UnityConsole.NullLogger(System.String v). (Strategy type BuildPlanStrategy, index 3)"} Why doesn't unity look into named instances? To get it to work, I'll have to do: ILogger nullLogger = container.Resolve("NullLogger"); Where is this behavior documented? Arun

    Read the article

  • no instance of overloaded function getline c++

    - by Dave
    I'm a bit confused as to what i have incorrect with my script that is causing this error. I have a function which calls a fill for game settings but it doesn't like my getline. Also i should mention these are the files i have included for it: #include <fstream> #include <cctype> #include <map> #include <iostream> #include <string> #include <algorithm> #include <vector> using namespace std;' This is what i have: std::map<string, string> loadSettings(std::string file){ ifstream file(file); string line; std::map<string, string> config; while(std::getline(file, line)) { int pos = line.find('='); if(pos != string::npos) { string key = line.substr(0, pos); string value = line.substr(pos + 1); config[trim(key)] = trim(value); } } return (config); } The function is called like this from my main.cpp //load settings for game std::map<string, string> config = loadSettings("settings.txt"); //load theme for game std::map<string, string> theme = loadSettings("theme.txt"); Where did i go wrong ? Please help! The error: settings.h(61): error C2784: 'std::basic_istream<_Elem,_Traits> &std::getline(std::basic_istream<_Elem,_Traits> &&,std::basic_string<_Elem,_Traits,_Alloc> &)' : could not deduce template argument for 'std::basic_istream<_Elem,_Traits> &&' from 'std::string'

    Read the article

  • odp.net SQL query retrieve set of rows from two input arrays.

    - by Karl Trumstedt
    I have a table with a primary key consisting of two columns. I want to retrieve a set of rows based on two input arrays, each corresponding to one primary key column. select pkt1.id, pkt1.id2, ... from PrimaryKeyTable pkt1, table(:1) t1, table(:2) t2 where pkt1.id = t1.column_value and pkt1.id2 = t2.column_value I then bind the values with two int[] in odp.net. This returns all different combinations of my resulting rows. So if I am expecting 13 rows I receive 169 rows (13*13). The problem is that each value in t1 and t2 should be linked. Value t1[4] should be used with t2[4] and not all the different values in t2. Using distinct solves my problem, but I'm wondering if my approach is wrong. Anyone have any pointers on how to solve this the best way? One way might be to use a for-loop accessing each index in t1 and t2 sequentially, but I wonder what will be more efficient. Edit: actually distinct won't solve my problem, it just did it based on my input-values (all values in t2 = 0)

    Read the article

  • [Android] How do I load URL that requires login into variable?

    - by bebeTech
    I am trying to port my usage meter from a JavaScript Gadget (win) / Widget (OSX) to Android. Total newbie when comes to JAVA + Eclipse + Android 2.1 SDK. Essentially what I want to do is load a page, pass through a username and password and load the resulting page into a array that I can then run some regular expressions through. My code from JavaScript (I've replace the actual URL with a dummy one) is: xmlhttp.open("post","https://acme.com.au/your_account/index.php?function=login",false); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("If-Modified-Since", "Sat, 1 Jan 2000 00:00:00 GMT"); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xmlhttp.send("check_username=" + username + "&password=" + password); I need to know the Android equivalent to the above please. I've played around with WebView but that loads the page in a web browser which isn't what I want.

    Read the article

  • Are their any good way to genrate XML file through C# in .net

    - by steven spielberg
    i wanto make a xml file like <?xml version="1.0" encoding="Windows-1252" ?> <settings> <typeofsetting> <wordname="add" /> </typeofsettings> </settings> the wordname can be depend on what user need. how i can make a application that user can generate the XML file of thing they want. are their any good way to do this. the wordname not user defined it's come from database the application have inbuilt. are their any good practice to do this in c# win-forms.

    Read the article

  • FluentNHibernate: Not.Nullable() doesn't affect output schema

    - by alex
    Hello I'm using fluent nhibernate v. 1.0.0.595. There is a class: public class Weight { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual double Value { get; set; } } I want to map it on the following table: create table [Weight] ( WeightId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL, Weight DOUBLE not null, primary key (WeightId) ) Here is the map: public class WeightMap : ClassMap<Weight> { public WeightMap() { Table("[Weight]"); Id(x => x.Id, "WeightId"); Map(x => x.Value, "Weight").Not.Nullable(); } } The problem is that this mapping produces table with nullable Weight column: Weight DOUBLE null Not-nullable column is generated only with default convention for column name (i.e. Map(x = x.Value).Not.Nullable() instead of Map(x = x.Value, "Weight").Not.Nullable()), but in this case there will be Value column instead of Weight: create table [Weight] ( WeightId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL, Value DOUBLE not null, primary key (WeightId) ) I found similiar problem here: http://code.google.com/p/fluent-nhibernate/issues/detail?id=121, but seems like mentioned workaround with SetAttributeOnColumnElement("not-null", "true") is outdated. Does anybody encountered with this problem? Is there a way to specify named column as not-nullable?

    Read the article

  • Build Process failed with maven package

    - by vijay.shad
    Hi I am working on a maven project to build a simple utility api. The same source code when build on my office win XP machine, was successful. Now i am at home and working with same source code on CentOS machine. Here the build process failed strangely. The error it reports is ideally in my points should we warning message. As shown below. [ERROR] com.vsd.Provider:[12,240] The import java.util.Set is never used Can you please give me some idea, where can I look into?

    Read the article

  • iPhone --- 3DES Encryption returns "wrong" results?

    - by Jan Gressmann
    Hello fellow developers, I have some serious trouble with a CommonCrypto function. There are two existing applications for BlackBerry and Windows Mobile, both use Triple-DES encryption with ECB mode for data exchange. On either the encrypted results are the same. Now I want to implent the 3DES encryption into our iPhone application, so I went straight for CommonCrypto: http://www.opensource.apple.com/source/CommonCrypto/CommonCrypto-32207/CommonCrypto/CommonCryptor.h I get some results if I use CBC mode, but they do not correspond with the results of Java or C#. Anyway, I want to use ECB mode, but I don't get this working at all - there is a parameter error showing up... This is my call for the ECB mode... I stripped it a little bit: const void *vplainText; plainTextBufferSize = [@"Hello World!" length]; bufferPtrSize = (plainTextBufferSize + kCCBlockSize3DES) & ~(kCCBlockSize3DES - 1); plainText = (const void *) [@"Hello World!" UTF8String]; NSString *key = @"abcdeabcdeabcdeabcdeabcd"; ccStatus = CCCrypt(kCCEncrypt, kCCAlgorithm3DES, kCCOptionECBMode, key, kCCKeySize3DES, nil, // iv, not used with ECB plainText, plainTextBufferSize, (void *)bufferPtr, // output bufferPtrSize, &movedBytes); t is more or less the code from here: http://discussions.apple.com/thread.jspa?messageID=9017515 But as already mentioned, I get a parameter error each time... When I use kCCOptionPKCS7Padding instead of kCCOptionECBMode and set the same initialization vector in C# and my iPhone code, the iPhone gives me different results. Is there a mistake by getting my output from the bufferPtr? Currently I get the encrypted stuff this way: NSData *myData = [NSData dataWithBytes:(const void *)bufferPtr length:(NSUInteger)movedBytes]; result = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:myData encoding:NSISOLatin1StringEncoding]; It seems I almost tried every setting twice, different encodings and so on... where is my error?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442  | Next Page >