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  • Attribute value nil

    - by mridula
    Can someone tell me why is this happening? I have created a social networking website using Ruby on Rails. This is my first time programming with RoR. I have a model named "Friendship" which contains an attribute "blocked" to indicate whether the user has blocked another user. When I run the following in IRB - friendship = u.friendships.where(:friend_id => 22).first IRB gives me - Friendship Load (0.6ms) SELECT `friendships`.* FROM `friendships` WHERE `friendships`.`user_id` = 17 AND `friendships`.`friend_id` = 22 LIMIT 1 => #<Friendship id: 33, user_id: 17, friend_id: 22, created_at: "2012-04-07 10:29:49", updated_at: "2012-04-07 10:29:49", blocked: 1> As u can see, the "blocked" attribute has value '1'. But when I run the following 1.9.2-p290 :030 > friendship.blocked => nil - it says, the value of blocked is 'nil' and not '1'. Why is this happening? This could be a very silly mistake but I am new to RoR, so kindly help me! I initially didn't include the accessor method for 'blocked'.. I tried that, and still its giving the same result.. Following is the Friendship model.. class Friendship < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :friend, :class_name => "User" validates_uniqueness_of :friend_id , :scope => :user_id attr_accessor :blocked attr_accessible :blocked end Here is the schema of the table: 1.9.2-p290 :009 > friendship.class => Friendship(id: integer, user_id: integer, friend_id: integer, created_at: datetime, updated_at: datetime, blocked: integer)

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  • MVC Validator.TryValidateObject does not validate custom atrribute, validateAllProperties = true

    - by nealsu
    When calling Validator.TryValidateObject with validateAllProperties = true my custom validation attribute does not get triggered. The ValidationResult does not contain an entry for my erroneous property value. Below is the model, attribute and code used to test this. //Model public class Model { [AmountGreaterThanZero] public int? Amount { get; set; } } //Attribute public sealed class AmountGreaterThanZero: ValidationAttribute { private const string errorMessage = "Amount should be greater than zero."; public AmountGreaterThanZero() : base(errorMessage) { } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return errorMessage; } protected override ValidationResult IsValid(object value, ValidationContext validationContext) { if (value != null) { if ((int)value <= 0) { var message = FormatErrorMessage(validationContext.DisplayName); return new ValidationResult(message); } } return null; } } //Validation Code var container = new Container(); container.ModelList = new List<Model>() { new Model() { Amount = -5 } }; var validationContext = new ValidationContext(container, null, null); var validationResults = new List<ValidationResult>(); var modelIsValid = Validator.TryValidateObject(container, validationContext, validationResults, true); Note: That the validation works fine and ValidationResult returns with correct error message if I use the TryValidateProperty method.

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  • Use where clause with Like in codeigniter

    - by user2524013
    I am working on a project. I am implementing the Search functionality in my System. I will have to show the search record from two tables base on the current use login. I have tried the following code: function searchActivity($limit,$offset,$keyword1,$keyword2,$recruiter_id) { $q=$this->db->select('*')->from('tbl_activity')->limit($limit,$offset); $this->db->join('tbl_job', 'tbl_job.job_id = tbl_activity.job_id_fk', 'left outer'); $this->db->order_by("activity_id", "ASC"); $this->db->like('job_title',$keyword1,'both'); $this->db->or_like('job_title',$keyword2,'both'); $this->db->or_like('activity_subject',$keyword1,'both'); $this->db->or_like('activity_subject',$keyword2,'both'); $this->db->or_like('activity_details',$keyword1,'both'); $this->db->or_like('activity_details',$keyword2,'both'); $this->db->where('tbl_activity.recruiter_id_fk',$recruiter_id); $ret['rows']=$q->get()->result(); return $ret; } I want to show search results based on the current user id, which is currently store in $recruiter. Thanks in advance.

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  • Ruby on Rails: custom instance creation failing at redirect

    - by Jack
    I am at an absolute loss as to what I am doing wrong with the following code. I am trying to implement a messaging system within my application, but want it to be handle different types of messages. In this case, I want to create a "request" message of ':message_type = 1'. Instead of using forms as I usually have, I want to make this instance the moment the link is clicked. Here is how I have it set up in the show erb file for "user": <%=link_to "Send friend request", :action=>"request", :controller => "messages", :id => @user.id %> and in the controller: def request @message = Message.new(:sender_id => current_user.id,:user_id => params[:id],:message_type => 1) if @message.save flash[:notice] = 'Message was successfully created.' redirect_to message_path(@message) else redirect_to message_path(@message) end end This results in the following error message: undefined method `rewrite' for nil:NilClass with the trace looking like c:/ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/whiny_nil.rb:52:in `method_missing' c:/ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.5/lib/action_controller/base.rb:634:in `url_for' (eval):16:in `message_path' app/controllers/messages_controller.rb:11:in `request' I have used map.resources :messages in the routes.rb file, and done the appropriate :has_many and :belongs_to associations in the models of user and message.

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  • Type contraint problem of C#

    - by user351565
    I meet a problem about type contraint of c# now. I wrote a pair of methods that can convert object to string and convert string to object. ex. static string ConvertToString(Type type, object val) { if (type == typeof(string)) return (string)val; if (type == typeof(int)) return val.ToString(); if (type.InSubclassOf(typeof(CodeObject))) return ((CodeObject)val).Code; } static T ConvertToObject<T>(string str) { Type type = typeof(T); if (type == typeof(string)) return (T)(object)val; if (type == typeof(int)) return (T)(object)int.Parse(val); if (type.InSubclassOf(typeof(CodeObject))) return Codes.Get<T>(val); } where CodeObject is a base class of Employees, Offices ..., which can fetch by static method Godes.Get where T: CodeObject but the code above cannot be compiled because error #CS0314 the generic type T of method ConvertToObject have no any constraint but Codes.Get request T must be subclass of CodeObject i tried use overloading to solve the problem but not ok. is there any way to clear up the problem? like reflection?

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  • destructor being called by subclass

    - by zero
    I'm currently learning more about php objects and constructors/destructors, but i've noticed in my code that the parent class's destructor is being called twice, I thought it was because i was extending the first class to my second class and that the second class was calling it, but this is what the php docs say about that: Like constructors, parent destructors will not be called implicitly by the engine. In order to run a parent destructor, one would have to explicitly call parent::__destruct() in the destructor body. so if it is not being called by the subclass then is it because by extended the first class that i've made a reference to the parent class making it call itself twice or I'm I way off base here? the code: <?php class test{ public $test1 = "this is a test of a pulic property"; private $test2 = "this is a test of a private property"; protected $test3 = "this is a test of a protected property"; const hello = 900000; function __construct($h){ //echo 'this is the constructor test '.$h; } function x($x2){ echo ' this is fn x'.$x2; } function y(){ print "this is fn y"; } } $obj = new test("this is an \"arg\" sent to instance of test"); class hey extends test{ function hey(){ $this->x('<br>from the host with the most'); echo ' <br>from hey class'.$this->test3; } } $obj2 = new hey(); echo $obj2::hello; ?>

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  • ASP.Net MVC and Windows 7 404 error

    - by Paul Rivers
    O.K. Stupid question..... I sepnt nearly a day getting an MVC site working, and then I published it. After that, the hell began. I'm using Windows 7, Visual Studio 2008 and MVC. I published it and first the Default.aspx wouldn't come up. I gave up on playing with that for a few and just did the easy thing a typed in default.aspx. I'll fix that problem later. So, I clicked on one of my navigation buttons which prior to this worked just fine in the internal development IIS, and I get a 404 error. I spent two days surfing the Microsoft support forums and every other support forum I can find. No fix. So, I tried something a little different. Just to see if I screwed up. I created a new TestMVC application. Set the output to a website on the local IIS. Compiled and after typing in the default.aspx (it was set as the startup file in the project) I then clicked on the About button on the base MVC application. And what do I get? 404. I know this is new, folks, but this is crazy. What is it about this process that would take this much effort to get it right, especially since it works on the test server.

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  • implementation musical instrument using audio unit

    - by Develop.Kim
    post same question at apple developer forum ,too hi first sorry that my english is poor.. i want develop iphone application that playing musical instrument like 'ocarina' but don't need blow mic features. so first i tried to find that how implementation 'virtual musical instrument ' in iphone development. the during the decide implementation using 'Audio Unit' to report this article (link) so i want two kind of questions. i recognize that the 'musical instrument' can be divided into three sound that 'attack', 'sustain' , 'release'. 'decay' maybe included (link) . How implementation when audio unit base 'AUInstrumentBase' each sound ? i download sample 'SinSynth' (link) . i want play note this instrument unit for analyze source and study. Is there way to using AULab? expected the way using MIDI input . but i don't have MIDI. in addition, i wonder that i would think it right the way. to ask the advice... thank for reading poor english my article.

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  • Is it OK to set state within Event Raising methods?

    - by Greg
    I ran across this pattern in the code of a library I'm using. It sets state within the event raising method, but only if the event is not null. protected virtual void OnMyEvent(EventArgs e) { if(MyEvent != null) { State = "Executing"; // Only sets state if MyEvent != null. MyEvent(this,e); } } Which means that the state is not set when overriding the method: protected override void OnMyEvent(EventArgs e) { base.OnMyEvent(e); Debug.Assert( State == "Executing" ); // This fails } but is only set when handling the event: foo.MyEvent += (o, args) => Debug.Assert(State == "Executing"); // This passes Setting state within the if(MyEvent != null) seems like bad form, but I've checked the Event Design Guidelines and it doesn't mention this. Do you think this code is incorrect? If so, why? (Reference to design guidelines would be helpful). Edit for Context: It's a Control, I'm trying to create subclass of it, and the state that it's setting is calling EnsureChildControls() conditionally based upon there being an event handler. I can call EnsureChildControls() myself, but I consider that something of a hack.

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  • Saving an ActiveRecord non-transactionally.

    - by theFunkyEngineer
    My application accepts file uploads, with some metadata being stored in the DB, and the file itself on the file system. I am trying to make the metadata visible in the application before the file upload and post-processing are finished, but because saves are transactional, I have had no success. I have tried the callbacks and calling create_or_update() instead of save(), all to no avail. Is there a way to do this without re-writing the guts of ActiveRecord::Base? I've even attempted naming the method make() instead of save(), but perplexingly that had no effect. The code below "works" fine, but the database is not modified until everything else is finished. def save(upload) uploadFile = upload['datafile'] originalName = uploadFile.original_filename self.fileType = File.extname(originalName) create_or_update() # write the file File.open(self.filePath, "wb") { |f| f.write(uploadFile.read) } begin musicFile = TagLib::File.new(self.filePath()) self.id3Title = musicFile.title self.id3Artist = musicFile.artist self.id3Length = musicFile.length rescue TagLib::BadFile => exc logger.error("Failed to id track: \n #{exc}") end if(self.fileType == '.mp3') convertToOGG(); end create_or_update() end Any ideas would be quite welcome, thanks.

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  • Entity framework 4.0 compiled query with Where() clause issue

    - by Andrey Salnikov
    Hello, I encountered with some strange behavior of System.Data.Objects.CompiledQuery.Compile function - here is my code for compile simple query: private static readonly Func<DataContext, long, Product> productQuery = CompiledQuery.Compile((DataContext ctx, long id) => ctx.Entities.OfType<Data.Product>().Where(p => p.Id == id) .Select(p=>new Product{Id = p.Id}).SingleOrDefault()); where DataContext inherited from ObjectContext and Product is a projection of POCO Data.Product class. My data context in first run contains Data.Product {Id == 1L} and in second Data.Product {Id == 2L}. First using of compilled query productQuery(dataContext, 1L) works perfect - in result I have Product {Id == 1L} but second run productQuery(dataContext, 2L) always returns null, instead of context in second run contains single product with id == 2L. If I remove Where clause I will get correct product (with id == 2L). It seems that first id value caching while first run of productQuery, and therefore all further calls valid only when dataContext contains Data.Product {id==1L}. This issue can't be reproduced if I've used direct query instead of its precompiled version. Also, all tests I've performed on test mdf base using SQL Server 2008 express and Visual studio 2010 final from my ASP.net application.

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  • HLSL - Combining textures

    - by b34r
    Hi All, I'm trying to combine two textures in HLSL - specifically, I want to take the alpha values from a base image, and the color data from an overlay image. My pixel shader for this looks like this: float4 PixelShaderFunction(VertexOut input) : COLOR0 { float4 baseColor = tex2D( BaseSampler, input.baseCoords.xy ).rgba; float4 overlayColor = tex2D( OverlaySampler, input.overlayCoords.xy ).rgba; float4 color; color.r = overlayColor.r; color.g = overlayColor.g; color.b = overlayColor.b; color.a = baseColor.a; return color.rgba; } and my blend state looks like this: BlendState bs = new BlendState(); bs.AlphaSourceBlend = Blend.SourceAlpha; bs.AlphaDestinationBlend = Blend.DestinationAlpha; bs.ColorSourceBlend = Blend.SourceColor; bs.ColorDestinationBlend = Blend.DestinationColor; What this leaves me with is a washed out version of what should be the overlay color. I've tried numerous permutations of the BlendState settings, and played with the pixel shader math quite a bit, but to no avail. Can anyone point me in the right direction? Thanks in advance =)

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  • Android 2.1 gallery not backward compatible with Cupcake version, now what?

    - by Schermvlieger
    I don't know why, but in Eclair, the default (non-fancy) gallery app changed its begaviour from the Cupcake version, and it broke one of my commercial applications :-( Firstly, when long-pressing a gallery and choosing "Diashow", it does not publish an Intent to be picked up by any application that implements the Intent filter anymore. Instead, it will directly call "com.android.gallery/com.android.camera.ViewImage" with extras. Question: is it still possible to intercept this intent and allow the user to choose my application to do the Diashow? Secondly, the intent extras for the VIEW intent are messed up (in my build of 2.1 anyway): Instead of providing the BucketId of the picture in the Intent's queryparameter. But in 2.1, the BucketId is moved to the Intent's extras. Except; it is not passing the BUCKET_ID, but the unlocalized BUCKET_DISPLAY_NAME instead :-/ Question: how can I still get the unique BUCKET_ID from the intent, so that I do not have to work with a potentially non-unique BUCKET_DISPLAY_NAME? Is there anybody out there who has come up with a working solution for these problems? I thought the whole idea of Android Intents was to be able to integrate your applications with the base Android environment, but my build of 2.1 proves that this idea still lives in the land of Theory :-(

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  • Adding functions to Java class libraries

    - by Eric
    I'm using a Java class library that is in many ways incomplete: there are many classes that I feel ought to have additional member functions built in. However, I am unsure of the best practice of adding these member functions. Lets call the insufficient base class A. class A { public A(/*long arbitrary arguments*/) { //... } public A(/*long even more arbitrary arguments*/) { //... } public int func() { return 1; } } Ideally, I would like to add a function to A. However, I can't do that. My choice is between: class B extends A { //Implement ALL of A's constructors here public int reallyUsefulFunction() { return func()+1; } } and class AddedFuncs { public int reallyUsefulFunction(A a) { return a.func()+1; } } The way I see it, they both have advantages and disadvantages. The first choice gives a cleaner syntax than the second, and is more logical, but has problems: Let's say I have a third class, C, within the class library. class C { public A func() { return new A(/*...*/); } } As I see it, there is no easy way of doing this: C c; int useful = c.func().reallyUsefulFunction(); as the type returned by C.func() is an A, not a B, and you can't down-cast. So what is the best way of adding a member function to a read-only library class?

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  • Why can't I create an abstract constructor on an abstract C# class?

    - by Anthony D
    I am creating an abstract class. I want each of my derived classes to be forced to implement a specific signature of constructor. As such, I did what I would have done has I wanted to force them to implement a method, I made an abstract one. public abstract class A { abstract A(int a, int b); } However I get a message saying the abstract modifier is invalid on this item. My goal was to force some code like this. public class B : A { public B(int a, int b) : base(a, b) { //Some other awesome code. } } This is all C# .NET code. Can anyone help me out? Update 1 I wanted to add some things. What I ended up with was this. private A() { } protected A(int a, int b) { //Code } That does what some folks are saying, default is private, and the class needs to implement a constructor. However that doesn't FORCE a constructor with the signature A(int a, int b). public abstract class A { protected abstract A(int a, int b) { } } Update 2 I should be clear, to work around this I made my default constructor private, and my other constructor protected. I am not really looking for a way to make my code work. I took care of that. I am looking to understand why C# does not let you do this.

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  • Windows Form UserControl design time properties

    - by Raffaeu
    I am struggling with a UserControl. I have a UserControl that represent a Pager and it has a Presenter object property exposed in this way: [Browsable(false)] [DesignSerializationAttribute(DesignSerializationAttribute.Hidden)] public object Presenter { get; set; } The code itself works as I can drag and drop a control into a Windows From without having Visual Studio initializing this property. Now, because in the Load event of this control I call a method of the Presenter that at run-time is null ... I have introduced this additional code: public override void OnLoad(...) { if (this.DesignMode) { base.OnLoad(e); return; } presenter.OnViewReady(); } Now, every time I open a Window that contains this UserControl, Visual Studio modifies the Windows designer code. So, as soon as I open it, VS ask me if I want to save it ... and of course, if I add a control to the Window, it doesn't keep the changes ... As soon as I remove the UserControl Pager the problem disappears ... How should I tackle that in the proper way? I just don't want that the presenter property is initialized at design time as it is injected at runtime ...

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  • How is an array stored in memory?

    - by George
    In an interest to delve deeper into how memory is allocated and stored, I have written an application that can scan memory address space, find a value, and write out a new value. I developed a sample application with the end goal to be able to programatically locate my array, and overwrite it with a new sequence of numbers. In this situation, I created a single dimensional array, with 5 elements, e.g. int[] array = new int[] {8,7,6,5,4}; I ran my application and searched for a sequence of the five numbers above. I was looking for any value that fell between 4 and 8, for a total of 5 numbers in a row. Unforuntately, my the sequential numbers in my array matched hundreds of results, as the numbers 4 through 8, in no particular sequence happened to be next to each other, in memory, in many situations. Is there any way to distinguish that a set of numbers within memory, represents an array, not simply integers that are next to each other? Is there any way of knowing that if I find a certain value, that the matching values proceeding it are that of an array? I would assume that when I declare int[] array, its pointing at the first address of my array, which would provide some kind of meta-data to what existed in the array, e.g. 0x123456789 meta-data, 5 - 32 bit integers 0x123456789 + 32 "8" 0x123456789 + 64 "7" 0x123456789 + 96 "6" 0x123456789 + 128 "5" 0x123456789 + 160 "4" Am I way off base?

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  • Generating HTML Programmatically in C#, Targeting Printed Reports

    - by John Passaniti
    I've taken over a C# (2.0) code base that has the ability to print information. The code to do this is insanely tedious. Elements are drawn onto each page, with magic constants representing positioning. I imagine the programmer sitting with a ruler, designing each page by measuring and typing in the positions. And yes, one could certainly come up with some nice abstractions to make this approach rational. But I am looking at a different method. The idea is that I'll replace the current code that prints with code that generates static HTML pages, saves them to a file, and then launches the web browser on that file. The most obvious benefit is that I don't have to deal with formatting-- I can let the web browser do that for me with tags and CSS. So what I am looking for is a very lightweight set of classes that I can use to help generate HTML. I don't need anything as heavyweight as HTMLTextWriter. What I'm looking for is something to avoid fragments like this: String.Format("<tr><td>{0}</td><td>{1}</td></tr>", foo, bar); And instead take have this kind of feel: ... table(). tr(). td(foo). td(bar) Or something like that. I've seen lightweight classes like that for other languages but can't find the equivalent (or better) for C#. I can certainly write it myself, but I'm a firm believer in not reinventing wheels. Know anything like this? Know anything better than this?

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  • Rails: update_attribute vs update_attributes

    - by Sam
    Object.update_attribute(:only_one_field, "Some Value") Object.update_attributes(:field1 => "value", :field2 => "value2", :field3 => "value3") Both of these will update an object without having to explicitly tell AR to update. Rails API says: for update_attribute Updates a single attribute and saves the record without going through the normal validation procedure. This is especially useful for boolean flags on existing records. The regular update_attribute method in Base is replaced with this when the validations module is mixed in, which it is by default. for update_attributes Updates all the attributes from the passed-in Hash and saves the record. If the object is invalid, the saving will fail and false will be returned. So if I don't want to have the object validated I should use update_attribute. What if I have this update on a before_save, will it stackoverflow? My question is does update_attribute also bypass the before save or just the validation. Also, what is the correct syntax to pass a hash to update_attributes... check out my example at the top.

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  • WPF Databinding With A Collection Object

    - by Randster
    Argh, although I've been googling, I really would appreciate it if someone could break my problem down as all the code examples online are confusing me more than assisting (perhaps it's just late)... I have a simple class as defined below: public class Person { int _id; string _name; public Person() { } public int ID { get { return _id; } set { _id = value; } } public string Name { get { return _name; } set { _name = value; } } } that is stored in a database, and thru a bit more code I put it into an ObservableCollection object to attempt to databind in WPF later on: public class People : ObservableCollection<Person> { public People() : base() { } public void Add(List<Person> pListOfPeople) { foreach (Person p in pListOfPeople) this.Add(p); } } In XAML, I have myself a ListView that I would like to populate a ListViewItem (consisting of a textblock) for each item in the "People" object as it gets updated from the database. I would also like that textblock to bind to the "Name" property of the Person object. I thought at first that I could do this: lstPeople.DataContext = objPeople; where lstPeople is my ListView control in my XAML, but that of course does nothing. I've found TONS of examples online where people through XAML create an object and then bind to it through their XAML; but not one where we bind to an instantiated object and re-draw accordingly. Could someone please give me a few pointers on: A) How to bind a ListView control to my instantiated "People" collection object? B) How might I apply a template to my ListView to format it for the objects in the collection? Even links to a decent example (not one operating on an object declared in XAML please) would be appreciated. Thanks for your time.

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  • Using same log4j logger in standalone java application

    - by ktaylorjohn
    I have some code which is a standalone java application comprising of 30+ classes. Most of these inherit from some other base classes. Each and every class has this method to get and use a log4j logger public static Logger getLogger() { if (logger != null) return logger; try { PropertyUtil propUtil = PropertyUtil.getInstance("app-log.properties"); if (propUtil != null && propUtil.getProperties() != null) PropertyConfigurator.configure(propUtil.getProperties ()); logger = Logger.getLogger(ExtractData.class); return logger; } catch (Exception exception) { exception.printStackTrace(); } } A) My question is whether this should be refactored to some common logger which is initialized once and used across by all classes? Is that a better practice? B) If yes, how can this be done ? How can I pass the logger around ? C) This is actually being used in the code not as Logger.debug() but getLogger().debug(). What is the impact of this in terms of performance?

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  • VB.NET Button Issue

    - by Michael
    I am having problem with a button the code of my button is. Private Sub btnCalculateCosts_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnCalculateCosts.Click it handles: ' This Calculate Costs button click event handler edits the ' registration(costs) form to ensure it contains valid data. ' Then, after passing control to the business class, it ' displays the registration cost. Dim objCourse As Course Dim objCourseCostsFile As Course Dim InputError As Boolean = False ' Is student ID entered properly If Me.txtCorporateID.MaskFull = False Then MessageBox.Show("Enter your Corporate ID in the Corporate ID box", _ "Error") Me.txtCorporateID.Clear() Me.txtCorporateID.Focus() InputError = True ' Is student name entered properly ElseIf Me.txtFirstName.TextLength < 1 Or _ Me.txtFirstName.Text < "A" Then MessageBox.Show("Please enter your first name in the First Name box", "Error") Me.txtFirstName.Clear() Me.txtFirstName.Focus() InputError = True ' Is number of units entered properly ElseIf Me.txtLastName.TextLength < 1 Or _ Me.txtLastName.Text < "A" Then MessageBox.Show("Please enter your last name in the Last Name box", "Error") Me.txtLastName.Clear() Me.txtLastName.Focus() InputError = True ' Is number of units entered properly ElseIf Not IsNumeric(Me.txtNumberOfDays.Text) Then MessageBox.Show("Enter the units in the Number of Units box", _ "Error") Me.txtNumberOfDays.Clear() Me.txtNumberOfDays.Focus() InputError = True ' Has 1-4 units been entered ElseIf Convert.ToInt32(Me.txtNumberOfDays.Text) < 1 _ Or Convert.ToInt32(Me.txtNumberOfDays.Text) > 4 Then MessageBox.Show("Units must be 1 - 4", "Error") Me.txtNumberOfDays.Clear() Me.txtNumberOfDays.Focus() InputError = True End If ' If no input error, process the registration costs If Not InputError Then If Me.radPreConferenceCourse.Checked = False Then objCourse = New Course(txtCorporateID.Text, txtFirstName.Text, txtLastName.Text, txtNumberOfDays.Text) Me.lblCosts.Visible = True Me.lblCosts.Text = "Total Conference Costs Are: " _ & (objCourse.ComputeCosts()).ToString("C2") Else objCourse = New Course(txtCorporateID.Text, txtFirstName.Text, txtLastName.Text, txtNumberOfDays.Text, g) Me.lblCosts.Visible = True Me.lblCosts.Text = "Total Conference Costs Are: " _ & (objCourse.ComputeCosts()).ToString("C2") Receiving the error: Handles clause requrieres a WithEvents variable defined in the containing type or one of its base types.

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  • Do I need to echo html inside included php file

    - by UmeRonaldo
    I just learned how to include php .Here's the index or main php file <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> </head> <body> <?php include 'header.php'; ?> </body> </html> now in header.php file which way is better to print html Way 1 directly use html without php <header> <h1>Header</h1> </header> Way 2 Using php and echo <?php echo ' <header> <h1>Header</h1> </header> ' ?> Another quick question. Will it work if I use .html for the base or index file ?? sorry for my bad english

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  • Domain model for an online WYSYWG webpage generator / runtime

    - by CharlieBrown
    Hi all, I'm using C#, MVC, NHibernate and StructureMap as my IoC container, and need some ideas regarding my domain model. The application I'm working has two parts: an Authoring part and a Runtime part. The idea is to allow the user to create a webpage in Authoring (mostly a form actually) by choosing from a set of predefined controls. That webpage will be later used as a form in a call center environment (Runtime part), or may be used in an intranet portal, etc. Basically something similar to what a CMS would do. The difference is, of course, that the webpage/form the author generates will be used and fulfilled in runtime, and that authros should be able to freely create the webpage they want without limitations. I have a draft working model that allows a RunController to iterate over the ScriptPage (my class for the "generated webpage") Controls collection and uses partial views to render each of them. Works kind of fine. Basically I have a common ScriptControl class, and then I can create for example a TextInputControl or a DropDownControl by inheriting from that base class. I can also figure out the Authoring part of the app, although that will surely be fun in itself for sure. :) The biggest problem I have now is persistance. In order to be flexible, I want to be able to add more controls, and template controls (think of an Address composite control) in sepparate DLLs, so I think having a relational model that handles very possible control is not the way to go. My current thinking is using a kind of ObjectStore: binary-serializing the ScriptPage object that contains the List collection and deserializing at Runtime, but I'm not sure how good will it work with NHibernate and how good the performance will be. Serializing a small "page" with 10 controls results in 7964 bytes, for example. Any ideas out there? Thanks in advance, excuse the length. ;)

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  • How to implement the disposable pattern in a class that inherits from another disposable class?

    - by TheRHCP
    Hi, I often used the disposable pattern in simple classes that referenced small amount of resources, but I never had to implement this pattern on a class that inherits from another disposable class and I am starting to be a bit confused in how to free the whole resources. I start with a little sample code: public class Tracer : IDisposable { bool disposed; FileStream fileStream; public Tracer() { //Some fileStream initialization } public void Dispose() { this.Dispose(true); GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } protected virtual void Dispose(bool disposing) { if (!disposed) { if (disposing) { if (fileStream != null) { fileStream.Dispose(); } } disposed = true; } } } public class ServiceWrapper : Tracer { bool disposed; ServiceHost serviceHost; //Some properties public ServiceWrapper () { //Some serviceHost initialization } //protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) //{ // if (!disposed) // { // if (disposing) // { // if (serviceHost != null) // { // serviceHost.Close(); // } // } // disposed = true; // } //} } My real question is: how to implement the disposable pattern inside my ServiceWrapper class to be sure that when I will dispose an instance of it, it will dispose resources in both inherited and base class? Thanks.

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