Search Results

Search found 12562 results on 503 pages for 'secure delete'.

Page 437/503 | < Previous Page | 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444  | Next Page >

• template files in python

  - by saminny

  I am trying to use python for translating a set of templates to a set of configuration files based on values taken from a main configuration file. However, I am having certain issues. Consider the following example of a template file. file1.cfg.template %(CLIENT1)s %(HOST1)s %(PORT1)d C %(COMPID1)s %(CLIENT2)s %(HOST2)s %(PORT2)d C %(COMPID2)s This file contains an entry for each client. There are hundreds of config files like this and I don't want to have logic for each type of config file. Python should do the replacements and generate config files automatically given a set of global values read from a main xml config file. However, in the above example, if CLIENT2 does not exist, how do I delete that line? I expect Python would generate the config file using the following simple code: os.open("file1.cfg.template").read() & myhash where myhash is hash of all configuration parameters which may not contain CLIENT2 at all. In the case it does not contain CLIENT2, I want that line to disappear from the file. Is it possible to insert some 'IF' block in the file and have python evaluate it? Thanks for your help. Any suggestions most welcome.

  Read the article

• css style remains after click

  - by rod

  Hi All, I have a simple test page with a single styled button. I'm using a:hover when you hover over the button. However, when you click the button the a:hover style remains until I click on something else. How would I fix this and why is this happening? Thanks, rod. <asp:Content ID="indexContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% using (Ajax.BeginForm(new AjaxOptions { })) { %> <div id="detailActions"> <a href="#">Delete User</a> </div> <% } %> </asp:Content> My CSS: #detailActions { margin-bottom: 7px; padding: 3px 0px 5px 0px; } #detailActions { padding: 1px 7px 1px 7px; margin: 0px 5px 0px 0px; border: solid 1px gray; background-color: #ADD8E6; cursor: pointer; width: auto !important; font-weight: bold; text-decoration: none; color: #003366; font-size: 1.2em; } #detailActions a:hover, #detailActions a:active, #detailActions a:focus { color: White; background-color: #00008B; }

  Read the article

• Hibernate not saving foreign key, but with junit it's ok

  - by Leonardo

  Hi All, I have this strange problem. In a J2ee webapp with spring, smartgwt and hibernate, it happens that I have a class A wich has a set of class B, both of them mapped to table A and table B. I wrote a simple test case for testing the service manager which is supposed to do insert, update, delete and everything work as expected especially during insert. In the end I have one record in A and records in B with foreign key to A. But when I try to call the service from the web app, the entity in B are saved without a foreign key reference. I am sure that the service is the same. One thing I noticed is that enabling hibernate logging, seems that when the service is called from the application, one more update is made: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) update A <--- ??? update B <--- ??? Instead, when junit test case is run, the update is as follows: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) I suppose the latest update is what is causing the erroe, maybe it is overwriting values. Considering that the app is using spring, with the well known mechanism of DAO + Manager, where can I investigate to solve this issue ? Someone told me that the session is not closed, so hibernate would do one more update before release the objects by itself. I am pretty sure that all the configuration hbm, xml, and the rest are fine...but I maybe wrong. thanks

  Read the article

• Change IE user agent

  - by Ahmed

  I'm using WatiN to automate Internet Explorer, and so far it's been great. However, I would really like to be able to change the user agent of IE so the server thinks it's actually Firefox or some other browser. A Firefox useragent string look something like: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.2.13) Gecko/20101203 Firefox/3.6.13 With the following code RegistryKey ieKey = Registry.LocalMachine.CreateSubKey(@"SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Internet Settings\5.0\User Agent"); ieKey.SetValue("", "Mozilla/5.0"); ieKey.SetValue("Compatible", "Windows"); ieKey.SetValue("Version", "U"); ieKey.SetValue("Platform", "Windows NT 5.1; en-US"); ieKey.DeleteSubKeyTree("Post Platform"); I have been able to change the IE useragent string from Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/4.0; AskTbMP3R7/5.9.1.14019) to Mozilla/4.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/4.0; en-US; rv:1.9.2.13) Now, the question: how do I delete the Trident/4.0 part and add the "Gecko/20101203 Firefox/3.6.13" part after the parentheses? I would really like to do this programatically in C#, without using any IE add-ons. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: not working from scrollViewDidZoom

  - by oldbeamer

  Hi all, I feel like I should know this but I've been stumped for hours now and I've run out of ideas. The theory is simple, the user manipulates the zoom and positioning in a scrollview using a pinch. If they hold that pinch for a short period of time then the scrollview records the zoom level and content offsets. So I thought I'd start a performSelector:withObject:withDelay on the scrollViewDidZoom delegate method. If it expires then I record the settings. I delete the scheduled call every time scrollViewDidZoom is called and when the pinch gesture finishes. This is what I have: - (void)scrollViewDidZoom:(UIScrollView *)scrollView{ NSLog(@"resetting timer"); [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(positionLock) object:nil]; [self performSelector:@selector(positionLock) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.4]; } -(void)positionLock{ NSLog(@"position locked "); } - (void)scrollViewDidEndZooming:(UIScrollView *)scrollView withView:(UIView *)view atScale:(float)scale{ NSLog(@"deleting timer"); [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(positionLock) object:nil]; } This is the output: 2010-05-19 22:43:01.931 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:01.964 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.231 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.253 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.269 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.298 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:05.399 deleting timer As you can see the delay between the last and second last events should have been more than enough for the delayed selector call to execute. If I replace performSelector:withObject:withDelay with plain old performSelector: I get this: 2010-05-19 23:08:30.333 resetting timer 2010-05-19 23:08:30.333 position locked 2010-05-19 23:08:30.366 resetting timer 2010-05-19 23:08:30.367 position locked 2010-05-19 23:08:30.688 deleting timer Which isn't what I want but serves to show that it's only the delay that's causing it to not function, not something to do with the selector not being declared in the header, being misspelt or any other reason. Any ideas as to why it's not working?

  Read the article

• how to implement enhanced session handling in PHP

  - by praksant

  Hi, i'm working with sessions in PHP, and i have different applications on single domain. Problem is, that cookies are domain specific, and so session ids are sent to any page on single domain. (i don't know if there is a way to make cookies work in different way). So Session variables are visible in every page on this domain. I'm trying to implement custom session manager to overcome this behavior, but i'm not sure if i'm thinking about it right. I want to completely avoid PHP session system, and make a global object, which would store session data and on the end of script save it to database. On first access i would generate unique session_id and create a cookie On the end of script save session data with session_id, timestamps for start of session and last access, and data from $_SERVER, such as REMOTE_ADDR, REMOTE_PORT, HTTP_USER_AGENT. On every access chceck database for session_id sent in cookie from client, check IP, Port and user agent (for security) and read data into session variable (if not expired). If session_id expired, delete from database. That session variable would be implemented as singleton (i know i would get tight coupling with this class, but i don't know about better solution). I'm trying to get following benefits: Session variables invisible in another scripts on the same server and same domain Custom management of session expiration Way to see open sessions (something like list of online users) i'm not sure if i'm overlooking any disadvantages of this solution. Is there any better way? Thank you!!

  Read the article

• Facebook JS API: users_getInfo() inside ifUserConnected() deadlock.

  - by serg555

  I am trying to put Facebook connect button on the site and once connected display connected username. But for some reason following code goes into some infinite loop during first connection, and then works fine unless I delete this app from my facebook profile which causes freezing again. Here is a code on FB connect button click: FB.Connect.requireSession(); Here is code directly on the page: <script src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php/en_US" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> FB.init("123", "/xd_receiver.htm"); FB.ensureInit(function() { FB.Connect.ifUserConnected(function() { FB.Facebook.apiClient.users_getInfo(new Array(FB.Connect.get_loggedInUser()),new Array("name"), function(user, exec) { console.log("logged in:"+user[0].name); }); }, function(){ console.log("guest"); }); }); </script> If I remove FB.Facebook.apiClient.users_getInfo() it works fine, but I need to get username somehow. Any tips? Thanks.

  Read the article

• How to update maven local repository with newer artifacts from a remote repository?

  - by Richard

  My maven module A has a dependency on another maven module B provided by other people. When I run "mvn install" under A for the first time, maven downloads B-1.0.jar from a remote repository to my local maven repository. My module A builds fine. In the mean time, other people are deploying newer B-1.0.jar to the remote repository. When I run "mvn install" under A again, maven does not download the newer B-1.0.jar from the remote repository to my local repository. As a result, my module A build fails due to API changes in B-1.0.jar. I could manually delete B-1.0.jar from my local repository. Then maven would download the latest B-1.0.jar from the remote repository the next time when I run "mvn install". My question is how I can automatically let maven download the latest artifacts from a remote repository. I tried to set updatePolicy to "always". But that did not do the trick.

  Read the article

• How to Specify Columntype in fluent nHibernate?

  - by Bipul

  I have a class CaptionItem public class CaptionItem { public virtual int SystemId { get; set; } public virtual int Version { get; set; } protected internal virtual IDictionary<string, string> CaptionValues {get; private set;} } I am using following code for nHibernate mapping Id(x => x.SystemId); Version(x => x.Version); Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany(x => x.CaptionValues) .KeyColumn("CaptionItem_Id") .AsMap<string>(idx => idx.Column("CaptionSet_Name"), elem => elem.Column("Text")) .Not.LazyLoad() .Cascade.Delete() .Table("CaptionValue") .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); So in database two tables get created. One CaptionValue and other CaptionItem. In CaptionItem table has three columns 1. CaptionItem_Id int 2. Text nvarchar(255) 3. CaptionSet_Name nvarchar(255) Now, my question is how can I make the columnt type of Text to nvarchar(max)? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Move file or folder to a different folder in google document using api problem

  - by Minh Nguyen

  In Google Document i have a struct: Folder1 +------Folder1-1 +------+------File1-1-1 +------Folder1-2 +------File1-1 Folder2 I want to move "File1-1" to "Folder2" using .Net google api library(Google Data API SDK) public static void moveFolder(string szUserName, string szPassword, string szResouceID, string szToFolderResourceID) { string szSouceUrl = "https://docs.google.com/feeds/default/private/full" + "/" + HttpContext.Current.Server.UrlEncode(szResouceID); Uri sourceUri = new Uri(szSouceUrl); //create a atom entry AtomEntry atom = new AtomEntry(); atom.Id = new AtomId(szSouceUrl); string szTargetUrl = "http://docs.google.com/feeds/default/private/full/folder%3Aroot/contents/"; if (szToFolderResourceID != "") { szTargetUrl = "https://docs.google.com/feeds/default/private/full" + "/" + HttpContext.Current.Server.UrlEncode(szToFolderResourceID) + "/contents" ; } Uri targetUri = new Uri(szTargetUrl); DocumentsService service = new DocumentsService(SERVICENAME); ((GDataRequestFactory)service.RequestFactory).KeepAlive = false; service.setUserCredentials(szUserName, szPassword); service.EntrySend(targetUri, atom, GDataRequestType.Insert); } After run this function i have: Folder1 +------Folder1-1 +------+------File1-1-1 +------Folder1-2 +------File1-1 Folder2 +------File1-1 "File1-1" display in both "Folder1" and "Folder2", and when i delete it from a folder it will be deleted in another folder. (expect: "File1-1" display only in "Folder2") What happen? How can i solve this problem?

  Read the article

• Writing a VM - well formed bytecode?

  - by David Titarenco

  Hi, I'm writing a virtual machine in C just for fun. Lame, I know, but luckily I'm on SO so hopefully no one will make fun :) I wrote a really quick'n'dirty VM that reads lines of (my own) ASM and does stuff. Right now, I only have 3 instructions: add, jmp, end. All is well and it's actually pretty cool being able to feed lines (doing it something like write_line(&prog[1], "jmp", regA, regB, 0); and then running the program: while (machine.code_pointer <= BOUNDS && DONE != true) { run_line(&prog[machine.cp]); } I'm using an opcode lookup table (which may not be efficient but it's elegant) in C and everything seems to be working OK. My question is more of a "best practices" question but I do think there's a correct answer to it. I'm making the VM able to read binary files (storing bytes in unsigned char[]) and execute bytecode. My question is: is it the VM's job to make sure the bytecode is well formed or is it just the compiler's job to make sure the binary file it spits out is well formed? I only ask this because what would happen if someone would edit a binary file and screw stuff up (delete arbitrary parts of it, etc). Clearly, the program would be buggy and probably not functional. Is this even the VM's problem? I'm sure that people much smarter than me have figured out solutions to these problems, I'm just curious what they are!

  Read the article

• C++ Program Flow: Sockets in an Object and the Main Function

  - by jfm429

  I have a rather tricky problem regarding C++ program flow using sockets. Basically what I have is this: a simple command-line socket server program that listens on a socket and accepts one connection at a time. When that connection is lost it opens up for further connections. That socket communication system is contained in a class. The class is fully capable of receiving the connections and mirroring the data received to the client. However, the class uses UNIX sockets, which are not object-oriented. My problem is that in my main() function, I have one line - the one that creates an instance of that object. The object then initializes and waits. But as soon as a connection is gained, the object's initialization function returns, and when that happens, the program quits. How do I somehow wait until this object is deleted before the program quits? Summary: main() creates instance of object Object listens Connection received Object's initialization function returns main() exits (!) What I want is for main() to somehow delay until that object is finished with what it's doing (aka it will delete itself) before it quits. Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• Generated HTML word document not displaying image correctly

  - by spiderdijon

  I'm trying to add an image to a generated html word document that is embedded in a classic ASP page. The code looks something like this: <% Response.ContentType = "application/msword" %> <html xmlns:v="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:vml" xmlns:o="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:office" xmlns:w="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:word"> ... <v:shape id="_x0000_s1030" type="#_x0000_t75" style='position:absolute; left:0;text-align:left;margin-left:0;margin-top:17.95pt;width:7in;height:116.85pt; z-index:2;mso-position-horizontal:center;mso-position-horizontal-relative:page; mso-position-vertical-relative:page'> <v:imagedata src="http://xxx/image001.gif" o:title="image001"/> <w:wrap anchorx="page" anchory="page"/> <w:anchorlock/> </v:shape><![endif]--><![if !vml]><span style='mso-ignore:vglayout;position: absolute;z-index:0;left:0px;margin-left:0px;margin-top:24px;width:672px; height:156px'><img width=672 height=156 src="http://xxx/image001.gif" v:shapes="_x0000_s1030"></span><![endif]> The image URL is correct and can be viewed through a browser, however when the word document opens, the image has a red x, with the error message: The image cannot be displayed. Your computer may not have enough memory to open the image, or the image may be corrupted. Restart your computer, and then open the file again. If the red x still appears, you may have to delete the image and then insert it again. If i copy the html code and try to open the word document on my local machine, it displays the image correctly. It just doesn't work when retrieving the document from the server. This happens for any images I try to add. Is there another way to add images to html-generated word documents that can be output from an asp page? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Get location of element you just pushed into vector C++

  - by Satchmo Brown

  I am curious about how pushing back into a vector works. I want a way to push back an element and then be able to add it's location in the vector to a double array serving as a type of map. Something like this: // Create a bomb Bomb b; b.currentTime = SDL_GetTicks(); b.explodeTime = SDL_GetTicks() + 3000; b.owner = player; b.power = 2; b.x = x; b.y = y; bombVec.push_back(b); bombs[y][x] = THIS_IS_WHAT_I_WANT; This way when I explode the bomb, I can check the map and then have an ID in the vector to deal with. Every non bomb square will have a -1. Also, just curious. Imagine I have 3 elements in a vector. I delete the second one and then add another. Does the new element go in the same location as the one that was deleted? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Java/JAXB: Accessing property of object in a list

  - by Mark Lewis

  Hello Using JAXB I've created a series of classes which represent my XML schema. Validating against the schema an XML file has thus become a 'tree' of java objects representing the XML. Now I'd like to access, delete and add an object of one the created types in my tree. If I've got classes' methods arranged like this: RootType class has: public List<FQType> getFq() { // and setter return fq; } FQType class has: public RemapType getRemap() { // and setter return remap; } RemapType class has: public String getSource() { // and setter return source; } What's the most concise way to code reading and writing of the 'source' member of a RemapType instance in an FQType instance with, say, fqtypeID=1, in an array of type RootType (in which RootType instances also each have rootID)? Currently I'm using a for loop Iterator in which is an if rootID = mySelectedRootID. In the if I nest a second for loop Iterator over the contained FQType instances and in that a second if fqTypeID = mySelectedFQTypeID. IE for loop iterator/if statement pairs to recognise the object of desire. With all the bells and whistles this way is nearly 15 lines of code to access a data type - can I do this in one line? Thanks

  Read the article

• strange memory error when deleting object from Core Data

  - by llloydxmas

  I have an application that downloads an xml file, parses the file, and creates core data objects while doing so. In the parse code I have a function called 'emptydatacontext' that removes all items from Core Data before creating replacements from the xml file. This method looks like this: -(void) emptyDataContext { NSMutableArray* mutableFetchResults = [CoreDataHelper getObjectsFromContext:@"Condition" :@"road" :NO :managedObjectContext]; NSFetchRequest * allCon = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [allCon setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Condition" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]]; NSError * error = nil; NSArray * conditions = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:allCon error:&error]; [allCon release]; for (NSManagedObject * condition in conditions) { [managedObjectContext deleteObject:condition]; } } The first time this runs it deletes all objects and functions as it should - creating new objects from the xml file. I created a 'update' button that starts the exact same process of retrieving the file the preceeding as it did the first time. All is well until its time to delete the core data objects again. This 'deleteObject' call creates a "EXC_BAD_ACCESS" error each time. This only happens on the second time through. See this image for the debugger window as it appears when walking through the deletion FOR loop on the second iteration. Conditions is the fetched array of 7 objects with the objects below. Condition should be an individual condition. link text As you can see 'condition' does not match any of the objects in the 'conditions' array. I'm sure this is why I'm getting the memory access errors. Just not sure why this fetch (or the FOR) is returning a wrong reference. All the code that successfully performes this function on the first iteration is used in the second but with very different results. Thanks in advance for the help!

  Read the article

• Client-side validation breaks in IE because of PropertyProxyValidator and ScriptManager cooperation.

  - by Eugene

  The specific of the project is in using Enterpise Library for Server side validation and jQuery for client-side validation. So I have the next simple form for example: <asp:Content ID="_mainContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <script src="../../../Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../../Scripts/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { "<%= _txtProjectName.UniqueID %>": { required: true } } }); }); </script> <asp:TextBox ID="_txtProjectName" runat="server" CssClass="textBoxWithValidator_long" /> <entlib:PropertyProxyValidator id="_validatorProjectName" runat="server" ControlToValidate="_txtProjectName" PropertyName="ProjectName" SourceTypeName="LabManagement.Project.Project" /> <asp:Button CssClass="cell_InlineElement" ID="_btnSave" runat="server" Text="Save" onclick="_btnSave_Click" Width="50px" /> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server" EnablePageMethods="true"> </asp:ScriptManager> </asp:Content> The problem is in the next: client-side validation worked correctly before I needed to implement some AJAX.NET feature. So I have to add to the page ScriptManager (the last two lines in the code). But after that the next situation appeared: In InternetExplorer((7) - only in IE !!! - in Firefox everything works correctly) after clicking save button, if left the textbox ProjectName empty the client-side jquery validation appears but (!) the page submits to the server anyway. Some notes: If delete PropertyProxyValidator from the page - the client-side validation works correctly in IE but I need it for specific of the project. It seems that the problem is in the function WebForm_OnSubmit() that is inserted to the form after PropertyProxyValidator adding. ( ... <form name="aspnetForm" method="post" action="Project.aspx?TransType=NewProject" onsubmit="javascript:return WebForm_OnSubmit();" ...>) Could anyone help, please.

  Read the article

• Unable to create PDB file

  - by Ryan Smith

  For some reason this error started popping up today on one of my projects. Error 1 Unable to write to output file 'C:\MyProject\Release\MyProject.pdb': Unspecified error If I go into advanced compile options and change it to not generate and debug info, my project compiles fine. I have tried setting the permissions on the Release folder to full for everyone, so I would assume it's not a permissions issue. Also, I don't see anything in my log files that would provide me with more information about the issue. Does anyone know why this error would just start showing up or a way to fix it? Thanks. Update: I have rebooted my machine, restarted VS several times and have even completely deleted the existing OBJ file where the issue is happening. It's still giving me the same error. This is a simple one project solution that was working fine just last week. It appears to be an issue with VS trying to build the PDB file because I can delete them out of the Release and Debug folders without issue. When I try rebuilding them VS will start creating the file (about 1.4MB is size) but I still get the error.

  Read the article

• asp code for upload data

  - by vicky

  hello everyone i have this code for uploading an excel file and save the data into database.I m not able to write the code for database entry. someone please help <% if (Request("FileName") <> "") Then Dim objUpload, lngLoop Response.Write(server.MapPath(".")) If Request.TotalBytes > 0 Then Set objUpload = New vbsUpload For lngLoop = 0 to objUpload.Files.Count - 1 'If accessing this page annonymously, 'the internet guest account must have 'write permission to the path below. objUpload.Files.Item(lngLoop).Save "D:\PrismUpdated\prism_latest\Prism\uploadxl\" Response.Write "File Uploaded" Next Dim FSYSObj, folderObj, process_folder process_folder = server.MapPath(".") & "\uploadxl" set FSYSObj = server.CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject") set folderObj = FSYSObj.GetFolder(process_folder) set filCollection = folderObj.Files Dim SQLStr SQLStr = "INSERT ALL INTO TABLENAME " for each file in filCollection file_name = file.name path = folderObj & "\" & file_name Set objExcel_chk = CreateObject("Excel.Application") Set ws1 = objExcel_chk.Workbooks.Open(path).Sheets(1) row_cnt = 1 'for row_cnt = 6 to 7 ' if ws1.Cells(row_cnt,col_cnt).Value <> "" then ' col = col_cnt ' end if 'next While (ws1.Cells(row_cnt, 1).Value <> "") for col_cnt = 1 to 10 SQLStr = SQLStr & "VALUES('" & ws1.Cells(row_cnt, 1).Value & "')" next row_cnt = row_cnt + 1 WEnd 'objExcel_chk.Quit objExcel_chk.Workbooks.Close() set ws1 = nothing objExcel_chk.Quit Response.Write(SQLStr) 'set filobj = FSYSObj.GetFile (sub_fol_path & "\" & file_name) 'filobj.Delete next End if End If plz tell me how to save the following excel data to the oracle databse.any help would be appreciated

  Read the article

• rspec and ruby 1.9.1: problem with dummy controller and routes

  - by giorgian

  I want to test a module that basically executes some verify statements, to ensure that actions are invoked with the correct method. # /lib/rest_verification.rb module RestVerification def self.included(base) # :nodoc: base.extend(ClassMethods) end module ClassMethods def verify_rest_actions verify :method => :post, :only => [:create], :redirect_to => { :action => :new } ... end end end I tried this: describe RestVerification do class FooController < ActionController::Base include RestVerification verify_rest_actions def new ; end def index ; end def create ; end def edit ; end def update ; end def destroy ; end end # controller_name 'foo' # this only works with ruby 1.8.7 : 1.9.1 says "uninitialized constant FooController" tests FooController # this works with both before(:each) do ActionController::Routing::Routes.draw do |map| map.resources :foo end end after(:each) do ActionController::Routing::Routes.reload! end it ':create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb' do [:get, :put, :delete].each do |verb| send verb, :create response.should redirect_to(new_foo_url) end end ... end When testing: $ ruby -v ruby 1.8.7 (2010-01-10 patchlevel 249) [i486-linux] $ rake RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb Finished in 0.175586 seconds $ rvm use 1.9.1 Using ruby 1.9.1 p378 $ rake RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb (FAILED - 1) 1) 'RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb' FAILED expected redirect to "http://test.host/foo/new", got redirect to "http://test.host/spec/rails/example/controller_example_group/subclass_1/foo/new" Is this a known issue? Is there a workaround?

  Read the article

• [jquery] multiple resizables acting strange

  - by Noweem

  Hi there everyone, I'm trying to place multiple resizable and draggable div's on one page that move (vertically) inside their own parent div. you can take a look at http://bit.ly/bCutBE However, these div's act really strange when I want to resize them, especially from the north side, they kind of move out of the screen very fast, while they shouldn't be able to get outside the parent div. I only want the div to be able to move and resize vertically inside it's parent, the dragging-part works pretty good, but the resize part give this problem. I can't really describe it better than this, but take a look for yourself and it will be clear immediately when you try to resize one of the coloured div's: move it a little downwards and try to resize it from the north side. the problem seems to be caused by the containment: 'parent', line of the resizable. when I delete this line it works fine, but then the coloured blocks don't stay in their parent, and I want them to stay inside their parent. I hope someone can help me with this... the jquery code I used: $(document).ready(function(){ $(".move") .draggable({ containment: 'parent', grid: [50,50], axis: 'y' }) .resizable({ containment: 'parent', grid: [50,50], handles: 'n, s', minHeight: 50 }); });

  Read the article

• How do you verify that 2 copies of a VB 6 executable came from the same code base?

  - by Tim Visher

  I have a program under version control that has gone through multiple releases. A situation came up today where someone had somehow managed to point to an old copy of the program and thus was encountering bugs that have since been fixed. I'd like to go back and just delete all the old copies of the program (keeping them around is a company policy that dates from before version control was common and should no longer be necessary) but I need a way of verifying that I can generate the exact same executable that is better than saying "The old one came out of this commit so this one should be the same." My initial thought was to simply MD5 hash the executable, store the hash file in source control, and be done with it but I've come up against a problem which I can't even parse. It seems that every time the executable is generated (method: Open Project. File Make X.exe) it hashes differently. I've noticed that Visual Basic messes with files every time the project is opened in seemingly random ways but I didn't think that would make it into the executable, nor do I have any evidence that that is indeed what's happening. To try to guard against that I tried generating the executable multiple times within the same IDE session and checking the hashes but they continued to be different every time. So that's: Generate Executable Generate MD5 Checksum: md5sum X.exe > X.md5 Verify MD5 for current executable: md5sum -c X.md5 Generate New Executable Verify MD5 for new executable: md5sum -c X.md5 Fail verification because computed checksum doesn't match. I'm not understanding something about either MD5 or the way VB 6 is generating the executable but I'm also not married to the idea of using MD5. If there is a better way to verify that two executables are indeed the same then I'm all ears. Thanks in advance for your help!

  Read the article

• PHP header redirection does not reload <iframe> in IE

  - by Marco Demaio

  When displaying data from DB usually I'm in this situation I'm in page A.php that shows data from DB, user performs some action (like edit/delete etc) and page B.php is loaded to perform the action, once page B performed the action, it redirects browser to page A, page A is auto reloaded during step (3) therefor it shows an updated situation of the data In order to make page B to redirect to page A i use a simple PHP header("Location: " . "A.php", TRUE, 302); This works well in all situations, except when pages A.php is displaied into an <iframe>: in such a case it does not reload (step 4 does not get done). This seems to happen only in IE7 (don't know about IE8), it works perfectly on FF/Safari. And only when using an <iframe>, if page A.php is not in <iframe> it gest refreshed also in IE7. In order to solve this I simply added a couple of headers in page A.php to set it to not be cached: header("Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate"); // HTTP/1.1 header("Expires: Sat, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT"); // Date in the past But I was curious if you might have experienced the same issue too in the past, and if you good give me some advice about this?

  Read the article

• Why is my Repeater null in code behind?

  - by Rob Stevenson-Leggett

  I'm just starting a new project and I am getting some really weird stuff happening. ASP.NET 3.5, VS2008. I've tried rebuild, close VS, delete everything and get from svn again but I cannot understand why the repeater in the following is null on page_load. I know this is going to be a headslapping moment. Help me out? Markup: <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="GalleryControl.ascx.cs" Inherits="Site.UserControls.GalleryControl" %> <asp:Repeater ID="rptGalleries" runat="server"> <HeaderTemplate><ul></HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <li>wqe</li> </ItemTemplate> <FooterTemplate></ul></FooterTemplate> </asp:Repeater> Code behind public partial class GalleryControl : System.Web.UI.UserControl { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { rptGalleries.DataSource = new[] {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}; rptGalleries.DataBind(); } } Why is my repeater null? What the F is going on?

  Read the article

• How to implement a simple queue properly?

  - by Stephen Hsu

  The current Go library doesn't provide the queue container. To implement a simple queue, I use circle array as the underlying data structure. It follows algorithms mentioned in TAOCP: Insert Y into queue X: X[R]<-Y; R<-(R+1)%M; if R=F then OVERFLOW. Delete Y from queue X: if F=R then UNDERFLOW; Y<-X[F]; F<-(F+1) % M. F: Front, R: Rear, M: Array length. Following is the code: package main import ( "fmt" ) type Queue struct { len int head, tail int q []int } func New(n int) *Queue { return &Queue{n, 0, 0, make([]int, n)} } func (p *Queue) Enqueue(x int) bool { p.q[p.tail] = x p.tail = (p.tail + 1) % p.len return p.head != p.tail } func (p *Queue) Dequeue() (int, bool) { if p.head == p.tail { return 0, false } x := p.q[p.head] p.head = (p.head + 1) % p.len return x, true } func main() { q := New(10) for i := 1; i < 13; i++ { fmt.Println(i, q.Enqueue(i)) } fmt.Println() for i := 1; i < 13; i++ { fmt.Println(q.Dequeue()) } } But the output is obviously wrong: 1 true 2 true 3 true 4 true 5 true 6 true 7 true 8 true 9 true 10 false 11 true 12 true 11 true 12 true 0 false 0 false 0 false 0 false 0 false 0 false 0 false 0 false 0 false 0 false I think I need one more field to make the code work properly. What do you suggest?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444  | Next Page >