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  • Why won't my program terminate?

    - by Qwertie
    I have a .NET Compact Framework app that can runs on three windows machines (Desktop windows and two WinCE machines) and on the WinCE devices, the process never terminates on exit, even if I call Application.Exit(). Besides .NET, it uses one COM component (which does everything on the UI thread). If I break into the debugger after exitting, Visual Studio shows only one thread and a completely blank call stack. What could possibly cause this? Update: My process is terminating on the desktop but not the WinCE machines. I tried to force the process to terminate with the following code, but it doesn't work: [DllImport("coredll.dll")] static extern int TerminateProcess(IntPtr hProcess, uint uExitCode); static public void ExitProcess() { if (Platform.IsWindowsCE) TerminateProcess(new IntPtr(-1), 0); Application.Exit(); } There are also supposed to be ExitProcess() and GetCurrentProcess() APIs like the following, but if I try to call them, I get EntryPointNotFoundException. Therefore I am using TerminateProcess(-1, 0) because the documentation for the desktop version of GetCurrentProcess claims that it simply returns -1. [DllImport("coredll.dll")] static extern int ExitProcess(IntPtr hProcess); [DllImport("coredll.dll")] static extern IntPtr GetCurrentProcess(); Even if I do this: static public void ExitProcess() { if (Platform.IsWindowsCE) TerminateProcess(new IntPtr(-1), 0); Application.Exit(); throw new Exception("Trying to force quit."); } A fatal error dialog appears with a helpful "Quit" button, but pushing the button still does not cause the process to terminate on either machine!

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  • How to Bind Data and manipulate it in a GridView with MVP

    - by DotNetDan
    I am new to the whole MVP thing and slowly getting my head around it all. The a problem I am having is how to stay consistent with the MVP methodology when populating GridViews (and ddls, but we will tackle that later). Is it okay to have it connected straight to an ObjectDataSourceID? To me this seems wrong because it bypasses all the separation of concerns MVP was made to do. So, with that said, how do I do it? How do I handle sorting (do I send over handler events to the presentation layer, if so how does that look in code)? Right now I have a GridView that has no sorting. Code below. ListCustomers.aspx.cs: public partial class ListCustomers : System.Web.UI.Page, IlistCustomer { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { //On every page load, create a new presenter object with //constructor recieving the // page's IlistCustomer view ListUserPresenter ListUser_P = new ListUserPresenter(this); //Call the presenter's PopulateList to bind data to gridview ListUser_P.PopulateList(); } GridView IlistCustomer.UserGridView { get { return gvUsers; } set { gvUsers = value; } } } Interface ( IlistCustomer.cs): is this bad sending in an entire Gridview control? public interface IlistCustomer { GridView UserGridView { set; get; } } The Presenter (ListUserPresenter.cs): public class ListUserPresenter { private IlistCustomer view_listCustomer; private GridView gvListCustomers; private DataTable objDT; public ListUserPresenter( IlistCustomer view) { //Handle an error if an Ilistcustomer was not sent in) if (view == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("ListCustomer View cannot be blank"); //Set local IlistCustomer interface view this.view_listCustomer = view; } public void PopulateList() { //Fill local Gridview with local IlistCustomer gvListCustomers = view_listCustomer.UserGridView; // Instantiate a new CustomerBusiness object to contact database CustomerBusiness CustomerBiz = new CustomerBusiness(); //Call CustomerBusiness's GetListCustomers to fill DataTable object objDT = CustomerBiz.GetListCustomers(); //Bind DataTable to gridview; gvListCustomers.DataSource = objDT; gvListCustomers.DataBind(); } }

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  • Getting Argument Names In Ruby Reflection

    - by Joe Soul-bringer
    I would like to do some fairly heavy-duty reflection in the Ruby programming language. I would like to create a function which would return the names of the arguments of various calling functions higher up the call stack (just one higher would be enough but why stop there?). I could use Kernel.caller go to the file and parse the argument list but that would be ugly and unreliable. The function that I would like would work in the following way: module A def method1( tuti, fruity) foo end def method2(bim, bam, boom) foo end def foo print caller_args[1].join(",") #the "1" mean one step up the call stack end end A.method1 #prints "tuti,fruity" A.method2 #prints "bim, bam, boom" I would not mind using ParseTree or some similar tool for this task but looking at Parsetree, it is not obvious how to use it for this purpose. Creating a C extension like this is another possibility but it would be nice if someone had already done it for me. Edit2: I can see that I'll probably need some kind of C extension. I suppose that means my question is what combination of C extension would work most easily. I don't think caller+ParseTree would be enough by themselves. As far as why I would like to do this goes, rather than saying "automatic debugging", perhaps I should say that I would like to use this functionality to do automatic checking of the calling and return conditions of functions. Say def add x, y check_positive return x + y end Where check_positive would throw an exception if x and y weren't positive (obviously, there would be more to it than that but hopefully this gives enough motivation)

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  • AJAX Partial Rendering issues for the default page in IIS 7 when using custom http module

    - by WiseGuyEh
    The problem When I try to make a AJAX partial update request (using the UpdatePanel control) from the default page of an IIS7 web site, it fails- instead of returning the html to be updated, it returns the entire page, which then causes the MS AJAX Javascript to throw a parsing shit-fit. The suspected cause I have narrowed the cause down to two issues- making an AJAX request to the default page when I have a certain custom http module registered. A partial rendering request to http://localhost will fail, but a partial rendering request to http://localhost/default.aspx will work fine. Also, If i remove the following line in my custom HttpModule: _application.PreRequestHandlerExecute += OnPreRequestHandlerExecute; The AJAX partial render will work correctly. Wierd huh? Another wierd thing... If I look at trace.axd, I can see that when a partial rendering request fails, two POST requests are logged for the one partial rendering request- one where the default.aspx page executes successfully (trace information such as page_load is logged) but no content is produced and a second that doesn't seem to actually execute (no trace information is logged) but produces content (HTTP_CONTENT_LENGTH is greater than 0). Please help! If anyone with a good knowledge of HTTP modules or the MS AJAX Http module could explain why this is occuring I would be very grateful. As it is, the obvious work arround is to just redirect to default.aspx if the request url is "/" but I would really like to understand why this is occurring.

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  • OpenPeak Flash app XMLSocket Security Problem

    - by Kira
    We're trying to create an app for OpenPeak. The Flash app will act as a client to a Java server on another computer on another domain. The Flash app client connects via XMLSocket. The Java Server uses ServerSocket to receive a request and send back a message. In order to trust the server, the Flash client needs a socket master policy file to tell it that the server comes from a trustworthy domain. According to an article on Adobe, when a connection has succeeded, the Flash client automatically requests the cross-domain policy or socket master policy file on port 843. Still, even when we implement it according to the tutorials and recommendations we have read, the Flash client continues to throw the following security error: SecurityErrorEvent type="securityError" bubbles=false cancelable=false eventPhase=2 text="Error #2048" We've tried logging the policy file request during testing to see if there was any call made to port 843. There was not. Interestingly, even without a policy file, the Flash client still manages to send the first data message to the server successfully. It's just when the server tries to send back a reply that the entire thing hangs for about 10 seconds before the security error above is displayed. Any ideas / suggestions?

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  • SqlLite/Fluent NHibernate integration test harness initialization not repeatable after large data se

    - by Mark Rogers
    In one of my main data integration test harnesses I create and use Fluent NHibernate's SingleConnectionSessionSourceForSQLiteInMemoryTesting, to get a fresh session for each test. After each test, I close the connection, session, and session factory, and throw out the nested StructureMap container they came from. This works for almost any simple data integration test I can think, including ones that utilize Fluent NHib's PersistenceSpecification object. When I test the application's lengthy database bootstrapping process, which creates and saves thousands of domain objects, I start seeing issues. It's not that the setup and tear down fails, in fact, the test successfully bootstraps the in-memory database as the application would bootstrap the real database in the production environment. The problem occurs when the database bootstrapping occurs a second time on a new in-memory database, with a new session and session factory. The error is: NHibernate.StaleStateException : Unexpected row count: 0; expected: 1 The row count is indeed Unexpected, the row that the application under test is looking for should be in the session. You see, it's not that any data from the last integration test is sticking around, it's that for some reason the session just stops working mid-database-boostrap. And I've looked everywhere for a place I might be holding on to an old session and I can't find one. I've searched through the code for static singleton objects, but there are none anywhere near the code in question. I have a couple StructureMap InstanceScope singleton's but they are getting thrown out with each nested container that is lost after every test teardown. I've tried every possible variation on disposing and closing every object involved with each test teardown and it still fails on this lengthy database bootstrap. But non-bootstrap related database tests appear to work fine. I'm starting to run out of options and may have to surrender lengthy database integration tests in favor of WatiN-based acceptance tests. Can anyone give me any clue about how I can figure out why some of my SingleConnectionSessionSourceForSQLiteInMemoryTesting aren't repeatable? Any advice at all, about how to make an NHibernate SqlLite database integration test harness repeatable?

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  • Access problems with System.Diagnostics.Process in webservice

    - by Martin
    Hello everyone. I have problems with executing a process in a webservice method on a Windows Server 2003 machine. Here is the code: Dim target As String = "C:\dnscmd.exe" Dim fileInfo As System.IO.FileInfo = New System.IO.FileInfo(target) If Not fileInfo.Exists Then Throw New System.IO.FileNotFoundException("The requested file was not found: " + fileInfo.FullName) End If Dim startinfo As New System.Diagnostics.ProcessStartInfo("C:\dnscmd.exe") startinfo.UseShellExecute = False startinfo.Arguments = "\\MYCOMPUTER /recordadd mydomain.no " & dnsname & " CNAME myhost.mydomain.no" startinfo.UserName = "user1" Dim password As New SecureString() For Each c As Char In "secretpassword".ToCharArray() password.AppendChar(c) Next startinfo.Password = password Process.Start(startinfo) I know the process is being executed because i use processmonitor.exe on the server and it tells me that c:\dnscmd.exe is called with the right parameters Full command line value from procmon is: "C:\dnscmd.exe" \MYCOMPUTER /recordadd mydomain.no mysubdomain CNAME myhost.mydomain.no The user of the created process on the server is NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM. BUT, the dns entry will not be added! Here is the weird thing: I KNOW the user (user1) I authenticate with has administrative rights (it's the same user I use to log on the machine with), but the user of the process in procmon says NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM (which is not the user i use to authenticate). Weirdest: If i log on to the server, copy the command line value read from the procmon logging, and paste it in a command line window, it works! Reading procmon after this shows that user1 owns the dnscmd process. Why doesn't user1 become owner of the process started with system.diagnostics.process? Is the reason why the command doesn't work?

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  • I didn't say anything treasonous, quit putting words in my mouth

    - by You guys Lie
    Where at all did I say ANYTHING about organizing some kind of anti-government activity? Nowhere. I do not give a flying fuck about America in case you hadn't realized, I'm talking about what I'm going to do when Jesus Christ returns. Besides, why would I make it easy for them to throw me in a black site prison? Use common sense, sheeple. In the end I guess it doesn't matter anyways, since I do not recognize the government as my ultimate authority. Police/Army/Whatever-- funny outfits and a shiny badge don't make you better than me. Allah will do away with your kind. However, as long as they're with me (as they semi-currently are), we have no problems. I fear the government will have other plans to control the population when things start to further decline, and that is when they will run into problems with me and mine, and probably a large percentage of the public. You'd have to be a fucking fool to think we'd fall into anarchy immediately, given the vast resources and blind loyalty of this country. Saying there are practical limits to free speech for anything I have said in this thread is not only ignorant, it is unpatriotic. I should be being celebrated as the modern day Paul Revere for warning you people about our impending doom. You would do well to study the foundations of this country. Nothing I have said is treasonous at all. Besides, the DoD knows I'm harmless until shit pops off, they have bigger fish to fry right now, go forward. Keep in mind, I don't personally have to do anything to overthrow the government. I just said, I would not advocate for any paramilitary organizations at this time, only if/after we dissolve into (more) tyranny. I am not a terrorist, like some soldiers in Iraq. The machine is doing a great job of ruining itself, while I get to comfortably laugh at it on the nightly news knowing that I'm ready for it to shut down.

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  • Deadlock in ThreadPoolExecutor

    - by Vitaly
    Encountered a situation when ThreadPoolExecutor is parked in execute(Runnable) function while all the ThreadPool threads are waiting in getTask func, workQueue is empty. Does anybody have any ideas? The ThreadPoolExecutor is created with ArrayBlockingQueue, corePoolSize == maximumPoolSize = 4 [Edit] To be more precise, the thread is blocked in ThreadPoolExecutor.exec(Runnable command) func. It has the task to execute, but doesn't do it. [Edit2] The executor is blocked somewhere inside the working queue (ArrayBlockingQueue). [Edit3] The callstack: thread = front_end(224) at sun.misc.Unsafe.park(Native methord) at java.util.concurrent.locks.LockSupport.park(LockSupport.java:158) at java.util.concurrent.locks.AbstractQueuedSynchronizer.parkAndCheckInterrupt(AbstractQueuedSynchronizer.java:747) at java.util.concurrent.locks.AbstractQueuedSynchronizer.acquireQueued(AbstractQueuedSynchronizer.java:778) at java.util.concurrent.locks.AbstractQueuedSynchronizer.acquire(AbstractQueuedSynchronizer.java:1114) at java.util.concurrent.locks.ReentrantLock$NonfairSync.lock(ReentrantLock.java:186) at java.util.concurrent.locks.ReentrantLock.lock(ReentrantLock.java:262) at java.util.concurrent.ArrayBlockingQueue.offer(ArrayBlockingQueue.java:224) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.execute(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:653) at net.listenThread.WorkersPool.execute(WorkersPool.java:45) at the same time the workQueue is empty (checked using remote debug) [Edit4] Code working with ThreadPoolExecutor: public WorkersPool(int size) { pool = new ThreadPoolExecutor(size, size, IDLE_WORKER_THREAD_TIMEOUT, TimeUnit.SECONDS, new ArrayBlockingQueue<Runnable>(WORK_QUEUE_CAPACITY), new ThreadFactory() { @NotNull private final AtomicInteger threadsCount = new AtomicInteger(0); @NotNull public Thread newThread(@NotNull Runnable r) { final Thread thread = new Thread(r); thread.setName("net_worker_" + threadsCount.incrementAndGet()); return thread; } }, new RejectedExecutionHandler() { public void rejectedExecution(@Nullable Runnable r, @Nullable ThreadPoolExecutor executor) { Verify.warning("new task " + r + " is discarded"); } }); } public void execute(@NotNull Runnable task) { pool.execute(task); } public void stopWorkers() throws WorkersTerminationFailedException { pool.shutdownNow(); try { pool.awaitTermination(THREAD_TERMINATION_WAIT_TIME, TimeUnit.SECONDS); } catch (InterruptedException e) { throw new WorkersTerminationFailedException("Workers-pool termination failed", e); } } }

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  • Validation with State Pattern for Multi-Page Forms in ASP.NET

    - by philrabin
    I'm trying to implement the state pattern for a multi-page registration form. The data on each page will be accumulated and stored in a session object. Should validation (including service layer calls to the DB) occur on the page level or inside each state class? In other words, should the concrete implementation of IState be concerned with the validation or should it be given a fully populated and valid object? See "EmptyFormState" class below: namespace Example { public class Registrar { private readonly IState formEmptyState; private readonly IState baseInformationComplete; public RegistrarSessionData RegistrarSessionData { get; set;} public Registrar() { RegistrarSessionData = new RegistrarSessionData(); formEmptyState = new EmptyFormState(this); baseInformationComplete = new BasicInfoCompleteState(this); State = formEmptyState; } public IState State { get; set; } public void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data) { State.SubmitData(data); } public void ProceedToNextStep() { State.ProceedToNextStep(); } } //actual data stored in the session //to be populated by page public class RegistrarSessionData { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } //will include values of all 4 forms } //State Interface public interface IState { void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data); void ProceedToNextStep(); } //Concrete implementation of IState //Beginning state - no data public class EmptyFormState : IState { private readonly Registrar registrar; public EmptyFormState(Registrar registrar) { this.registrar = registrar; } public void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data) { //Should Validation occur here? //Should each state object contain a validation class? (IValidator ?) //Should this throw an exception? } public void ProceedToNextStep() { registrar.State = new BasicInfoCompleteState(registrar); } } //Next step, will have 4 in total public class BasicInfoCompleteState : IState { private readonly Registrar registrar; public BasicInfoCompleteState(Registrar registrar) { this.registrar = registrar; } public void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data) { //etc } public void ProceedToNextStep() { //etc } } }

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  • How do I find out what process Id and thread id / name has a file open

    - by peter
    Hi All, I am using C# in an application and am having some problems with a file becoming locked. The piece of code does this, while (true) { Read a packet from a socket (with data in it to add to the file) Open a file Writes data to it Close a file } But in the process the file becomes locked. I don't really understand how, we are are definately catching and reporting exceptions so I don't see how the file doesn't get closed every time. My best guess is that something else is opening the file, but I want to prove it. Can someone please provide a piece of code to check whether the file is open and if so report what processid and threadid has the file open. For example if I had this code, StreamWriter streamWriter1 = new StreamWriter(@"c:\logs\test.txt"); streamWriter1.WriteLine("Test"); // code to check for locks?? StreamWriter streamWriter2 = new StreamWriter(@"c:\logs\test.txt"); streamWriter1.Close(); streamWriter2.Close(); That will throw an exception because the file is locked when we try and open it the second time. So where the comment is what could I put in there to report that the current app (process Id) and the current thread (thread Id) have the file locked? Thanks.

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  • Java process is not terminating after starting an external process

    - by tangens
    On Windows I've started a program "async.cmd" with a ProcessBuilder like this: ProcessBuilder processBuilder = new ProcessBuilder( "async.cmd" ); processBuilder.redirectErrorStream( true ); processBuilder.start(); Then I read the output of the process in a separate thread like this: byte[] buffer = new byte[ 8192 ]; while( !interrupted() ) { int available = m_inputStream.available(); if( available == 0 ) { Thread.sleep( 100 ); continue; } int len = Math.min( buffer.length, available ); len = m_inputStream.read( buffer, 0, len ); if( len == -1 ) { throw new CX_InternalError(); } String outString = new String( buffer, 0, len ); m_output.append( outString ); } Now it happened that the content of the file "async.cmd" was this: REM start a command window start cmd /k The process that started this extenal program terminated (process.waitFor() returned the exit value). Then I sent an readerThread.interrupt() to the reader thread and the thread terminated, too. But there was still a thread running that wasn't terminating. This thread kept my java application running even if it exited its main method. With the debugger (eclipse) I wasn't able to suspend this thread. After I quit the opened command window, my java program exited, too. Question How can I quit my java program while the command window stays open?

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  • How does this code break the Law of Demeter?

    - by Dave Jarvis
    The following code breaks the Law of Demeter: public class Student extends Person { private Grades grades; public Student() { } /** Must never return null; throw an appropriately named exception, instead. */ private synchronized Grades getGrades() throws GradesException { if( this.grades == null ) { this.grades = createGrades(); } return this.grades; } /** Create a new instance of grades for this student. */ protected Grades createGrades() throws GradesException { // Reads the grades from the database, if needed. // return new Grades(); } /** Answers if this student was graded by a teacher with the given name. */ public boolean isTeacher( int year, String name ) throws GradesException, TeacherException { // The method only knows about Teacher instances. // return getTeacher( year ).nameEquals( name ); } private Grades getGradesForYear( int year ) throws GradesException { // The method only knows about Grades instances. // return getGrades().getForYear( year ); } private Teacher getTeacher( int year ) throws GradesException, TeacherException { // This method knows about Grades and Teacher instances. A mistake? // return getGradesForYear( year ).getTeacher(); } } public class Teacher extends Person { public Teacher() { } /** * This method will take into consideration first name, * last name, middle initial, case sensitivity, and * eventually it could answer true to wild cards and * regular expressions. */ public boolean nameEquals( String name ) { return getName().equalsIgnoreCase( name ); } /** Never returns null. */ private synchronized String getName() { if( this.name == null ) { this.name == ""; } return this.name; } } Questions How is the LoD broken? Where is the code breaking the LoD? How should the code be written to uphold the LoD?

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  • Unit tests - The benefit from unit tests with contract changes?

    - by Stefan Hendriks
    Recently I had an interesting discussion with a colleague about unit tests. We where discussing when maintaining unit tests became less productive, when your contracts change. Perhaps anyone can enlight me how to approach this problem. Let me elaborate: So lets say there is a class which does some nifty calculations. The contract says that it should calculate a number, or it returns -1 when it fails for some reason. I have contract tests who test that. And in all my other tests I stub this nifty calculator thingy. So now I change the contract, whenever it cannot calculate it will throw a CannotCalculateException. My contract tests will fail, and I will fix them accordingly. But, all my mocked/stubbed objects will still use the old contract rules. These tests will succeed, while they should not! The question that rises, is that with this faith in unit testing, how much faith can be placed in such changes... The unit tests succeed, but bugs will occur when testing the application. The tests using this calculator will need to be fixed, which costs time and may even be stubbed/mocked a lot of times... How do you think about this case? I never thought about it thourougly. In my opinion, these changes to unit tests would be acceptable. If I do not use unit tests, I would also see such bugs arise within test phase (by testers). Yet I am not confident enough to point out what will cost more time (or less). Any thoughts?

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  • How can you handle cross-cutting conerns in JAX-WS without Spring or AOP? Handlers?

    - by LES2
    I do have something more specific in mind, however: Each web service method needs to be wrapped with some boiler place code (cross cutting concern, yes, spring AOP would work great here but it either doesn't work or unapproved by gov't architecture group). A simple service call is as follows: @WebMethod... public Foo performFoo(...) { Object result = null; Object something = blah; try { soil(something); result = handlePerformFoo(...); } catch(Exception e) { throw translateException(e); } finally { wash(something); } return result; } protected abstract Foo handlePerformFoo(...); (I hope that's enough context). Basically, I would like a hook (that was in the same thread - like a method invocation interceptor) that could have a before() and after() that could could soil(something) and wash(something) around the method call for every freaking WebMethod. Can't use Spring AOP because my web services are not Spring managed beans :( HELP!!!!! Give advice! Please don't let me copy-paste that boiler plate 1 billion times (as I've been instructed to do). Regards, LES

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  • Objecive C Error, Message sent to deallocated object

    - by Dave C
    Hello, I have several buttons on my app that are being created dynamically. They are all pointed at the button click event when pressed. When the button pressed method is called, the sender's tag(int value) is parsed into the controllers house ID. It works with one of the buttons... the first one created to be specific, but the others throw the following error: -[CFNumber intValue]: message sent to deallocated instance 0xc4bb0ff0 I am not releasing these buttons anywhere in my code... I haven't set them to auto release or anything like that... just wondering why they are doing this on the click. The button click event: - (IBAction) ButtonClick: (id) sender { HouseholdViewController *controller = [[HouseholdViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"HouseholdViewController" bundle:nil]; controller.delegate = self; controller.HouseID = [(NSInteger)[(UIButton *)sender tag] intValue]; //this line throws an error controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; } Where I am creating the buttons: UIButton *button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; button.frame = CGRectMake(MyLongInScreenCoords, MyLatInScreenCoords, 50, 50); UIImage *buttonImageNormal = [UIImage imageNamed:@"blue_pin.png"]; UIImage *strechableButtonImageNormal = [buttonImageNormal stretchableImageWithLeftCapWidth:50 topCapHeight:50]; [button setBackgroundImage:strechableButtonImageNormal forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [self.view addSubview:button]; button.tag = [NSNumber numberWithInt:[[words objectAtIndex: i] intValue]]; ButtonPoints[CurrentHouseCount][0] = button; ButtonPoints[CurrentHouseCount][1] = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(MyActualLat, MyActualLong)]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(ButtonClick:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; CurrentHouseCount++; Thank you for any assistance.

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  • Calling a SLSB with Seam security from a servlet

    - by wilth
    Hello, I have an existing application written in SEAM that uses SEAM Security (http://docs.jboss.org/seam/2.1.1.GA/reference/en-US/html/security.html). In a stateless EJB, I might find something like this: @In Identity identity; ... if(identity.hasRole("admin")) throw new AuthException(); As far as I understand, Seam injects the Identity object from the SessionContext of the servlet that invokes the EJB (this happens "behind the scenes", since Seam doesn't really use servlets) and removes it after the call. Is this correct? Is it now possible to access this EJB from another servlet (in this case, that servlet is the server side of a GWT application)? Do I have to "inject" the correct Identity instance? If I don't do anything, Seam injects an instance, but doesn't correctly correlate the sessions and instances of Identity (so the instances of Identity are shared between sessions and sometimes calls get new instances etc.). Any help and pointers are very welcome - thanks! Technology: EJB3, Seam 2.1.2. The servlets are actually the server-side of a GWT app, although I don't think this matters much. I'm using JBoss 5.

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  • PostgreSQL insert on primary key failing with contention, even at serializable level

    - by Steven Schlansker
    I'm trying to insert or update data in a PostgreSQL db. The simplest case is a key-value pairing (the actual data is more complicated, but this is the smallest clear example) When you set a value, I'd like it to insert if the key is not there, otherwise update. Sadly Postgres does not have an insert or update statement, so I have to emulate it myself. I've been working with the idea of basically SELECTing whether the key exists, and then running the appropriate INSERT or UPDATE. Now clearly this needs to be be in a transaction or all manner of bad things could happen. However, this is not working exactly how I'd like it to - I understand that there are limitations to serializable transactions, but I'm not sure how to work around this one. Here's the situation - ab: => set transaction isolation level serializable; a: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 b: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 a: => insert into table values(1); --> 1 b: => insert into table values(1); --> ERROR: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "serial_test_pkey" Now I would expect it to throw the usual "couldn't commit due to concurrent update" but I'm guessing since the inserts are different "rows" this does not happen. Is there an easy way to work around this?

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  • How should I unit test a code-generator?

    - by jkp
    This is a difficult and open-ended question I know, but I thought I'd throw it to the floor and see if anyone had any interesting suggestions. I have developed a code-generator that takes our python interface to our C++ code (generated via SWIG) and generates code needed to expose this as WebServices. When I developed this code I did it using TDD, but I've found my tests to be brittle as hell. Because each test essentially wanted to verify that for a given bit of input code (which happens to be a C++ header) I'd get a given bit of outputted code I wrote a small engine that reads test definitions from XML input files and generates test cases from these expectations. The problem is I dread going in to modify the code at all. That and the fact that the unit tests themselves are a: complex, and b: brittle. So I'm trying to think of alternative approaches to this problem, and it strikes me I'm perhaps tackling it the wrong way. Maybe I need to focus more on the outcome, IE: does the code I generate actually run and do what I want it to, rather than, does the code look the way I want it to. Has anyone got any experiences of something similar to this they would care to share?

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  • How do I disable the network connection from .Net without needing admin priveledges?

    - by Brad Mathews
    I may be SOL on this but I thought I would give throw it out for possible solutions. I am writing a computer access control service to help me control my kids' computer use. Plan on open sourcing it when I have it working. It is written in VB.Net and needs to work on XP through 7. I am running into all sorts of security and desktop access issues on Windows 7. The service needs to run as admin to execute the NetSh command to disable the network. But I cannot interact with the desktop from the service so I IPC to a UI to handle other stuff, but I still cannot detect from the service if the desktop is locked. Argghh! I could get it all working from a hidden windows form app if I could just lick the one piece that needs admin permissions: disabling the network. It does no good if a kid logs on and denies the popup asking if the program should run as administrator and he says no. Also windows 7 will not start a program set to run as admin using HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run Anyone know how to get this working? Or have an outside the box solution? Thanks! Brad

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  • Is there a java library / package analogous to <stdio.h>?

    - by Roboprog
    I have been doing Java on and off for about 14 years, and almost nothing else the last 6 years or so. I really hate the java.io package -- its legion of subclasses and adapters. I do like exceptions, rather than having to always poll "errno" and the like, but I could surely live without declared exceptions. Is there anything that functions like the Unix/ANSI stdio.h routines in C? I know we will never be rid of java.io and its conventions until java itself is retired, as they have metastasized throughout the many frameworks that have accreted to java. That said, I would like something that works kind of like this (let's call it package javax.stdio): Have a main utility class, perhaps FileStar, that can read and write files (or pipes), either text or binary, either sequentially or random access, with constructors that mimic fopen() and popen(). This class should have a load of useful methods that do things like fread(), fwrite(), fgets(), fputs(), fseek(), and whatever else (fprintf()?). Methods that are incompatible with the open/construct mode simply throw up (just like some of the collections classes/methods do when restricted). Then, have a bunch of interfaces that suggest how you intend to use the stream once you have created it: Sequential, RandomAccess, ReadOnly, WriteOnly, Text, Binary, plus combinations of these that make sense. Perhaps even have methods to return the appropriate type-cast (interface), throwing up if you have asked for something incompatible. For extra flavor, skip the declared exceptions -- e.g. - javax.stdio.IOException extends RuntimeException. Is there an open source project like this floating around?

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  • Custom basic authentication fails in IIS7

    - by manu08
    I have an ASP.NET MVC application, with some RESTful services that I'm trying to secure using custom basic authentication (they are authenticated against my own database). I have implemented this by writing an HTTPModule. I have one method attached to the HttpApplication.AuthenticateRequest event, which calls this method in the case of authentication failure: private static void RejectWith401(HttpApplication app) { app.Response.StatusCode = 401; app.Response.StatusDescription = "Access Denied"; app.CompleteRequest(); } This method is attached to the HttpApplication.EndRequest event: public void OnEndRequest(object source, EventArgs eventArgs) { var app = (HttpApplication) source; if (app.Response.StatusCode == 401) { string val = String.Format("Basic Realm=\"{0}\"", "MyCustomBasicAuthentication"); app.Response.AppendHeader("WWW-Authenticate", val); } } This code adds the "WWW-Authenticate" header which tells the browser to throw up the login dialog. This works perfectly when I debug locally using Visual Studio's web server. But it fails when I run it in IIS7. For IIS7 I have the built-in authentication modules all turned off, except anonymous. It still returns an HTTP 401 response, but it appears to be removing the WWW-Authenticate header. Any ideas?

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  • Application error passthru when using apache mod_proxy

    - by user303442
    Heyas. I'm using mod_proxy with apache2 provide vhost ability to multiple servlet apps running on the local machine. It works fine, for the most part. Requests come into apache then are directed to the application bound on a port on localhost. The app receives the request and responds, which is delivered back to the client by apache. The problem I'm having is that the application delivers 500's on errors, and mod_proxy stomps on them. Often these errors are caused in a ajax request and the error is handled in client side javascript. For example, a call to a server side createObject(name) might throw a NameNotUniqueException , which is delivered back as a 500. The client javascript might then display an appropriate error message. When an error is thrown by the application (resulting in a 500 response to mod_proxy), then apache stomps the error message and returns 500 Internal Server Error Internal Server Error The server encountered an internal error or misconfiguration and was unable to complete your request. .. the stock apache server side error message. I want mod_proxy to pass the original 500 back through to the client. Is there a directive I've missed which prevents clobbering of the 500? TIA

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  • C# Delegate under the hood question.

    - by Ted
    Hi Guys I was doing some digging around into delegate variance after reading the following tquestion in SO. "delegate-createdelegate-and-generics-error-binding-to-target-method" (sorry not allowed to post more than one hyperlink as a newbie here!) I found a very nice bit of code from Barry kelly at https://www.blogger.com/comment.g?blogID=8184237816669520763&postID=2109708553230166434 Here it is (in a sugared-up form :-) using System; namespace ConsoleApplication4 { internal class Base { } internal class Derived : Base { } internal delegate void baseClassDelegate(Base b); internal delegate void derivedClassDelegate(Derived d); internal class App { private static void Foo1(Base b) { Console.WriteLine("Foo 1"); } private static void Foo2(Derived b) { Console.WriteLine("Foo 2"); } private static T CastDelegate<T>(Delegate src) where T : class { return (T) (object) Delegate.CreateDelegate( typeof (T), src.Target, src.Method, true); // throw on fail } private static void Main() { baseClassDelegate a = Foo1; // works fine derivedClassDelegate b = Foo2; // works fine b = a.Invoke; // the easy way to assign delegate using variance, adds layer of indirection though b(new Derived()); b = CastDelegate<derivedClassDelegate>(a); // the hard way, avoids indirection b(new Derived()); } } } I understand all of it except this one (what looks very simple) line. b = a.Invoke; // the easy way to assign delegate using variance, adds layer of indirection though Can anyone tell me: how it is possible to call invoke without passing the param required by the static function. When is going on under the hood when you assign the return value from calling invoke What does Barry mean by extra indirection (in his comment)

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  • What are the best workarounds for known problems with Hibernate's schema validation of floating poin

    - by Jason Novak
    I have several Java classes with double fields that I am persisting via Hibernate. For example, I have @Entity public class Node ... private double value; When Hibernate's org.hibernate.dialect.Oracle10gDialect creates the DDL for the Node table, it maps the value field to a "double precision" type. create table MDB.Node (... value double precision not null, ... It would appear that in Oracle, "double precision" is an alias for "float". So, when I try to verify the database schema using the org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationConfiguration.validateSchema() method, Oracle appears to describe the value column as a "float". This causes Hibernate to throw the following Exception org.hibernate.HibernateException: Wrong column type in DBO.ACL_RULE for column value. Found: float, expected: double precision A very similar problem is listed in Hibernate's JIRA database as HHH-1961 (http://opensource.atlassian.com/projects/hibernate/browse/HHH-1961). I'd like to avoid doing anything that will break MySql, Postgres, and Sql Server support so extending the Oracle10gDialect appears to be the most promising of the workarounds mentioned in HHH-1961. But extending a Dialect is something I've never done before and I'm afraid there may be some nasty gotchas. What is the best workaround for this problem that won't break our compatibility with MySql, Postgres, and Sql Server? Thanks for taking the time to look at this!

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