Search Results

Search found 13788 results on 552 pages for 'instance caging'.

Page 438/552 | < Previous Page | 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445  | Next Page >

  • Loading a class file immediately AFTER startup

    - by Striker
    We have a few war files deployed inside an ear file. Some of the war files have a class that caches static data from our PLM system in singletons. Since some of the classes take several minutes to load we use the load-on-startup in the web.xml to load them ahead of time. This all works fine until we attempt to re-deploy the application on our production servers. (WebLogic 10.3) We get an exception from our PLM API about a dll already being loaded. Our PLM vendor has confirmed that this is a problem and stated that they don't support using the load-on-startup. This is also a huge problem on our development boxes where we have redeploy the app all the time. Most of us, when we're not working on one of the apps that uses a cache, have them commented out. Obviously we can't do that for the production servers. Right now we transfer the ear to the production server, deploy it in the console, wait for it to crash, shut the app server instance down and then start it up again. We need to find a way around this... One suggestion was to create a servlet that we can call after the server boots that will load the various caches. While this will work I'm looking for something a bit cleaner. Is there anyway to detect once the server started and then fire off the methods? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Running ASP / ASP.NET markup outside of a web application (perhaps with MVC)

    - by Frank Schwieterman
    Is there a way to include some aspx/ascx markup in a DLL and use that to generate text dynamically? I really just want to pass a model instance to a view and get the produced html as a string. Similar to what you might do with an XSLT transform, except the transform input is a CLR object rather than an XML document. A second benefit is using the ASP.NET code-behind markup which is known by most team members. One way to achieve this would be to load the MVC view engine in-process and perhaps have it use an ASPX file from a resource. It seems like I could call into just the ViewEngine somehow and have it generate a ViewEngineResult. I don't know ASP.NET MVC well enough though to know what calls to make. I don't think this would be possible with classic ASP or ASP.NET as the control model is so tied to the page model, which doesn't exist in this case. Using something like SparkViewEngine in isolation would be cool too, though not as useful since other team members wouldn't know the syntax. At that point I might as well use XSLT (yes I am looking for a clever way to avoid XSLT).

    Read the article

  • Communication between EJB3 Instances (JEE inter-bean communication) possible?

    - by Hank
    I'm designing a part of a JEE6 application, consisting of EJB3 beans. Part of the requirements are multiple parallel (say a few hundred) long running (over days) database hunts. Individual hunts have different search parameters (start time, end time, query filter). Parameters may get changed over time. Currently I'm thinking of the following: SearchController (Stateless Session Bean) formulates a set of search parameters, sends it off to a SearchListener via JMS SearchListener (Message Driven Bean) receives search parameters, instantiates a SearchWorker with the parameters SearchWorker (SLSB) hunts repeatedly through the database; when it finds something, the result is sent off via JMS, and the search continues; when the given 'end-time' has reached, it ends What I'm wondering now: Is there a problem, with EJB3 instances running for days? (Other than that I need to be able to deal with container restarts...) How do I know how many and which EJB instances of SearchWorker are currently running? Is it possible to communicate with them individually (similar to sending a System V signal to a unix process), e.g. to send new parameters, to end an instance, etc..

    Read the article

  • Colour manipulation of custom tags in niceEdit HTML editor ( JS / DOM )

    - by Chris
    Hi, I would like to be able to highlight, during typing and in real time, certain custom tags in the format #tag_name# within the text of a nicEdit instance ( http://nicedit.com/ ). My current attempt to implement as close to this as possible revolves around using the blur event of the editor to highlight the tags once the editor loses focus. I then use the following logic to wrap the tags in a span with a highlight class.. htmlEditor.addEvent( "blur", function( ) { str = nicEditors.findEditor( "html_content" ).getContent( ); // Remove existing spans first, leaving just the tag ( this could mess up if the html has been edited directly ) str = str.replace( /(<span class=\"highlight\">)(.[^<]+)(<\/span>)/gi, "$2" ); // Then wrap all instances of a particular tag with the highlight span str = str.replace( /#tag_name#/gi, "<span class='highlight'>#tag_name#</span>" ); nicEditors.findEditor( "html_content" ).setContent( str ); }); This is not ideal as my actual text now contains unwanted spans ( I only want the highlighting for the user's input experience, not to be saved to the database ). Obviously I could remove the spans before saving the text but the whole system is currently open to errors ( If the html is directly edited then other text may get highlighted etc ). What I would like to know is.. Is there any way to directly change the colour of the tags in the editor or DOM without using a mechanism such as this? Perhaps a way of colouring the text in memory rather than changing the HTML ? Any ideas ? Regards Chris P

    Read the article

  • PySide Qt script doesn't launch from Spyder but works from shell

    - by Maxim Zaslavsky
    I have a weird bug in my project that uses PySide for its Qt GUI, and in response I'm trying to test with simpler code that sets up the environment. Here is the code I am testing with: http://stackoverflow.com/a/6906552/130164 When I launch that from my shell (python test.py), it works perfectly. However, when I run that script in Spyder, I get the following error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "/home/test/Desktop/test/test.py", line 31, in <module> app = QtGui.QApplication(sys.argv) RuntimeError: A QApplication instance already exists. If it helps, I also get the following warning: /usr/lib/pymodules/python2.6/matplotlib/__init__.py:835: UserWarning: This call to matplotlib.use() has no effect because the the backend has already been chosen; matplotlib.use() must be called *before* pylab, matplotlib.pyplot, or matplotlib.backends is imported for the first time. Why does that code work when launched from my shell but not from Spyder? Update: Mata answered that the problem happens because Spyder uses Qt, which makes sense. For now, I've set up execution in Spyder using the "Execute in an external system terminal" option, which doesn't cause errors but doesn't allow debugging, either. Does Spyder have any built-in workarounds to this?

    Read the article

  • Migrating MOSS 2007 from SQL 2000 to SQL 2005 - Addendum

    - by lunacrescens
    This is a continuation of an earlier question I had about moving the databases for a MOSS 2007 installation from SQL 2000 to SQL 2005. Here's the URL for the original question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/254517/migrating-moss-2007-from-sql-2000-to-sql-2005 In my test environment, I've successfully moved the databases to the SQL 2005 test machine and things appear to be working fine. But, on the "Servers in Farm" page of the Central Admin | Operations, it still shows the old (i.e. SQL 2000) server as the Configuration Database Server. Also, it shows the old config database as being the Configuration Database. I know that the SQL2000 server and old config database (that are showing on this page) are NOT being used, because we've deactived the SQL instance in SQL2000. I've tried "removing" the server, and get a message about "Uninstalling SharePoint products and technologies" being the better route. So, I disconnected from the test databases, uninstalled SharePoint from the test WFE server, and reinstalled it. That didn't do anything. Before uninstalling/reinstalling I also tried simply rerunning the SharePoint Configuration wizard, and that didn't do anything either. Does anyone know how to update the Config Server and Config Database on the "Servers in Farm" page after having moved the Config and Content DBs? Is there something I'm missing or overlooking? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How large a role does subjectiveness play in programming?

    - by Bob
    I often read about the importance of readability and maintainability. Or, I read very strong opinions about which syntax features are bad or good. Or discussions about the values of certain paradigms, like OOP. Aside from that, this same question floats about in my mind whenever I read debates on SO or Meta about subjective questions. Or read questions about best practices and sometimes find myself or others disagreeing. What role does subjectiveness play within the programming realm? Sometimes I think it plays a large role. Software developers are engineers in a way, but also people. A large part of programming is dealing with code that's human readable. This is very different from Math or Physics or other disciplines with very exact and structured rules. Here the exact structure and rules are largely up in the air, changeable on a whim, and hence the amount of languages in existence. And one person may find one language very readable, and another person may find their own language the most comforting. The same with practices. One person may not like certain accepted practices. I myself find splitting classes into different files very unreadable, for instance. But, I can't say rules haven't helped in general. Certain practices have and do make life easier. And new languages have given rise to syntax and structure that make life easier. There's certainly been a progression towards code that is easier to read and maintain even given a largely diverse group of people. So maybe these things aren't as subjective as I thought. It reminds me, in a way, of UI design. Certainly it's subjective, but then there's an entire discipline involved in crafting good UI and it tends to work. Is there something non-subjective about the ideas behind maintainability, readability, and other best practices? Is there something tangible to grasp when one develops a new language or thinks of new practices?

    Read the article

  • How to remove a status message added by the seam security module?

    - by Joshua
    I would like to show a different status message, when a suspended user tries to login. If the user is active we return true from the authenticate method, if not we add a custom StatusMessage message mentioning that the "User X has been suspended". The underlying Identity authentication also fails and adds a StatusMessage. I tried removing the seam generated statusMessage with the following methods, but it doesn't seem to work and shows me 2 different status messages (my custom message, seam generated). What would be the issue here? StatusMessages statusMessages; statusMessages.clear() statusMessages.clearGlobalMessages() statusMessages.clearKeyedMessages(id) EDIT1: public boolean authenticate() { log.info("Authenticating {0}", identity.getCredentials().getUsername()); String username = identity.getCredentials().getUsername(); String password = identity.getCredentials().getPassword(); // return true if the authentication was // successful, false otherwise try { Query query = entityManager.createNamedQuery("user.by.login.id"); query.setParameter("loginId", username); // only active users can log in query.setParameter("status", "ACTIVE"); currentUser = (User)query.getSingleResult(); } catch (PersistenceException ignore) { // Provide a status message for the locked account statusMessages.clearGlobalMessages(); statusMessages.addFromResourceBundle( "login.account.locked", new Object[] { username }); return false; } IdentityManager identityManager = IdentityManager.instance(); if (!identityManager.authenticate(username, "password")) { return false; } else { log.info("Authenticated user {0} successfully", username); } }

    Read the article

  • How to run White + SL4 UATs through TeamCity?

    - by Duncan Bayne
    After experiencing a series of unpleasant issues with TFS, including source code orruption and project management inflexibility, we (meaning the project team of which I'm a part) have decided to move from TFS 2010 to TeamCity + SVN + V1. I've managed to get our MSTest component and unit tests running as part of every build. However, our UATs are failing, and I was hoping for some advice from the TeamCity community as to best practices w.r.t. running web servers and interacting with the desktop. Each of our UAT fixtures starts a web server to host the site, like this: public static void StartWebServer() { var pathToSite = @"C:\projects\myproject\FrontEnd\MyProject.FrontEnd.Web"; var webServer = new Process { StartInfo = new ProcessStartInfo { Arguments = string.Format("/port:9150 /path:\"{0}\"", pathToSite), FileName = @"C:\Program Files (x86)\Common Files\microsoft shared\DevServer\10.0\WebDev.WebServer40.EXE" } }; webServer.Start(); } Needless to say, this doesn't work when running through TeamCity, as the pathToSite value is different each time. I'm hoping there is a way of determining the path into which the the code is checked out prior to building? That would allow me to point the web server at the right place. The other issue is that our UATs use White to drive the Silverlight UI through an instance of Internet Explorer: _browserWindow = InternetExplorer.Launch("http://localhost:9150/index.html#/Home", "Home - Windows Internet Explorer"); _document = _browserWindow.SilverlightDocument; I've ensured that the TeamCity service is granted the ability to interact with the desktop, and I've set the build agent machine up to log in automatically (an open session is a pre-requisite for White to work properly). Is that all I need to do or are there additional steps required?

    Read the article

  • How to save highlighting to a database

    - by vman
    Hi I am trying to highlight a part of the text on my website. This highlighted text will be saved for the specific user in a database and when the document is opened again it will show the previously highlighted text. I assumed I would be using javascript to highlight the text but I cannot seem to find a way to pinpoint where the word is that I am highlighting. function getSelText() { var txt = ''; if (window.getSelection) { txt = window.getSelection(); } else if (document.getSelection) { txt = document.getSelection(); } else if (document.selection) { txt = document.selection.createRange().text; } else return ""; return txt; } I am using that to get the selection but I cannot figure out where the selection is in the text. The biggest annoyance is when I have duplicates within the line or text so if I were to use search then I would find the first instance and not the one I was looking for. So the question is : How do you pinpoint a word or a selection in the entire document?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC UpdateModel doesn't update inherited public properties??

    - by mrjoltcola
    I refactored some common properties into a base class and immediately my model updates started failing. UpdateModel() and TryUpdateModel() do not seem to update inherited public properties. I cannot find detailed info on MSDN nor Google as to the rules or semantics of these methods. The docs are terse (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd470933.aspx), simply stating: Updates the specified model instance using values from the controller's current value provider. Well that leads us to believe it is as simple as that. It makes no mention of limitations with inheritance. My assumption is the methods are reflecting on the top class only, ignoring base properties, but this seems to be an ugly shortcoming, if so. SOLVED: Eep, this turned out to have nothing to do with inheritance. My base class was implemented with public fields, not properties. Switching them to formal properties (adding {get; set; }) was all I needed. This has bitten me before, I keep wanting to use simple, public fields.

    Read the article

  • FLV performance and garbage collection

    - by justinbach
    I'm building a large flash site (AS3) that uses huge FLVs as transition videos from section to section. The FLVs are 1280x800 and are being scaled to 1680x1050 (much of which is not displayed to users with smaller screens), and are around 5-8 seconds apiece. I'm encoding the videos using On2's hi-def codec, VP6-S, and playback is pretty good with native FLV players, Perian-equipped Quicktime, and simple proof-of-concept FLV playback apps built in AS3. The problem I'm having is that in the context of the actual site, playback isn't as smooth; the framerate isn't quite as good as it should be, and more problematically, there's occasional jerkiness and dropped frames (sometimes pausing the video for as long as a quarter of a second or so). My guess is that this is being caused by garbage collection in the Flash player, which happens nondeterministically and is therefore hard to test and control for. I'm using a single instance of FLVPlayback to play the videos; I originally was using NetStream objects and so forth directly but switched to FLVPlayback for this reason. Has anyone experienced this sort of jerkiness with FLVPlayback (or more generally, with hi-def Flash video)? Am I right about GC being the culprit here, and if so, is there any way to prevent it during playback of these system-intensive transitions?

    Read the article

  • Setting nested object to null when selected option has empty value

    - by Javi
    Hello, I have a Class which models a User and another which models his country. Something like this: public class User{ private Country country; //other attributes and getter/setters } public class Country{ private Integer id; private String name; //other attributes and getter/setters } I have a Spring form where I have a combobox so the user can select his country or can select the undefined option to indicate he doen't want to provide this information. So I have something like this: <form:select path="country"> <form:option value="">-Select one-</form:option> <form:options items="${countries}" itemLabel="name" itemValue="id"/> </form:select> In my controller I get the autopopulated object with the user information and I want to have country set to null when the "-Select one-" option has been selected. So I have set a initBinder with a custom editor like this: @InitBinder protected void initBinder(WebDataBinder binder) throws ServletException { binder.registerCustomEditor(Country.class, "country", new CustomCountryEditor()); } and my editor do something like this: public class CustomCountryEditor(){ @Override public String getAsText() { //I return the Id of the country } @Override public void setAsText(String str) { //I search in the database for a country with id = new Integer(str) //and set country to that value //or I set country to null in case str == null } } When I submit the form it works because when I have country set to null when I have selected "-Select one-" option or the instance of the country selected. The problem is that when I load the form I have a method like the following one to load the user information. @ModelAttribute("user") public User getUser(){ //loads user from database } The object I get from getUser() has country set to a specific country (not a null value), but in the combobox is not selected any option. I've debugged the application and the CustomCountryEditor works good when setting and getting the text, thoughgetAsText method is called for every item in the list "countries" not only for the "country" field. Any idea? Is there a better way to set null the country object when I select no country option in the combobox? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Efficient method to calculate the rank vector of a list in Python

    - by Tamás
    I'm looking for an efficient way to calculate the rank vector of a list in Python, similar to R's rank function. In a simple list with no ties between the elements, element i of the rank vector of a list l should be x if and only if l[i] is the x-th element in the sorted list. This is simple so far, the following code snippet does the trick: def rank_simple(vector): return [rank for rank in sorted(range(n), key=vector.__getitem__)] Things get complicated, however, if the original list has ties (i.e. multiple elements with the same value). In that case, all the elements having the same value should have the same rank, which is the average of their ranks obtained using the naive method above. So, for instance, if I have [1, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 5], the naive ranking gives me [0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6], but what I would like to have is [0, 1, 3, 3, 3, 5, 6]. Which one would be the most efficient way to do this in Python? Footnote: I don't know if NumPy already has a method to achieve this or not; if it does, please let me know, but I would be interested in a pure Python solution anyway as I'm developing a tool which should work without NumPy as well.

    Read the article

  • jQuery inconsistent .remove by class on element with multiple classes

    - by pedalpete
    I've got a page where messages and associated elements (responses, forwards, etc) all share a class based on the database id of the parent. For example this is a message this is another message this is a comment this is another comment tim posted a new message sara forwarded a message to john at times I need to remove all elements with the same id, so I originally had jQuery('div#'+id).remove(); but that would sometimes not remove all the ids because ids are supposed to be unique. So I added the id as a class. now I use jQuery('div.'+id).remove(); but this seems to be about 80% effective, and sometimes the divs aren't being removed. I'm not sure if the issue is because the div has more than one class, but I need the classes because that is how I refer to the elements when somebody clicks. For instance, jQuery('div.message').click(function(){ get the id, send it to the server and get the message }); is there something wrong I'm doing here? or is there a better way to do this?

    Read the article

  • Java method keyword "final" and its use

    - by Lukas Eder
    When I create complex type hierarchies (several levels, several types per level), I like to use the final keyword on methods implementing some interface declaration. An example: interface Garble { int zork(); } interface Gnarf extends Garble { /** * This is the same as calling {@link #zblah(0)} */ int zblah(); int zblah(int defaultZblah); } And then abstract class AbstractGarble implements Garble { @Override public final int zork() { ... } } abstract class AbstractGnarf extends AbstractGarble implements Gnarf { // Here I absolutely want to fix the default behaviour of zblah // No Gnarf shouldn't be allowed to set 1 as the default, for instance @Override public final int zblah() { return zblah(0); } // This method is not implemented here, but in a subclass @Override public abstract int zblah(int defaultZblah); } I do this for several reasons: It helps me develop the type hierarchy. When I add a class to the hierarchy, it is very clear, what methods I have to implement, and what methods I may not override (in case I forgot the details about the hierarchy) I think overriding concrete stuff is bad according to design principles and patterns, such as the template method pattern. I don't want other developers or my users do it. So the final keyword works perfectly for me. My question is: Why is it used so rarely in the wild? Can you show me some examples / reasons where final (in a similar case to mine) would be very bad?

    Read the article

  • How do you read a file line by line in your language of choice?

    - by Jon Ericson
    I got inspired to try out Haskell again based on a recent answer. My big block is that reading a file line by line (a task made simple in languages such as Perl) seems complicated in a functional language. How do you read a file line by line in your favorite language? So that we are comparing apples to other types of apples, please write a program that numbers the lines of the input file. So if your input is: Line the first. Next line. End of communication. The output would look like: 1 Line the first. 2 Next line. 3 End of communication. I will post my Haskell program as an example. Ken commented that this question does not specify how errors should be handled. I'm not overly concerned about it because: Most answers did the obvious thing and read from stdin and wrote to stdout. The nice thing is that it puts the onus on the user to redirect those streams the way they want. So if stdin is redirected from a non-existent file, the shell will take care of reporting the error, for instance. The question is more aimed at how a language does IO than how it handles exceptions. But if necessary error handling is missing in an answer, feel free to either edit the code to fix it or make a note in the comments.

    Read the article

  • std::locale breakage on MacOS 10.6 with LANG=en_US.UTF-8

    - by fixermark
    I have a C++ application that I am porting to MacOSX (specifically, 10.6). The app makes heavy use of the C++ standard library and boost. I recently observed some breakage in the app that I'm having difficulty understanding. Basically, the boost filesystem library throws a runtime exception when the program runs. With a bit of debugging and googling, I've reduced the offending call to the following minimal program: #include <locale> int main ( int argc, char *argv [] ) { std::locale::global(std::locale("")); return 0; } This program fails when I run this through g++ and execute the resulting program in an environment where LANG=en_US.UTF-8 is set (which on my computer is part of the default bash session when I create a new console window). Clearing the environment variable (setenv LANG=) allows the program to run without issues. But I'm surprised I'm seeing this breakage in the default configuration. My questions are: Is this expected behavior for this code on MacOS 10.6? What would a proper workaround be? I can't really re-write the function because the version of the boost libraries we are using executes this statement internally as part of the filesystem library. For completeness, I should point out that the program from which this code was synthesized crashes when launched via the 'open' command (or from the Finder) but not when Xcode runs the program in Debug mode. edit The error given by the above code on 10.6.1 is: $ ./locale terminate called after throwing an instance of 'std::runtime_error' what(): locale::facet::_S_create_c_locale name not valid Abort trap

    Read the article

  • WPF DataBinding to standard CLR properties in code-behind

    - by nukefusion
    Hi everyone, Just learning WPF databinding and have a gap in my understanding. I've seen a few similar questions on StackOverflow, but I'm still struggling in determining what I have done wrong. I have a simple Person class with a Firstname and Surname property (standard CLR properties). I also have a standard CLR property on my Window class that exposes an instance of Person. I've then got some XAML, with two methods of binding. The first works, the second doesn't. Can anybody help me to understand why the second method fails? There's no binding error message in the Output log. <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:WpfApplication1" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300" DataContext="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}, Path=MyPerson}"> <StackPanel> <Label>My Person</Label> <WrapPanel> <Label>First Name:</Label> <Label Content="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType=Window, Mode=FindAncestor}, Path=MyPerson.FirstName}"></Label> </WrapPanel> <WrapPanel> <Label>Last Name:</Label> <Label Content="{Binding MyPerson.Surname}"></Label> </WrapPanel> </StackPanel> Edit: Ok, thanks so far. I've changed the second expression to: <Label Content="{Binding Surname}"></Label> I still can't get it to work though!

    Read the article

  • Avoiding Duplicate Data in DB (for use with Rails)

    - by ants
    I have five tables that I am trying to get to work nicely together but may need some help. I have three main tables: accounts members and roles. With two join tables account_members and account_member_roles. The accounts and members table are joined by account_members (fk account_id and member_id) table. The other 2 tables are the problem (roles and account_member_roles). A member of an account can have more than one role and I have the account_member_roles (fk account_member_id and role_id) table joining the account_members join table and the roles table. That seems logical but can you have a relationship with a join table? What I'd like to be able to do is when creaeting an account, for instance, I would like @account.save to include the roles and update the account_member_roles table neatly ..... but through the account_members join table. I've tried ..... accept_nested_attributes_for :members, :account_member_roles in the account.rb but I get ..... ActiveRecord::HasManyThroughCantAssociateThroughHasManyReflection (Cannot modify association 'Account#account_member_roles' because the source reflection class 'AccountMemberRole' is associated to 'AccountMember' via :has_many.) upon trying to save a record. Any advice on how I should approach this? CIA -ants

    Read the article

  • Change select's class based on selected option's class

    - by Alasdair
    I have a page that contains numerous <select> elements. What I'm trying to achieve is to ensure that if a <select>'s selected <option> has a class called italic, then the <select> then has the italic class added (i.e. jQuery.addClass('italic')). If it doesn't, then the italic class is removed from the <select> to ensure other <option> elements are displayed correctly (i.e. jQuery.removeClass('italic')). What I'm noticing with most of my attempts is that either all the <select> have the italic class or that the italic class isn't being removed accordingly. Since I'm unsure my choice in selectors and callback logic are particularly sound or good practice in this instance (as I've been frustratingly trying to make it work) I've decided not to include the code I used in previous attempts. Instead, refer to this small HTML & CSS example: .italic { font-style: italic; } <select id="foo" name="foo" size="1" <option value="NA" selected="selected" - Select - </option <option value="1"Bar</option <option value="2"Fu</option <option value="3"Baz</option </select Also, I am aware that not all browsers support CSS styling of <select> and <option>. The related J2EE web application will only ever be accessed via Firefox under a controlled environment.

    Read the article

  • VEMap and a GeoRSS feed(hosted separately)

    - by Alexis Abril
    The scenario is as follows: A WCF web service exists that outputs a valid GeoRSS feed. This lives in its own domain as a number of different applications have access to it. A web page(on a different site) has been created with an instance of a VEMap(Bing/Virtual Earth map object). Now, VEMap can accept an input feed in this format via the following: var layer = new VEShapeLayer(); var veLayerSpec = new VEShapeSourceSpecification(VEDataType.GeoRSS, "someurl", layer); map.ImportShapeLayerData(veLayerSpec, onComplete, true); onComplete is a callback function I'm using to replace the default pin graphic with something custom. The question is in regards to "someurl", which is a path to a local xml file containing the geographic information(georss simple format). I've realized this feed and the map must be hosted in the same domain, so I've created a generic handler that reads the remote feed and returns it in the same format. var veLayerSpec = new VEShapeSourceSpecification(VEDataType.GeoRSS, "/somelocalhandler.ashx", layer); When I do this, I get the VEMap error("z is null"). This is the same error one would receive when trying to access a remote feed. When I copy the feed into a local xml file(ie, "feed.xml") there is no error. The order of operations is currently: remote feed - local handler - VEMap import If I'm over complicating this procedure, let me know! I'm a bit new to the Bing Maps API and might have missed something. Any assistance is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Java performance issue

    - by Colby77
    Hi, I've got a question related to java performance and method execution. In my app there are a lot of place where I have to validate some parameter, so I've written a Validator class and put all the validation methods into it. Here is an example: public class NumberValidator { public static short shortValidator(String s) throws ValidationException{ try{ short sh = Short.parseShort(s); if(sh < 1){ throw new ValidationException(); } return sh; }catch (Exception e) { throw new ValidationException("The parameter is wrong!"); } } ... But I'm thinking about that. Is this OK? It's OO and modularized, but - considering performance - is it a good idea? What if I had awful lot of invocation at the same time? The snippet above is short and fast, but there are some methods that take more time. What happens when there are a lot of calling to a static method or an instance method in the same class and the method is not synchronized? All the calling methods have to fall in line and the JVM executes them sequentially? Is it a good idea to have some class that are identical to the above-mentioned and randomly call their identical methods? I think it is not, because "Don't repeat yourself " and "Duplication is Evil" etc. But what about performance? Thanks is advance.

    Read the article

  • MEF GetExports<T, TMetaDataView> returning nothing with AllowMultiple = True

    - by sohum
    I don't understand MEF very well, so hopefully this is a simple fix of how I think it works. I'm trying to use MEF to get some information about a class and how it should be used. I'm using the Metadata options to try to achieve this. My interfaces and attribute looks like this: public interface IMyInterface { } public interface IMyInterfaceInfo { Type SomeProperty1 { get; } double SomeProperty2 { get; } string SomeProperty3 { get; } } [MetadataAttribute] [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class, AllowMultiple = true)] public class ExportMyInterfaceAttribute : ExportAttribute, IMyInterfaceInfo { public ExportMyInterfaceAttribute(Type someProperty1, double someProperty2, string someProperty3) : base(typeof(IMyInterface)) { SomeProperty1 = someProperty1; SomeProperty2 = someProperty2; SomeProperty3 = someProperty3; } public Type SomeProperty1 { get; set; } public double SomeProperty2 { get; set; } public string SomeProperty3 { get; set; } } The class that is decorated with the attribute looks like this: [ExportMyInterface(typeof(string), 0.1, "whoo data!")] [ExportMyInterface(typeof(int), 0.4, "asdfasdf!!")] public class DecoratedClass : IMyInterface { } The method that is trying to use the import looks like this: private void SomeFunction() { // CompositionContainer is an instance of CompositionContainer var myExports = CompositionContainer.GetExports<IMyInterface, IMyInterfaceInfo>(); } In my case myExports is always empty. In my CompositionContainer, I have a Part in my catalog that has two ExportDefinitions, both with the following ContractName: "MyNamespace.IMyInterface". The Metadata is also loaded correctly per my exports. If I remove the AllowMultiple setter and only include one exported attribute, the myExports variable now has the single export with its loaded metadata. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Action Filter Dependency Injection in ASP.NET MVC 3 RC2 with StructureMap

    - by Ben
    Hi, I've been playing with the DI support in ASP.NET MVC RC2. I have implemented session per request for NHibernate and need to inject ISession into my "Unit of work" action filter. If I reference the StructureMap container directly (ObjectFactory.GetInstance) or use DependencyResolver to get my session instance, everything works fine: ISession Session { get { return DependencyResolver.Current.GetService<ISession>(); } } However if I attempt to use my StructureMap filter provider (inherits FilterAttributeFilterProvider) I have problems with committing the NHibernate transaction at the end of the request. It is as if ISession objects are being shared between requests. I am seeing this frequently as all my images are loaded via an MVC controller so I get 20 or so NHibernate sessions created on a normal page load. I added the following to my action filter: ISession Session { get { return DependencyResolver.Current.GetService<ISession>(); } } public ISession SessionTest { get; set; } public override void OnResultExecuted(System.Web.Mvc.ResultExecutedContext filterContext) { bool sessionsMatch = (this.Session == this.SessionTest); SessionTest is injected using the StructureMap Filter provider. I found that on a page with 20 images, "sessionsMatch" was false for 2-3 of the requests. My StructureMap configuration for session management is as follows: For<ISessionFactory>().Singleton().Use(new NHibernateSessionFactory().GetSessionFactory()); For<ISession>().HttpContextScoped().Use(ctx => ctx.GetInstance<ISessionFactory>().OpenSession()); In global.asax I call the following at the end of each request: public Global() { EndRequest += (sender, e) => { ObjectFactory.ReleaseAndDisposeAllHttpScopedObjects(); }; } Is this configuration thread safe? Previously I was injecting dependencies into the same filter using a custom IActionInvoker. This worked fine until MVC 3 RC2 when I started experiencing the problem above, which is why I thought I would try using a filter provider instead. Any help would be appreciated Ben P.S. I'm using NHibernate 3 RC and the latest version of StructureMap

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445  | Next Page >