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  • MySql Query lag time / deadlock?

    - by Click Upvote
    When there are multiple PHP scripts running in parallel, each making an UPDATE query to the same record in the same table repeatedly, is it possible for there to be a 'lag time' before the table is updated with each query? I have basically 5-6 instances of a PHP script running in parallel, having been launched via cron. Each script gets all the records in the items table, and then loops through them and processes them. However, to avoid processing the same item more than once, I store the id of the last item being processed in a seperate table. So this is how my code works: function getCurrentItem() { $sql = "SELECT currentItemId from settings"; $result = $this->db->query($sql); return $result->get('currentItemId'); } function setCurrentItem($id) { $sql = "UPDATE settings SET currentItemId='$id'"; $this->db->query($sql); } $currentItem = $this->getCurrentItem(); $sql = "SELECT * FROM items WHERE status='pending' AND id > $currentItem'"; $result = $this->db->query($sql); $items = $result->getAll(); foreach ($items as $i) { //Check if $i has been processed by a different instance of the script, and if so, //leave it untouched. if ($this->getCurrentItem() > $i->id) continue; $this->setCurrentItem($i->id); // Process the item here } But despite of all the precautions, most items are being processed more than once. Which makes me think that there is some lag time between the update queries being run by the PHP script, and when the database actually updates the record. Is it true? And if so, what other mechanism should I use to ensure that the PHP scripts always get only the latest currentItemId even when there are multiple scripts running in parrallel? Would using a text file instead of the db help?

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  • FIFO dequeueing in python?

    - by Aaron Ramsey
    hello again everybody— I'm looking to make a functional (not necessarily optimally efficient, as I'm very new to programming) FIFO queue, and am having trouble with my dequeueing. My code looks like this: class QueueNode: def __init__(self, data): self.data = data self.next = None def __str__(self): return str(self.data) class Queue: def__init__(self): self.front = None self.rear = None self.size = 0 def enqueue(self, item) newnode = QueueNode(item) newnode.next = None if self.size == 0: self.front = self.rear = newnode else: self.rear = newnode self.rear.next = newnode.next self.size = self.size+1 def dequeue(self) dequeued = self.front.data del self.front self.size = self.size-1 if self.size == 0: self.rear = None print self.front #for testing if I do this, and dequeue an item, I get the error "AttributeError: Queue instance has no attribute 'front'." I guess my function doesn't properly assign the new front of the queue? I'm not sure how to fix it though. I don't really want to start from scratch, so if there's a tweak to my code that would work, I'd prefer that—I'm not trying to minimize runtime so much as just get a feel for classes and things of that nature. Thanks in advance for any help, you guys are the best.

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  • MEF GetExports<T, TMetaDataView> returning nothing with AllowMultiple = True

    - by sohum
    I don't understand MEF very well, so hopefully this is a simple fix of how I think it works. I'm trying to use MEF to get some information about a class and how it should be used. I'm using the Metadata options to try to achieve this. My interfaces and attribute looks like this: public interface IMyInterface { } public interface IMyInterfaceInfo { Type SomeProperty1 { get; } double SomeProperty2 { get; } string SomeProperty3 { get; } } [MetadataAttribute] [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class, AllowMultiple = true)] public class ExportMyInterfaceAttribute : ExportAttribute, IMyInterfaceInfo { public ExportMyInterfaceAttribute(Type someProperty1, double someProperty2, string someProperty3) : base(typeof(IMyInterface)) { SomeProperty1 = someProperty1; SomeProperty2 = someProperty2; SomeProperty3 = someProperty3; } public Type SomeProperty1 { get; set; } public double SomeProperty2 { get; set; } public string SomeProperty3 { get; set; } } The class that is decorated with the attribute looks like this: [ExportMyInterface(typeof(string), 0.1, "whoo data!")] [ExportMyInterface(typeof(int), 0.4, "asdfasdf!!")] public class DecoratedClass : IMyInterface { } The method that is trying to use the import looks like this: private void SomeFunction() { // CompositionContainer is an instance of CompositionContainer var myExports = CompositionContainer.GetExports<IMyInterface, IMyInterfaceInfo>(); } In my case myExports is always empty. In my CompositionContainer, I have a Part in my catalog that has two ExportDefinitions, both with the following ContractName: "MyNamespace.IMyInterface". The Metadata is also loaded correctly per my exports. If I remove the AllowMultiple setter and only include one exported attribute, the myExports variable now has the single export with its loaded metadata. What am I doing wrong?

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  • What is the header of an array in .NET

    - by Thomas
    Hi all, I have a little bit seen the representation of an array in memory with Windbg and SOS plugin. Here it is the c# : class myobj{ public int[] arr; } class Program{ static void Main(string[] args){ myobj o = new myobj(); o.arr = new int[7]; o.arr[0] = 0xFFFFFF; o.arr[1] = 0xFFFFFF; o.arr[2] = 0xFFFFFF; o.arr[3] = 0xFFFFFF; o.arr[4] = 0xFFFFFF; } } I break at final of Main, and I observ : 0:000> !clrstack -l OS Thread Id: 0xc3c (0) ESP EIP 0015f0cc 0043d1cf test.Program.Main(System.String[]) LOCALS: 0x0015f0d8 = 0x018a2f58 0:000 !do 0x018a2f58 Name: test.myobj MethodTable: 0026309c EEClass: 00261380 Size: 12(0xc) bytes (C:\Users\admin\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\test\test\bin\Debug\test.exe) Fields: MT Field Offset Type VT Attr Value Name 01324530 4000001 4 System.Int32[] 0 instance 018a2f64 tab 0:000 dd 018a2f64 018a2f64 01324530 00000007 00ffffff 00ffffff 018a2f74 00ffffff 00ffffff 00ffffff 00000000 018a2f84 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2f94 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2fa4 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2fb4 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2fc4 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2fd4 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 I can see that the header contains the size of the array (00000007) but my question is : what is the value 01324530 ? Thanks !

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  • Open XML document ContentControls problem with signed id's

    - by willvv
    I have an application that generates Open XML documents with Content Controls. To create a new Content Control I use Interop and the method ContentControls.Add. This method returns an instance of the added Content Control. I have some logic that saves the id of the Content Control to reference it later, but in some computers I've been having a weird problem. When I access the ID property of the Content Control I just created, it returns a string with the numeric id, the problem is that when this value is too big, after I save the document, if I look through the document.xml in the generated document, the <w:id/> element of the <w:sdtPr/> element has a negative value, that is the signed equivalent of the value I got from the Id property of the generated control. For example: var contentControl = ContentControls.Add(...); var contentControlId = contentControl.ID; // the value of contentControlId is "3440157266" If I save the document and open it in the Package Explorer, the Id of the Content Control is "-854810030" instead of "3440157266". What have I figured out is this: ((int)uint.Parse("3440157266")).ToString() returns "-854810030" Any idea of why this happens? This issue is hard to replicate because I don't control the Id of the generated controls, the Id is automatically generated by the Interop libraries.

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  • How large a role does subjectiveness play in programming?

    - by Bob
    I often read about the importance of readability and maintainability. Or, I read very strong opinions about which syntax features are bad or good. Or discussions about the values of certain paradigms, like OOP. Aside from that, this same question floats about in my mind whenever I read debates on SO or Meta about subjective questions. Or read questions about best practices and sometimes find myself or others disagreeing. What role does subjectiveness play within the programming realm? Sometimes I think it plays a large role. Software developers are engineers in a way, but also people. A large part of programming is dealing with code that's human readable. This is very different from Math or Physics or other disciplines with very exact and structured rules. Here the exact structure and rules are largely up in the air, changeable on a whim, and hence the amount of languages in existence. And one person may find one language very readable, and another person may find their own language the most comforting. The same with practices. One person may not like certain accepted practices. I myself find splitting classes into different files very unreadable, for instance. But, I can't say rules haven't helped in general. Certain practices have and do make life easier. And new languages have given rise to syntax and structure that make life easier. There's certainly been a progression towards code that is easier to read and maintain even given a largely diverse group of people. So maybe these things aren't as subjective as I thought. It reminds me, in a way, of UI design. Certainly it's subjective, but then there's an entire discipline involved in crafting good UI and it tends to work. Is there something non-subjective about the ideas behind maintainability, readability, and other best practices? Is there something tangible to grasp when one develops a new language or thinks of new practices?

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  • What IDE setup and workflow is used for OSGi development?

    - by Falx
    I made quite a few easy OSGi test projects in Eclipse RCP. My typical workflow would always be: Make 3 different projects: APIproject, Clientproject and Serverproject Edit the MANIFEST.MF of APIproject to export the api package Edit the MANIFEST.MF file of Clientproject and Serverproject to add the required API package Choose "Run as..." "Plugin Framework" OSGi console starts in eclipse and everything seems to work I also tried wiring things by using Declarative Services, which worked well like this too. Now recently I wanted to try out iPOJO. The problem is that I get the feeling that I've been doing my OSGi development the wrong way. Can it be that I should instead make 1 project en make it work like no OSGi is involved. And then afterwards, just export each package to its own bundle by means of (for instance) the BNDL tool? Should development be done in a normal Eclipse (java, not RCP) or any other java IDE for that matter? So that's why I have these questions: What IDE setup is normally used to develop OSGi with iPOJO? And what is the normal workflow to be used when developing OSGi projects (maybe with iPOJO)?

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  • Loading a class file immediately AFTER startup

    - by Striker
    We have a few war files deployed inside an ear file. Some of the war files have a class that caches static data from our PLM system in singletons. Since some of the classes take several minutes to load we use the load-on-startup in the web.xml to load them ahead of time. This all works fine until we attempt to re-deploy the application on our production servers. (WebLogic 10.3) We get an exception from our PLM API about a dll already being loaded. Our PLM vendor has confirmed that this is a problem and stated that they don't support using the load-on-startup. This is also a huge problem on our development boxes where we have redeploy the app all the time. Most of us, when we're not working on one of the apps that uses a cache, have them commented out. Obviously we can't do that for the production servers. Right now we transfer the ear to the production server, deploy it in the console, wait for it to crash, shut the app server instance down and then start it up again. We need to find a way around this... One suggestion was to create a servlet that we can call after the server boots that will load the various caches. While this will work I'm looking for something a bit cleaner. Is there anyway to detect once the server started and then fire off the methods? Thanks.

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  • How can i attached iphone image through MFMailComposerView in iphone

    - by Pugal Devan
    Hi, I am new to iphone development. I have created a button in the view. On clicking the button it loads the photolibrary from the Iphone. Now i want to attached the those selected image through mail. I donno how can i attached the image in MFMailComposerView. How can i achieve this, Here my code is, -(IBAction) Pictures:(id)sender { self.imgpicker = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; self.imgpicker.delegate = self; self.imgpicker.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypePhotoLibrary; [self presentModalViewController:self.imgpicker animated:YES]; } - (void)imagePickerController:(UIImagePickerController *)picker didFinishPickingImage:(UIImage *)img1 editingInfo:(NSDictionary *)editInfo { [[picker parentViewController] dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:NO]; UIView *view = [[UIView alloc] init]; (This view for displaying the images) **imageview** = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:img1]; [imageview setFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 420)]; [self.view addSubview:imageview]; [view release]; UIBarButtonItem *rightbutton = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Email" style:UIBarButtonItemStyleBordered target:self action:@selector(rightbutton)]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = rightbutton; [rightbutton release]; } -(void) rightbutton { ***[self emailImage:(UIImage *)image]***;(I donno how to pass the image instance to mail view) } - (void)emailImage:(UIImage *)image { picker = [[MFMailComposeViewController alloc] init]; picker.mailComposeDelegate = self; [picker setToRecipients:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"[email protected]",nil]]; NSData *data = UIImagePNGRepresentation(image); [picker addAttachmentData:data mimeType:@"image/png" fileName:@"iPod Library Image"]; [self presentModalViewController:picker animated:YES]; [picker release]; } Plese help me out. Thanks.

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  • WPF DataBinding to standard CLR properties in code-behind

    - by nukefusion
    Hi everyone, Just learning WPF databinding and have a gap in my understanding. I've seen a few similar questions on StackOverflow, but I'm still struggling in determining what I have done wrong. I have a simple Person class with a Firstname and Surname property (standard CLR properties). I also have a standard CLR property on my Window class that exposes an instance of Person. I've then got some XAML, with two methods of binding. The first works, the second doesn't. Can anybody help me to understand why the second method fails? There's no binding error message in the Output log. <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:WpfApplication1" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300" DataContext="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}, Path=MyPerson}"> <StackPanel> <Label>My Person</Label> <WrapPanel> <Label>First Name:</Label> <Label Content="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType=Window, Mode=FindAncestor}, Path=MyPerson.FirstName}"></Label> </WrapPanel> <WrapPanel> <Label>Last Name:</Label> <Label Content="{Binding MyPerson.Surname}"></Label> </WrapPanel> </StackPanel> Edit: Ok, thanks so far. I've changed the second expression to: <Label Content="{Binding Surname}"></Label> I still can't get it to work though!

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  • How to access a superclass's class attributes in Python?

    - by Brecht Machiels
    Have a look at the following code: class A(object): defaults = {'a': 1} def __getattr__(self, name): print('A.__getattr__') return self.get_default(name) @classmethod def get_default(cls, name): # some debug output print('A.get_default({}) - {}'.format(name, cls)) try: print(super(cls, cls).defaults) # as expected except AttributeError: #except for the base object class, of course pass # the actual function body try: return cls.defaults[name] except KeyError: return super(cls, cls).get_default(name) # infinite recursion #return cls.__mro__[1].get_default(name) # this works, though class B(A): defaults = {'b': 2} class C(B): defaults = {'c': 3} c = C() print('c.a =', c.a) I have a hierarchy of classes each with its own dictionary containing some default values. If an instance of a class doesn't have a particular attribute, a default value for it should be returned instead. If no default value for the attribute is contained in the current class's defaults dictionary, the superclass's defaults dictionary should be searched. I'm trying to implement this using the recursive class method get_default. The program gets stuck in an infinite recursion, unfortunately. My understanding of super() is obviously lacking. By accessing __mro__, I can get it to work properly though, but I'm not sure this is a proper solution. I have the feeling the answer is somewhere in this article, but I haven't been able to find it yet. Perhaps I need to resort to using a metaclass?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Paging for a search form

    - by James Alexander
    I've read several different posts on paging w/ in MVC but none describe a scenario where I have something like a search form and then want to display the results of the search criteria (with paging) beneath the form once the user clicks submit. My problem is that, the paging solution I'm using will create <a href="..."> links that will pass the desired page like so: http://mysite.com/search/2/ and while that's all fine and dandy, I don't have the results of the query being sent to the db in memory or anything so I need to query the DB again. If the results are handled by the POST controller action for /Search and the first page of the data is rendered as such, how do I get the same results (based on the form criteria specified by the user) when the user clicks to move to page 2? Some javascript voodoo? Leverage Session State? Make my GET controller action have the same variables expected by the search criteria (but optional), when the GET action is called, instantiate a FormCollection instance, populate it and pass it to the POST action method (there-by satisfying DRY)? Can someone point me in the right direction for this scenario or provide examples that have been implemented in the past? Thanks!

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  • Repeatedly execute a stored procedure

    - by manivineet
    I have a situation where I need to repeatedly execute a stored procedure Now this procedure (spMAIN) has a cursor inside which looks for a value from a table as T1,which has the following structure ID Status ---- -------- 1 New 2 New 3 success 4 Error now the cursor looks for all rows with a status of 'New' Now while processing , if that instance of the cursor encounters an error, another SP say spError needs to be called, the 'Status' column in T1 needs to be updated to 'Error' and spMAIN needs to be called again which again repeats the process, looking for rows with 'new' how do I do it? Also, also, while we are at it, what if an SP has other SPs inside it and if any of those SP raises an error, same thing needs to be done, the T1 table needs to be updated ('Error') and spMAIN needs to be called again. can you also recommend something ? here's some code ALTER PROC zzSpMain AS BEGIN DECLARE @id INT BEGIN TRY IF EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM dbo.zzTest WHERE istatus = 'new' ) BEGIN DECLARE c CURSOR FOR SELECT id FROM zztest WHERE istatus = 'new' OPEN c FETCH NEXT FROM c INTO @id WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS = 0 BEGIN PRINT @id IF @id = 2 BEGIN UPDATE zztest SET istatus = 'error' WHERE id = @id RAISERROR ( 'Error occured', 16, 1 ) END UPDATE zztest SET istatus = 'processed' WHERE id = @id FETCH NEXT FROM c INTO @id END CLOSE c DEALLOCATE c END END TRY begin CATCH EXEC zzSpError END CATCH END

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  • How to sort objects in a many-to-many relationship in ruby on rails?

    - by Kenji Kina
    I've been trying to deal with this problem for a couple of hours now and haven't been able to come up with a clean solution. It seems I'm not too good with rails... Anyway, I have the following: In code: class Article < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :line_aspects, :dependent => :destroy has_many :aspects, :through => :line_aspects #plus a name field end class LineAspect < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :article belongs_to :aspect end class Aspect < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :data_type has_many :line_aspects has_many :articles, :through => :line_aspects end Now, what I would like to do, is to sort these in two steps. First list of Articles by their Articles.name, and then inside sort them by Aspect.name (note, not the middleman). For instance, alphabetically (sorry if the notation is not correct): [{ article => 'Apple', line_aspects => [ {:value => 'red'}, #corresponding to the Attribute with :name => 'color' {:value => 'small'} #corresponding to the Attribute with :name => 'shape' ] },{ article => 'Watermelon', line_aspects => [ {:value => 'green'}, #corresponding to the Attribute with :name => 'color' {:value => 'big'} #corresponding to the Attribute with :name => 'shape' ] }] Again, note that these are ordered by the aspect name (color before shape) instead of the specific values of each line (red before green). (NOTE: My intention is to displaye these in a table in the view) I have not found a good way to do this in rails yet (without resorting to N queries). Can anyone tell me a good way to do it?

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  • How to remove a status message added by the seam security module?

    - by Joshua
    I would like to show a different status message, when a suspended user tries to login. If the user is active we return true from the authenticate method, if not we add a custom StatusMessage message mentioning that the "User X has been suspended". The underlying Identity authentication also fails and adds a StatusMessage. I tried removing the seam generated statusMessage with the following methods, but it doesn't seem to work and shows me 2 different status messages (my custom message, seam generated). What would be the issue here? StatusMessages statusMessages; statusMessages.clear() statusMessages.clearGlobalMessages() statusMessages.clearKeyedMessages(id) EDIT1: public boolean authenticate() { log.info("Authenticating {0}", identity.getCredentials().getUsername()); String username = identity.getCredentials().getUsername(); String password = identity.getCredentials().getPassword(); // return true if the authentication was // successful, false otherwise try { Query query = entityManager.createNamedQuery("user.by.login.id"); query.setParameter("loginId", username); // only active users can log in query.setParameter("status", "ACTIVE"); currentUser = (User)query.getSingleResult(); } catch (PersistenceException ignore) { // Provide a status message for the locked account statusMessages.clearGlobalMessages(); statusMessages.addFromResourceBundle( "login.account.locked", new Object[] { username }); return false; } IdentityManager identityManager = IdentityManager.instance(); if (!identityManager.authenticate(username, "password")) { return false; } else { log.info("Authenticated user {0} successfully", username); } }

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  • Action Filter Dependency Injection in ASP.NET MVC 3 RC2 with StructureMap

    - by Ben
    Hi, I've been playing with the DI support in ASP.NET MVC RC2. I have implemented session per request for NHibernate and need to inject ISession into my "Unit of work" action filter. If I reference the StructureMap container directly (ObjectFactory.GetInstance) or use DependencyResolver to get my session instance, everything works fine: ISession Session { get { return DependencyResolver.Current.GetService<ISession>(); } } However if I attempt to use my StructureMap filter provider (inherits FilterAttributeFilterProvider) I have problems with committing the NHibernate transaction at the end of the request. It is as if ISession objects are being shared between requests. I am seeing this frequently as all my images are loaded via an MVC controller so I get 20 or so NHibernate sessions created on a normal page load. I added the following to my action filter: ISession Session { get { return DependencyResolver.Current.GetService<ISession>(); } } public ISession SessionTest { get; set; } public override void OnResultExecuted(System.Web.Mvc.ResultExecutedContext filterContext) { bool sessionsMatch = (this.Session == this.SessionTest); SessionTest is injected using the StructureMap Filter provider. I found that on a page with 20 images, "sessionsMatch" was false for 2-3 of the requests. My StructureMap configuration for session management is as follows: For<ISessionFactory>().Singleton().Use(new NHibernateSessionFactory().GetSessionFactory()); For<ISession>().HttpContextScoped().Use(ctx => ctx.GetInstance<ISessionFactory>().OpenSession()); In global.asax I call the following at the end of each request: public Global() { EndRequest += (sender, e) => { ObjectFactory.ReleaseAndDisposeAllHttpScopedObjects(); }; } Is this configuration thread safe? Previously I was injecting dependencies into the same filter using a custom IActionInvoker. This worked fine until MVC 3 RC2 when I started experiencing the problem above, which is why I thought I would try using a filter provider instead. Any help would be appreciated Ben P.S. I'm using NHibernate 3 RC and the latest version of StructureMap

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  • Running ASP / ASP.NET markup outside of a web application (perhaps with MVC)

    - by Frank Schwieterman
    Is there a way to include some aspx/ascx markup in a DLL and use that to generate text dynamically? I really just want to pass a model instance to a view and get the produced html as a string. Similar to what you might do with an XSLT transform, except the transform input is a CLR object rather than an XML document. A second benefit is using the ASP.NET code-behind markup which is known by most team members. One way to achieve this would be to load the MVC view engine in-process and perhaps have it use an ASPX file from a resource. It seems like I could call into just the ViewEngine somehow and have it generate a ViewEngineResult. I don't know ASP.NET MVC well enough though to know what calls to make. I don't think this would be possible with classic ASP or ASP.NET as the control model is so tied to the page model, which doesn't exist in this case. Using something like SparkViewEngine in isolation would be cool too, though not as useful since other team members wouldn't know the syntax. At that point I might as well use XSLT (yes I am looking for a clever way to avoid XSLT).

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  • Return an empty collection when Linq where returns nothing

    - by ahsteele
    I am using the below statement with the intent of getting all of the machine objects from the MachineList collection (type IEnumerable) that have a MachineStatus of i. The MachineList collection will not always contain machines with a status of i. At times when no machines have a MachineStatus of i I'd like to return an empty collection. My call to ActiveMachines (which is used first) works but InactiveMachines does not. public IEnumerable<Machine> ActiveMachines { get { return Customer.MachineList .Where(m => m.MachineStatus == "a"); } } public IEnumerable<Machine> InactiveMachines { get { return Customer.MachineList .Where(m => m.MachineStatus == "i"); } } Edit Upon further examination it appears that any enumeration of MachineList will cause subsequent enumerations of MachineList to throw an exeception: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Therefore, it doesn't matter if a call is made to ActiveMachines or InactiveMachines as its an issue with the MachineList collection. This is especially troubling because I can break calls to MachineList simply by enumerating it in a Watch before it is called in code. At its lowest level MachineList implements NHibernate.IQuery being returned as an IEnumerable. What's causing MachineList to lose its contents after an initial enumeration?

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  • Finding the right terminology for a dictionary table

    - by Karl Forner
    My concern is about what I currently call "dictionary tables", that are database tables containing a list of controlled vocabulary. Let's use an example: Suppose you have a table User containing fields: user_id : primary key first_name last_name user_type_id : foreign key to the UserType table and another table UserType with just two fields: user_type_id : primary key name : the name/value of a particular type of user. For instance, the UserType table may contain (1, Administrator), (2, PowerUser), (3, Normal)... My question is: what is the canonical term for a table like UserType, that only contains a list of (dictinct) words. I want to publish some code that help managing this kind of tables, but first I have to name them ! Thanks for your help. Current state of thought: For now I feel Lookup Tables is a good term. It is also used with the same meaning in these posts: http://dbix-class.35028.n2.nabble.com/RFC-Component-for-Lookup-tables-td3504085.html http://tonyandrews.blogspot.de/2004/10/otlt-and-eav-two-big-design-mistakes.html Lookup Tables Best Practices: DB Tables... or Enumerations The only problem is that lookup table is also sometimes used to name a junction table.

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  • Unable to use stored procs in a generic repository for the entity framework. (ASP.NET MVC 2)

    - by Matt
    Hi, I have a generic repository that uses the entity framework to manipulate the database. The original code is credited to Morshed Anwar's post on CodeProject. I've taken his code and modified is slightly to fit my needs. Unfortunately I'm unable to call an Imported Function because the function is only recognized for my specific instance of the entity framework public class Repository<E, C> : IRepository<E, C>, IDisposable where E : EntityObject where C : ObjectContext { private readonly C _ctx; public ObjectResult<MyObject> CallFunction() { // This does not work because "CallSomeImportedFunction" only works on // My object. I also cannot cast it (TrackItDBEntities)_ctx.CallSomeImportedFunction(); // Not really sure why though... but either way that kind of ruins the genericness off it. return _ctx.CallSomeImportedFunction(); } } Anyone know how I can make this work with the repository I already have? Or does anyone know a generic way of calling stored procedures with entity framework? Thanks, Matt

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  • jQuery inconsistent .remove by class on element with multiple classes

    - by pedalpete
    I've got a page where messages and associated elements (responses, forwards, etc) all share a class based on the database id of the parent. For example this is a message this is another message this is a comment this is another comment tim posted a new message sara forwarded a message to john at times I need to remove all elements with the same id, so I originally had jQuery('div#'+id).remove(); but that would sometimes not remove all the ids because ids are supposed to be unique. So I added the id as a class. now I use jQuery('div.'+id).remove(); but this seems to be about 80% effective, and sometimes the divs aren't being removed. I'm not sure if the issue is because the div has more than one class, but I need the classes because that is how I refer to the elements when somebody clicks. For instance, jQuery('div.message').click(function(){ get the id, send it to the server and get the message }); is there something wrong I'm doing here? or is there a better way to do this?

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  • View Models (ViewData), UserControls/Partials and Global variables - best practice?

    - by elado
    Hi I'm trying to figure out a good way to have 'global' members (such as CurrentUser, Theme etc.) in all of my partials as well as in my views. I don't want to have a logic class that can return this data (like BL.CurrentUser) I do think it needs to be a part of the Model in my views So I tried inheriting from BaseViewData with these members. In my controllers, in this way or another (a filter or base method in my BaseController), I create an instance of the inheriting class and pass it as a view data. Everything's perfect till this point, cause then I have my view data available on the main View with the base members. But what about partials? If I have a simple partial that needs to display a blog post then it looks like this: <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" Inherits="ViewUserControl<Post>" %> and simple code to render this partial in my view (that its model.Posts is IEnumerable<Post>): <%foreach (Post p in this.Model.Posts) {%> <%Html.RenderPartial("Post",p); %> <%}%> Since the partial's Model isn't BaseViewData, I don't have access to those properties. Hence, I tried to make a class named PostViewData which inherits from BaseViewData, but then my containing views will have a code to actually create the PostViewData in them in order to pass it to the partial: <%Html.RenderPartial("Post",new PostViewData { Post=p,CurrentUser=Model.CurrentUser,... }); %> Or I could use a copy constructor <%Html.RenderPartial("Post",new PostViewData(Model) { Post=p }); %> I just wonder if there's any other way to implement this before I move on. Any suggestions? Thanks!

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  • Setting nested object to null when selected option has empty value

    - by Javi
    Hello, I have a Class which models a User and another which models his country. Something like this: public class User{ private Country country; //other attributes and getter/setters } public class Country{ private Integer id; private String name; //other attributes and getter/setters } I have a Spring form where I have a combobox so the user can select his country or can select the undefined option to indicate he doen't want to provide this information. So I have something like this: <form:select path="country"> <form:option value="">-Select one-</form:option> <form:options items="${countries}" itemLabel="name" itemValue="id"/> </form:select> In my controller I get the autopopulated object with the user information and I want to have country set to null when the "-Select one-" option has been selected. So I have set a initBinder with a custom editor like this: @InitBinder protected void initBinder(WebDataBinder binder) throws ServletException { binder.registerCustomEditor(Country.class, "country", new CustomCountryEditor()); } and my editor do something like this: public class CustomCountryEditor(){ @Override public String getAsText() { //I return the Id of the country } @Override public void setAsText(String str) { //I search in the database for a country with id = new Integer(str) //and set country to that value //or I set country to null in case str == null } } When I submit the form it works because when I have country set to null when I have selected "-Select one-" option or the instance of the country selected. The problem is that when I load the form I have a method like the following one to load the user information. @ModelAttribute("user") public User getUser(){ //loads user from database } The object I get from getUser() has country set to a specific country (not a null value), but in the combobox is not selected any option. I've debugged the application and the CustomCountryEditor works good when setting and getting the text, thoughgetAsText method is called for every item in the list "countries" not only for the "country" field. Any idea? Is there a better way to set null the country object when I select no country option in the combobox? Thanks

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  • Where can I find a list of all possible messages that an XmlException can contain?

    - by Rahul
    I'm writing an XML code editor and I want to display syntax errors in the user interface. Because my code editor is strongly constrained to a particular problem domain and audience, I want to rewrite certain XMLException messages to be more meaningful for users. For instance, an exception message like this: '"' is an unexpected token. The expected token is '='. Line 30, position 35 .. is very technical and not very informative to my audience. Instead, I'd like to rewrite it and other messages to something else. For completeness' sake that means I need to build up a dictionary of existing messages mapped to the new message I would like to display instead. To accomplish that I'm going to need a list of all possible messages XMLException can contain. Is there such a list somewhere? Or can I find out the possible messages through inspection of objects in C#? Edit: specifically, I am using XmlDocument.LoadXml to parse a string into an XmlDocument, and that method throws an XmlException when there are syntax errors. So specifically, my question is where I can find a list of messages applied to XmlException by XmlDocument.LoadXml. The discussion about there potentially being a limitless variation of actual strings in the Message property of XmlException is moot.

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  • Communication between EJB3 Instances (JEE inter-bean communication) possible?

    - by Hank
    I'm designing a part of a JEE6 application, consisting of EJB3 beans. Part of the requirements are multiple parallel (say a few hundred) long running (over days) database hunts. Individual hunts have different search parameters (start time, end time, query filter). Parameters may get changed over time. Currently I'm thinking of the following: SearchController (Stateless Session Bean) formulates a set of search parameters, sends it off to a SearchListener via JMS SearchListener (Message Driven Bean) receives search parameters, instantiates a SearchWorker with the parameters SearchWorker (SLSB) hunts repeatedly through the database; when it finds something, the result is sent off via JMS, and the search continues; when the given 'end-time' has reached, it ends What I'm wondering now: Is there a problem, with EJB3 instances running for days? (Other than that I need to be able to deal with container restarts...) How do I know how many and which EJB instances of SearchWorker are currently running? Is it possible to communicate with them individually (similar to sending a System V signal to a unix process), e.g. to send new parameters, to end an instance, etc..

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