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  • Accessing type members outside the class in Scala

    - by Pekka Mattila
    Hi, I am trying to understand type members in Scala. I wrote a simple example that tries to explain my question. First, I created two classes for types: class BaseclassForTypes class OwnType extends BaseclassForTypes Then, I defined an abstract type member in trait and then defined the type member in a concerete class: trait ScalaTypesTest { type T <: BaseclassForTypes def returnType: T } class ScalaTypesTestImpl extends ScalaTypesTest { type T = OwnType override def returnType: T = { new T } } Then, I want to access the type member (yes, the type is not needed here, but this explains my question). Both examples work. Solution 1. Declaring the type, but the problem here is that it does not use the type member and the type information is duplicated (caller and callee). val typeTest = new ScalaTypesTestImpl val typeObject:OwnType = typeTest.returnType // declare the type second time here true must beTrue Solution 2. Initializing the class and using the type through the object. I don't like this, since the class needs to be initialized val typeTest = new ScalaTypesTestImpl val typeObject:typeTest.T = typeTest.returnType // through an instance true must beTrue So, is there a better way of doing this or are type members meant to be used only with the internal implementation of a class?

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  • "ImportError: cannot import name Exchange" when using Celery w/ Kombu installed

    - by alukach
    I'm trying to create a Celery worker node on an Amazon EC2 Windows2008 R2 instance. Due to a plugin we require for another Python module, we are required to user Python3. I've installed Python3.2 and necessary modules and run Celery, but for some reason it states that it can't import Exchange and Queue from Kombu, despite the face that Kombu is installed and can be imported by python. Microsoft Windows [Version 6.1.7601] Copyright (c) 2009 Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved. C:\Users\Administrator>celery Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Python32\Scripts\celery-script.py", line 9, in <module> load_entry_point('celery==3.0.11', 'console_scripts', 'celery')() File "C:\Python32\lib\site-packages\celery\__main__.py", line 13, in main from celery.bin.celery import main File "C:\Python32\lib\site-packages\celery\bin\celery.py", line 21, in <module> from celery.utils import term File "C:\Python32\lib\site-packages\celery\utils\__init__.py", line 22, in <module> from kombu import Exchange, Queue ImportError: cannot import name Exchange C:\Users\Administrator>python Python 3.2 (r32:88445, Feb 20 2011, 21:29:02) [MSC v.1500 32 bit (Intel)] on win32 Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> from kombu import Exchange, Queue >>> print('WTF?!?') WTF?!? >>> This problem seems similar to this and this, but I have not been able to remedy the issue. Any ideas?

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  • How to prevent external translation of a movieclip object on stage in AS3?

    - by Aaron H.
    I have a MovieClip object, which is exported for actionscript (AS3) in an .swc file. When I place an instance of the clip on the stage without any modifications, it appears in the upper left corner, about half off stage (i.e. only the lower right quadrant of the object is visible). I understand that this is because the clip has a registration point which is not the upper left corner. If you call getBounds() on the movieclip you can get the bounds of the clip (presumably from the "point" that it's aligned on) which looks something like (left: -303, top: -100, right: 303, bottom: 100), you can subtract the left and top values from the clip x and y: clip.x -= bounds.left; clip.y -= bounds.top; This seems to properly align the clip fully on stage with the top left of the clip squarely in the corner of the stage. But! Following that logic doesn't seem to work when aligning it on the center of the stage! clip.x = (stage.stageWidth / 2); etc... This creates the crazy parallel universe where the clip is now down in the lower right corner of the stage. The only clue I have is that looking at: clip.transform.matrix and clip.transform.concatenatedMatrix matrix has a tx value of 748 (half of stage height) ty value of 426 (Half of stage height) concatenatedMatrix has a tx value of 1699.5 and ty value of 967.75 That's also obviously where the movieclip is getting positioned, but why? Where is this additional translation coming from?

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  • Android: Is it possible to have multiple styles inside a TextView?

    - by Legend
    I was wondering if its possible to set multiple styles for different pieces of text inside a TextView. For instance, I am setting the text as follows: descbox.setText(line1 + "\n" + line2 + "\n" + word1 + "\t" + word2 + "\t" + word3); Now, is it possible to have a different style for each text element? I mean bold for line1, normal for word1 and so on... I found this http://developer.android.com/guide/appendix/faq/commontasks.html#selectingtext: // Get our EditText object. EditText vw = (EditText)findViewById(R.id.text); // Set the EditText's text. vw.setText("Italic, highlighted, bold."); // If this were just a TextView, we could do: // vw.setText("Italic, highlighted, bold.", TextView.BufferType.SPANNABLE); // to force it to use Spannable storage so styles can be attached. // Or we could specify that in the XML. // Get the EditText's internal text storage Spannable str = vw.getText(); // Create our span sections, and assign a format to each. str.setSpan(new StyleSpan(android.graphics.Typeface.ITALIC), 0, 7, Spannable.SPAN_EXCLUSIVE_EXCLUSIVE); str.setSpan(new BackgroundColorSpan(0xFFFFFF00), 8, 19, Spannable.SPAN_EXCLUSIVE_EXCLUSIVE); str.setSpan(new StyleSpan(android.graphics.Typeface.BOLD), 21, str.length() - 1, Spannable.SPAN_EXCLUSIVE_EXCLUSIVE); But it uses position numbers inside the text. Is there a cleaner way to do this?

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  • Subclass of UIView with Xib file.

    - by rdesign
    Hey guys, Although I've searched the Board and used google, I didn't get any useful results. I've trying to make a subclass of UIView loading its view from a xib file. My approach is the following: 1. Creating a subclass (named mySubclass): @interface mySubclass : UIView { } @end Creating a view through: Add New File... User Interface View XIB Connecting the Xib and the subclass: In IB select the View and set the class to mySubclass. In my viewController I make an instance of my new subclass and add to my view. -(void)viewDidLoad { mySubclassIns = [[mySubclass alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 460)]; [self.view addSubview:mySubclassIns]; [super viewDidLoad]; } Result: Noting shows up in my App :( If I don't set it up programmatically but rather with IB it doesn't work either. (Am I setting it up right when choosing a view in IB and set the class to myClass?) I would be really thankful for your help! Thanks in advance.

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  • How to deserialize an element as an XmlNode?

    - by mackenir
    When using Xml serialization in C#, I want to deserialize a part of my input XML to an XmlNode. So, given this XML: <Thing Name="George"> <Document> <subnode1/> <subnode2/> </Document> </Thing> I want to deserialize the Document element to an XmlNode. Below is my attempt which given the XML above, sets Document to the 'subnode1' element rather than the 'Document' element. How would I get the code to set the Document property to the Document element? using System; using System.IO; using System.Xml; using System.Xml.Serialization; [Serializable] public class Thing { [XmlAttribute] public string Name {get;set;} public XmlNode Document { get; set; } } class Program { static void Main() { const string xml = @" <Thing Name=""George""> <Document> <subnode1/> <subnode2/> </Document> </Thing>"; var s = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Thing)); var thing = s.Deserialize(new StringReader(xml)) as Thing; } } However, when I use an XmlSerializer to deserialize the XML above to an instance of Thing, the Document property contains the child element 'subnode1', rather than the 'doc' element. How can I get the XmlSerializer to set Document to an XmlNode containing the 'doc' element.

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  • Magento failure.phtml, get the order total

    - by Kieran
    Hello. One of the projects I work on has the failure page and success page in magento as exactly the same and requires some tracking code on both. The tracking code requires the order ID and the amount being ordered. The issue I'm having is trying to get the order total on the failure page. The methods built into the block class Mage_Checkout_Block_Onepage_Failure are getRealOrderId(), getErrorMessage() and getContinueShoppingUrl(), so no help there. I found some code to do what I want on the success page but it doesn't work for the failure page. <?php $orderId = $this->getRealOrderId(); $order = Mage::getSingleton('sales/order'); $order->load($orderId); $_totalData = $order->getData(); $_grand = $_totalData['grand_total']; ?> I dumped $order and $_totalData. $_totalData just an empty array and $order an empty Mage_Sales_Model_Order instance. Does anyone have any suggestions for where to get the grand total of what is being purchased? Regards, Kieran (I'm also having issues testing the success page as I can't get to it, even putting in the correct test card details on the dev server - but I'll find a way around this)

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  • Create image from scratch with JMagick

    - by Michael IV
    I am using Java port of ImageMagick called JMagick .I need to be able to create a new image and write an arbitrary text chunk into it.The docs are very poor and what I managed to get so far is to write text into the image which comes from IO.Also , in all the examples I have found it seems like the very first operation ,before writing new image data , is always loading of an existing image into ImageInfo instance.How do I create an image from scratch with JMagick and then write a text into it? Here is what I do now : try { ImageInfo info = new ImageInfo(); info.setSize("512x512"); info.setUnits(ResolutionType.PixelsPerInchResolution); info.setColorspace(ColorspaceType.RGBColorspace); info.setBorderColor(PixelPacket.queryColorDatabase("red")); info.setDepth(8); BufferedImage img = new BufferedImage(512,512,BufferedImage.TYPE_4BYTE_ABGR); byte[] imageBytes = ((DataBufferByte) img.getData().getDataBuffer()).getData(); MagickImage mimage = new MagickImage(info,imageBytes); DrawInfo aInfo = new DrawInfo(info); aInfo.setFill(PixelPacket.queryColorDatabase("green")); aInfo.setUnderColor(PixelPacket.queryColorDatabase("yellow")); aInfo.setOpacity(0); aInfo.setPointsize(36); aInfo.setFont("Arial"); aInfo.setTextAntialias(true); aInfo.setText("JMagick Tutorial"); aInfo.setGeometry("+40+40"); mimage.annotateImage(aInfo); mimage.setFileName("text.jpg"); mimage.writeImage(info); } catch (MagickException ex) { Logger.getLogger(LWJGL_IDOMOO_SIMPLE_TEST.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } It doesn't work , the JVM crashes with access violation as it probably expects for the input image from IO.

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  • Question about the Cloneable interface and the exception that should be thrown

    - by Nazgulled
    Hi, The Java documentation says: A class implements the Cloneable interface to indicate to the Object.clone() method that it is legal for that method to make a field-for-field copy of instances of that class. Invoking Object's clone method on an instance that does not implement the Cloneable interface results in the exception CloneNotSupportedException being thrown. By convention, classes that implement this interface should override Object.clone (which is protected) with a public method. See Object.clone() for details on overriding this method. Note that this interface does not contain the clone method. Therefore, it is not possible to clone an object merely by virtue of the fact that it implements this interface. Even if the clone method is invoked reflectively, there is no guarantee that it will succeed. And I have this UserProfile class: public class UserProfile implements Cloneable { private String name; private int ssn; private String address; public UserProfile(String name, int ssn, String address) { this.name = name; this.ssn = ssn; this.address = address; } public UserProfile(UserProfile user) { this.name = user.getName(); this.ssn = user.getSSN(); this.address = user.getAddress(); } // get methods here... @Override public UserProfile clone() { return new UserProfile(this); } } And for testing porpuses, I do this in main(): UserProfile up1 = new UserProfile("User", 123, "Street"); UserProfile up2 = up1.clone(); So far, no problems compiling/running. Now, per my understanding of the documentation, removing implements Cloneable from the UserProfile class should throw an exception in up1.clone() call, but it doesn't. I've read around here that the Cloneable interface is broken but I don't really know what that means. Am I missing something?

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  • Syncing two separate structures to the same master data

    - by Mike Burton
    I've got multiple structures to maintain in my application. All link to the same records, and one of them could be considered the "master" in that it reflects actual relationships held in files on disk. The other structures are used to "call out" elements of the main design for purchase and work orders. I'm struggling to come up with a pattern that deals appropriately with changes to the master data. As an example, the following trees might refer to the same data: A |_ B |_ C |_ D |_ E |_ B |_ C |_ D A |_ B E C |_ D A |_ B C D E These secondary structures follow internal rules, but their overall structure is usually user-determined. In all cases (including the master), any element can be used in multiple locations and in multiple trees. When I add a child to any element in the tree, I want to either automatically build the secondary structure for each instance of the "master" element or at least advertise the situation to the user and allow them to manually generate the data required for the secondary trees. Is there any pattern which might apply to this situation? I've been treating it as a view problem, but it turns out to be more complicated than that when you look at the initial generation of the data.

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  • Updating multiple divs w/ RJS/AJAX

    - by bgadoci
    I am successfully using RJS to implement AJAX on a page.replace.html create.js.rjs. I am attempting to update two locations instead of one and after watching Ryan Bates Railscast I am very close (I think) but have a problem in the syntax of my /views/likes/create.js.rjs file. Here is the situation: located at /views/likes/create.js.rjs is the following code: page.replace_html "votes_#{ @site.id }", :partial => @like page.replace_html "counter", 10 - (@question.likes.count :conditions => {:user_id => current_user.id}) page[@like].visual_effect :highlight My problem lies in the second line. The div "counter" displays the following code in the /views/question/show.html.erb page: <div id="counter"> You have <%= 10 - (@question.likes.count :conditions => {:user_id => current_user.id}) %> votes remaining for this question </div> From watching the screen cast I believe that my error has to do w/ the syntax of the second line. Specifically he mentions that you cannot use a local instance variable but not sure how to make the change. Thoughts?

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  • Create dynamic factory method in PHP (< 5.3)

    - by fireeyedboy
    How would one typically create a dynamic factory method in PHP? By dynamic factory method, I mean a factory method that will autodiscover what objects there are to create, based on some aspect of the given argument. Preferably without registering them first with the factory either. I'm OK with having the possible objects be placed in one common place (a directory) though. I want to avoid your typical switch statement in the factory method, such as this: public static function factory( $someObject ) { $className = get_class( $someObject ); switch( $className ) { case 'Foo': return new FooRelatedObject(); break; case 'Bar': return new BarRelatedObject(); break; // etc... } } My specific case deals with the factory creating a voting repository based on the item to vote for. The items all implement a Voteable interface. Something like this: Default_User implements Voteable ... Default_Comment implements Voteable ... Default_Event implements Voteable ... Default_VoteRepositoryFactory { public static function factory( Voteable $item ) { // autodiscover what type of repository this item needs // for instance, Default_User needs a Default_VoteRepository_User // etc... return new Default_VoteRepository_OfSomeType(); } } I want to be able to drop in new Voteable items and Vote repositories for these items, without touching the implementation of the factory.

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  • Unit Testing (xUnit) an ASP.NET Mvc Controller with a custom input model?

    - by Danny Douglass
    I'm having a hard time finding information on what I expect to be a pretty straightforward scenario. I'm trying to unit test an Action on my ASP.NET Mvc 2 Controller that utilizes a custom input model w/ DataAnnotions. My testing framework is xUnit, as mentioned in the title. Here is my custom Input Model: public class EnterPasswordInputModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "")] public string Username { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Password is a required field.")] public string Password { get; set; } } And here is my Controller (took out some logic to simplify for this ex.): [HttpPost] public ActionResult EnterPassword(EnterPasswordInputModel enterPasswordInput) { if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); // do some logic to validate input // if valid - next View on successful validation return View("NextViewName"); // else - add and display error on current view return View(); } And here is my xUnit Fact (also simplified): [Fact] public void EnterPassword_WithValidInput_ReturnsNextView() { // Arrange var controller = CreateLoginController(userService.Object); // Act var result = controller.EnterPassword( new EnterPasswordInputModel { Username = username, Password = password }) as ViewResult; // Assert Assert.Equal("NextViewName", result.ViewName); } When I run my test I get the following error on my test fact when trying to retrieve the controller result (Act section): System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Thanks in advance for any help you can offer!

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  • Match entities fulfilling filter (strict superset of search)

    - by Jon
    I have an entity (let's say Person) with a set of arbitrary attributes with a known subset of values. I need to search for all of these entities that match all my filter conditions. That is, given a set of Attributes A, I need to find all people that have a set of Attributes that are a superset of A. For example, my table structures look like this: Person: id | name 1 | John Doe 2 | Jane Roe 3 | John Smith Attribute: id | attr_name 1 | Sex 2 | Eye Color ValidValue: id | attr_id | value_name 1 | 1 | Male 2 | 1 | Female 3 | 2 | Blue 4 | 2 | Green 5 | 2 | Brown PersonAttributes id | person_id | attr_id | value_id 1 | 1 | 1 | 1 2 | 1 | 2 | 3 3 | 2 | 1 | 2 4 | 2 | 2 | 4 5 | 3 | 1 | 1 6 | 3 | 2 | 4 In JPA, I have entities built for all of these tables. What I'd like to do is perform a search for all entities matching a given set of attribute-value pairs. For instance, I'd like to be able to find all males (John Doe and John Smith), all people with green eyes (Jane Roe or John Smith), or all females with green eyes (Jane Roe). I see that I can already take advantage of the fact that I only really need to match on value_id, since that's already unique and tied to the attr_id. But where can I go from there? I've been trying to do something like the following, given that the ValidValue is unique in all cases: select distinct p from Person p join p.personAttributes a where a.value IN (:values) Then I've tried putting my set of required values in as "values", but that gives me errors no matter how I try to structure that. I also have to get a little more complicated, as follows, but at this point I'd be happy with solving the first problem cleanly. However, if it's possible, the Attribute table actually has a field for default value: id | attr_name | default_value 1 | Sex | 1 2 | Eye Color | 5 If the value you're searching on happens to be the default value, I want it to return any people that have no explicit value set for that attribute, because in the application logic, that means they inherit the default value. Again, I'm more concerned about the primary question, but if someone who can help with that also has some idea of how to do this one, I'd be extremely grateful.

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  • WCF object parameter loses values

    - by Josh
    I'm passing an object to a WCF service and wasn't getting anything back. I checked the variable as it gets passed to the method that actually does the work and noticed that none of the values are set on the object at that point. Here's the object: [DataContract] public class Section { [DataMember] public long SectionID { get; set; } [DataMember] public string Title { get; set; } [DataMember] public string Text { get; set; } [DataMember] public int Order { get; set; } } Here's the service code for the method: [OperationContract] public List<Section> LoadAllSections(Section s) { return SectionRepository.Instance().LoadAll(s); } The code that actually calls this method is this and is located in a Silverlight XAML file: SectionServiceClient proxy = new SectionServiceClient(); proxy.LoadAllSectionsCompleted += new EventHandler<LoadAllSectionsCompletedEventArgs>(proxy_LoadAllSectionsCompleted); Section s = new Section(); s.SectionID = 4; proxy.LoadAllSectionsAsync(s); When the code finally gets into the method LoadAllSections(Section s), the parameter's SectionID is not set. I stepped through the code and when it goes into the generated code that returns an IAsyncResult object, the object's properties are set. But when it actually calls the method, LoadAllSections, the parameter received is completely blank. Is there something I have to set to make the proeprty stick between method calls?

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  • maven-release-plugin: Perform fails with 'working directory "...workspace\target\checkout\workspace"

    - by Ed
    Hi, I have maven project that fails when release:perform is called, though release;prepare works as expected. I have found the bug report (below) which certainly seems to resemble the issue I have but not entirely sure I understand the problem: MRELEASE516 The last few lines of output I get: [INFO] Executing: cmd.exe /X /C "p4 -d E:\hudson\jobs\myHudsonJob\workspace\target\checkout -p 10.20.0.38:1666 client -d myProjectWorkspace-MavenSCM-E:\hudson\jobs\myHudsonJob\workspace\target\checkout" [INFO] Executing goals 'deploy'... [WARNING] Base directory is a file. Using base directory as POM location. [WARNING] Maven will be executed in interactive mode, but no input stream has been configured for this MavenInvoker instance. [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [ERROR] BUILD ERROR [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] Error executing Maven. Working directory "E:\hudson\jobs\myHudsonJob\workspace\target\checkout\workspace" does not exist! From reading the bug report the possible cause of the error is related to my modules' structure, I've tried to outline it below: /workspace | |+ pom.xml (root pom whose parent is the build pom, | calling release:perform on this pom) | [Modules: moduleA and moduleB] | |- moduleA |+ pom.xml (parent is also build pom) |+ build/pom.xml (the build pom - no custom parent) |- moduleB |+ pom.xml (parent is build pom) It seems that the root pom should be in some common directory inside 'workspace' from the error but tried that and doesn't work, nor make sense as to why I need it. What does the warning Base directory is a file want me to do instead?! It then figures that the base directory is workspace which then means the working directory is not found...any ideas? Thanks in advance.

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  • Adding custom methods to a subclassed NSManagedObject

    - by CJ
    I have a Core Data model where I have an entity A, which is an abstract. Entities B, C, and D inherit from entity A. There are several properties defined in entity A which are used by B, C, and D. I would like to leverage this inheritance in my model code. In addition to properties, I am wondering if I can add methods to entity A, which are implemented in it's sub-entities. For example: I add a method to the interface for entity A which returns a value and takes one argument I add implementations of this method to A, B, C, D Then, I call executeFetchRequest: to retrieve all instances of B I call the method on the objects retrieved, which should call the implementation of the method contained in B's implementation I have tried this, but when calling the method, I receive: [NSManagedObject methodName:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance I presume this is because the objects returned by executeFetchRequest: are proxy objects of some sort. Is there any way to leverage inheritance using subclassed NSManagedObjects? I would really like to be able to do this, otherwise my model code would be responsible for determining what type of NSManagedObject it's dealing with and perform special logic according to the type, which is undesirable. Any help is appreciated, thanks in advance.

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  • How can I use System.Web.Caching.Cache in a Console application?

    - by Ron Klein
    Context: .Net 3.5, C# I'd like to have caching mechanism in my Console application. Instead of re-inventing the wheel, I'd like to use System.Web.Caching.Cache (and that's a final decision, I can't use other caching framework, don't ask why). However, it looks like System.Web.Caching.Cache is supposed to run only in a valid HTTP context. My very simple snippet looks like this: using System; using System.Web.Caching; using System.Web; Cache c = new Cache(); try { c.Insert("a", 123); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine("cannot insert to cache, exception:"); Console.WriteLine(ex); } and the result is: cannot insert to cache, exception: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Web.Caching.Cache.Insert(String key, Object value) at MyClass.RunSnippet() So obviously, I'm doing something wrong here. Any ideas? Update: +1 to most answers, getting the cache via static methods is the correct usage, namely HttpRuntime.Cache and HttpContext.Current.Cache. Thank you all!

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  • How can I add the column data type after adding the column headers to my datatable?

    - by Kevin
    Using the code below (from a console app I've cobbled together), I add seven columns to my datatable. Once this is done, how can I set the data type for each column? For instance, column 1 of the datatable will have the header "ItemNum" and I want to set it to be an Int. I've looked at some examples on thet 'net, but most all of them show creating the column header and column data type at once, like this: loadDT.Columns.Add("ItemNum", typeof(Int)); At this point in my program, the column already has a name. I just want to do something like this (not actual code): loadDT.Column[1].ChangeType(typeof(int)); Here's my code so far (that gives the columns their name): // get column headings for datatable by reading first line of csv file. StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(@"c:\load_forecast.csv"); headers = sr.ReadLine().Split(','); foreach (string header in headers) { loadDT.Columns.Add(header); } Obviously, I'm pretty new at this, but trying very hard to learn. Can someone point me in the right direction? Thanks!

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  • Zend_Validate_Abstract custom validator not displaying correct error messages.

    - by Jeremy Dowell
    I have two text fields in a form that I need to make sure neither have empty values nor contain the same string. The custom validator that I wrote extends Zend_Validate_Abstract and works correctly in that it passes back the correct error messages. In this case either: isEmpty or isMatch. However, the documentation says to use addErrorMessages to define the correct error messages to be displayed. in this case, i have attached ->addErrorMessages(array("isEmpty"=>"foo", "isMatch"=>"bar")); to the form field. According to everything I've read, if I return "isEmpty" from isValid(), my error message should read "foo" and if i return "isMatch" then it should read "bar". This is not the case I'm running into though. If I return false from is valid, no matter what i set $this-_error() to be, my error message displays "foo", or whatever I have at index[0] of the error messages array. If I don't define errorMessages, then I just get the error code I passed back for the display and I get the proper one, depending on what I passed back. How do I catch the error code and display the correct error message in my form? The fix I have implemented, until I figure it out properly, is to pass back the full message as the errorcode from the custom validator. This will work in this instance, but the error message is specific to this page and doesn't really allow for re-use of code. Things I have already tried: I have already tried validator chaining so that my custom validator only checks for matches: ->setRequired("true") ->addValidator("NotEmpty") ->addErrorMessage("URL May Not Be Empty") ->addValidator([*customValidator]*) ->addErrorMessage("X and Y urls may not be the same") But again, if either throws an error, the last error message to be set displays, regardless of what the error truly is. I'm not entirely sure where to go from here. Any suggestions?

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  • In .NET when Aborting Thread, can this piece of code get corrupted?

    - by bosko
    Little intro: In complex multithreaded aplication (enterprise service bus EBS), I need to use Thread.Abort, because this EBS accepts user written modules which communicates with hardware security modules. So if this module gets deadlocked or hardware stops responding - i need to just unload this module and rest of this server aplication must keep runnnig. So there is abort sync mechanism which ensures that code can be aborted only in user section and this section must be marked as AbortAble. If this happen there is possibility that ThreadAbortException will be thrown in this pieace of code: public void StopAbortSection() { var id = Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId; lock (threadIdMap[id]) { .... } } If module is on AbortSection and Aplication decides to abort module, but after this decision but before actual Thread.Abort, module enters NonAbortableSection by calling this method, but lock is actualy taken on that locking object. So lock will block until Abort or abort can be executed before reaching this block by this code. But Object with this method is essential and i need to be sure that this pieace of code is safe to abort in any moment. Probably i have to mention that threadIdMap is Dictionary(int,ManualResetEvent), so locking object is instance of ManualResetEvent. I hope you now understad my question. Sorry for its largeness.

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  • What is optimal hardware configuration for heavy load LAMP application

    - by Piotr Kochanski
    I need to run Linux-Apache-PHP-MySQL application (Moodle e-learning platform) for a large number of concurrent users - I am aiming 5000 users. By concurrent I mean that 5000 people should be able to work with the application at the same time. "Work" means not only do database reads but writes as well. The application is not very typical, since it is doing a lot of inserts/updates on the database, so caching techniques are not helping to much. We are using InnoDB storage engine. In addition application is not written with performance in mind. For instance one Apache thread usually occupies about 30-50 MB of RAM. I would be greatful for information what hardware is needed to build scalable configuration that is able to handle this kind of load. We are using right now two HP DLG 380 with two 4 core processors which are able to handle much lower load (typically 300-500 concurrent users). Is it reasonable to invest in this kind of boxes and build cluster using them or is it better to go with some more high-end hardware? I am particularly curious how many and how powerful servers are needed (number of processors/cores, size of RAM) what network equipment should be used (what kind of switches, network cards) any other hardware, like particular disc storage solutions, etc, that are needed Another thing is how to put together everything, that is what is the most optimal architecture. Clustering with MySQL is rather hard (people are complaining about MySQL Cluster, even here on Stackoverflow).

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  • C# COM Cross Thread problem

    - by user364676
    Hi, we're developing a software to control a scientific measuring device. it provides a COM-Interface defines serveral functions to set measurement parameters and fires an event when it measured data. in order to test our software, i'm implementing a simulation of that device. the com-object runs a loop which periodically fires the event. another loop in the client app should now setup up the com-simulator using the given functions. i created a class for measuring parameters which will be instanciated when setting up a new measurement. // COM-Object public class MeasurementParams { public double Param1; public double Param2; } public class COM_Sim : ICOMDevice { public MeasurementParams newMeasurement; IClient client; public int NewMeasurement() { newMeasurment = new MeasurementParam(); } public int SetParam1(double val) { // why is newMeasurement null when method is called from client loop newMeasurement.Param1 = val; } void loop() { while(true) { // fire event client.HandleEvent; } } } public class Client : IClient { ICOMDevice server; public int HandleEvent() { // handle this event server.NewMeasurement(); server.SetParam1(0.0); } void loop() { while(true) { // do some stuff... server.NewMeasurement(); server.SetParam1(0.0); } } } both of the loops run in independent threads. when server.NewMeasurement() is called, the object on the server is set to a new instance. but in the next function, the object is null again. do the same when handling the server-event, it works perfectly, because the method runs in the servers thread. how to make it work from client-thread as well. as the client is meant to be working with the real device, i cannot modify the interfaces given by the manufactor. also i need to setup measurements independent from the event-handler, which will be fired not regulary. i assume this problem related to multithreaded-COM behavior but i found nothing on this topic.

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  • XML parsing using jQuery

    - by lmkk
    I have the following xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <Area xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <Scenes> <Scene Index="1" Name="Scene1" /> <Scene Index="2" Name="Scene2" /> </Scenes> </Area> Which i am trying to parse with jquery: <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "list.xml", dataType: "xml", success: function(xml) { $(xml).find('scenes').each(function(){ $(this).find('scene').each(function(){ var name = $(this).attr('name'); $('<div class="items" ></div>').html('<p>'+name+'</p>').appendTo('#page-wrap'); }); }); } }); }); </script> Why is this not working? Help!! first attempt at javascript/jquery This is based on a example I found, but have so far been unable to adapt it to my usage. / Lars

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  • How to tell axis2 to use an existing object as a service?

    - by Christian Hausknecht
    I am trying to expose some methods of a running application as a webservice. The core idea is to use an embedded web-server and send the soap messages to the apache axis2 framework in order to invoke the services. The problem is, that axis2's createService methods only accept Classes as parameter, not existing objects. So I believe that axis2 itself creates an object of the service class and then uses it to call methods when an external service call arrives. But I need to pass an existing object for being used as a service, because I need to call methods of other objects of the running application within the service methods. So the "standard" way that axis2 creates a new instance of the service class and calls then its methods is obviously no sulution for me. So is there a way to realize this? Or is there another solution? Perhaps you can pass objects later on to the allready created service object by axis2? If there is another solution without axis2 I might consider that one. Basically I am only interested in exposing some functionality of a runnning application as a webservice.

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