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  • Need help implementing this algorithm with map Hadoop MapReduce

    - by Julia
    Hi all! i have algorithm that will go through a large data set read some text files and search for specific terms in those lines. I have it implemented in Java, but I didnt want to post code so that it doesnt look i am searching for someone to implement it for me, but it is true i really need a lot of help!!! This was not planned for my project, but data set turned out to be huge, so teacher told me I have to do it like this. EDIT(i did not clarified i previos version)The data set I have is on a Hadoop cluster, and I should make its MapReduce implementation I was reading about MapReduce and thaught that i first do the standard implementation and then it will be more/less easier to do it with mapreduce. But didnt happen, since algorithm is quite stupid and nothing special, and map reduce...i cant wrap my mind around it. So here is shortly pseudo code of my algorithm LIST termList (there is method that creates this list from lucene index) FOLDER topFolder INPUT topFolder IF it is folder and not empty list files (there are 30 sub folders inside) FOR EACH sub folder GET file "CheckedFile.txt" analyze(CheckedFile) ENDFOR END IF Method ANALYZE(CheckedFile) read CheckedFile WHILE CheckedFile has next line GET line FOR(loops through termList) GET third word from line IF third word = term from list append whole line to string buffer ENDIF ENDFOR END WHILE OUTPUT string buffer to file Also, as you can see, each time when "analyze" is called, new file has to be created, i understood that map reduce is difficult to write to many outputs??? I understand mapreduce intuition, and my example seems perfectly suited for mapreduce, but when it comes to do this, obviously I do not know enough and i am STUCK! Please please help.

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  • beforeClose not working in jGrowl?

    - by sparkymark75
    I have the following code which pulls json data from an ASP.NET page and displays these as notifications. The code will also take a note of what's been pulled through and store it in an array to prevent it being shown again in the same session. I'm now trying to implement functionality so that when the user closes a message, it's ID is recorded in a cookie to prevent it ever being shown again. To do this, I'm trying to write to the cookie when the beforeClose event fires. Everything else works fine apart from the saving to a cookie bit. Is there something wrong with my code that I'm missing? var alreadyGrowled = new Array(); var noteCookie = $.cookie("notificationsViewed"); if (noteCookie != null) { alreadyGrowled = noteCookie.split(","); } function growlCheckNew() { $.getJSON('getNotifications.aspx', function(data) { $(data).each(function(entryIndex, entry) { var newMessage = true; $(alreadyGrowled).each(function(index, msg_id) { if (entry['ID'] == msg_id) { newMessage = false; } }); if (newMessage == true) { $.jGrowl(entry['Message'], { sticky: true, header: entry['Title'], beforeClose: function(e, m) { $.cookie("notificationsViewed", entry['ID']); } }); } alreadyGrowled.push(entry['ID']); }); }); }

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  • How to show ModelState.AddModelError when the Model is Empty in MVC4

    - by kk1076
    I am displaying a shopping cart. I need to check for empty values in Shopping cart and display a message like "The Shopping Cart is empty". When I use ModelState.AddModelError in myAction, it throws an exception as there is null reference in Model. How to display the ErrorMessage. My Action public ActionResult Index() { string id = Request.QueryString["UserID"]; IList<CartModel> objshop = new List<CartModel>(); objshop = GetCartDetails(id); if (objshop.Count > 0) { return View(objshop.ToList()); } else { ModelState.AddModelError("", "Your Shopping Cart is empty!"); } return View(); } My View @{ @Html.ValidationSummary(true) } <th > @Html.DisplayNameFor(model => model.ProductName) </th> <th > @Html.DisplayNameFor(model => model.Quantity) </th> <th > @Html.DisplayNameFor(model => model.Rate) </th> <th > @Html.DisplayNameFor(model => model.Price) </th> @foreach (var item in Model) { <td> @Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => item.ProductName)</td> <td> @Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => item.Quantity)</td> <td> @Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => item.Rate) </td> <td> @Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => item.Price) </td> } Any suggestions.

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  • JavaScript cookie value can't be retrieved in Django

    - by Boris Rusev
    I am trying to build a web site in both English and Bulgarian using the Django framework. My idea is the user should click on a button, the page will reload and the language will be changed. This is how I am trying to do it: In my html I hava a the button tag <button id='btn' onclick="changeLanguage();" type="button"> ... </button> An excerpt from cookies.js: function changeLanguage() { if (getCookie('language') == 'EN') { document.getElementById('btn').innerHTML = getCookie('language'); setCookie("language", 'BG'); } else { document.getElementById('btn').innerHTML = getCookie('language'); setCookie("language", 'EN'); } } function setCookie(sName, sValue, oExpires, sPath, sDomain, bSecure) { var sCookie = sName + "=" + encodeURIComponent(sValue); if (oExpires) { sCookie += "; expires=" + oExpires.toGMTString(); } if (sPath) { sCookie += "; path=" + sPath; } if (sDomain) { sCookie += "; domain=" + sDomain; } if (bSecure) { sCookie += "; secure"; } document.cookie = sCookie; } And in my views.py file this is the situation @base def index(request): if request.session['language'] == 'EN': return """<b>%s</b>""" % "Home" else request.session['language'] == 'BG': return """<b>%s</b>""" % "??????" So I know that my JS changes the value of the language cookie but I think Django doesn't get that. On the other hand when I set and get the cookie in my Python code again the cookie is set. My question is whether there is a way to make JS and Django work together - JavaScript sets the cookie value and Python only reads it when asked and takes adequate actions? Thank you.

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  • Noob - Cycle through stored names and skip blanks

    - by ActiveJimBob
    NOOB trying to make my code more efficient. On scroll button push, the function 'SetName' stores a number to integer 'iName' which is index against 5 names stored in memory. If a name is not set in memeory, it skips to the next. The code works, but takes up a lot of room. Any advice appreciated. Code: #include <string.h> int iName = 0; int iNewName = 0; BYTE GetName () { return iName; } void SetName (int iNewName) { while (iName != iNewName) { switch (byNewName) { case 1: if (strlen (memory.m_nameA) == 0) new_name++; else iName = iNewName; break; case 2: if (strlen (memory.m_nameB) == 0) new_name++; else iName = iNewName; break; case 3: if (strlen (memory.m_nameC) == 0) new_name++; else iName = iNewName; break; case 4: if (strlen (memory.m_nameD) == 0) new_name++; else iName = iNewName; break; case 5: if (strlen (memory.m_nameE) == 0) new_name++; else iName = iNewName; break; default: iNewName = 1; break; } // end of case } // end of loop } // end of SetName function void main () { while(1) { if (Button_pushed) SetName(GetName+1); } // end of infinite loop } // end of main

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  • Two radically different queries against 4 mil records execute in the same time - one uses brute force.

    - by IanC
    I'm using SQL Server 2008. I have a table with over 3 million records, which is related to another table with a million records. I have spent a few days experimenting with different ways of querying these tables. I have it down to two radically different queries, both of which take 6s to execute on my laptop. The first query uses a brute force method of evaluating possibly likely matches, and removes incorrect matches via aggregate summation calculations. The second gets all possibly likely matches, then removes incorrect matches via an EXCEPT query that uses two dedicated indexes to find the low and high mismatches. Logically, one would expect the brute force to be slow and the indexes one to be fast. Not so. And I have experimented heavily with indexes until I got the best speed. Further, the brute force query doesn't require as many indexes, which means that technically it would yield better overall system performance. Below are the two execution plans. If you can't see them, please let me know and I'll re-post then in landscape orientation / mail them to you. Brute-force query: Index-based exception query: My question is, based on the execution plans, which one look more efficient? I realize that thing may change as my data grows.

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  • A GUID as the MySQL table's Primary Key or as a separate column

    - by Ben
    I have a multi-process program that performs, in a 2 hour period, 5-10 million inserts to a 34GB table within a single Master/Slave MySQL setup (plus an equal number of reads in that period). The table in question has only 5 fields and 3 (single field) indexes. The primary key is auto-incrementing. I am far from a DBA, but the database appears to be crippled during this two hour period. So, I have a couple of general questions. 1) How much bang will I get out of batching these writes into units of 10? Currently, I am writing each insert serially because, after writing, I immediately need to know, in my program, the resulting primary key of each insert. The PK is the only unique field presently and approximating the order of insertion with something like a Datetime field or a multi-column value is not acceptable. If I perform a bulk insert, I won't know these IDs, which is a problem. So, I've been thinking about turning the auto-increment primary key into a GUID and enforcing uniqueness. I've also been kicking around the idea of creating a new column just for the purposes of the GUID. I don't really see the what that achieves though, that the PK approach doesn't already offer. As far as I can tell, the big downside to making the PK a randomly generated number is that the index would take a long time to update on each insert (since insertion order would not be sequential). Is that an acceptable approach for a table that is taking this number of writes? Thanks, Ben

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  • jQuery removing elements from DOM put still reporting as present

    - by RyanP13
    Hi, I have an address finder system whereby a user enters a postcode, if postcode is validated then an address list is returned and displayed, they then select an address line, the list dissappears and then the address line is split further into some form inputs. The issue i am facing is when they have been through the above process then cleared the postcode form field, hit the find address button and the address list re-appears. Event though the list and parent tr have been removed from the DOM it is still reporting it is present as length 1? My code is as follows: jQuery // when postcode validated display box var $addressList = $("div#selectAddress > ul").length; // if address list present show the address list if ($addressList != 0) { $("div#selectAddress").closest("tr").removeClass("hide"); } // address list hidden by default // if coming back to modify details then display address inputs var $customerAddress = $("form#detailsForm input[name*='customerAddress']"); var $addressInputs = $.cookies.get('cpqbAddressInputs'); if ($addressInputs) { if ($addressInputs == 'visible') { $($customerAddress).closest("tr").removeClass("hide"); } } else { $($customerAddress).closest("tr").addClass("hide"); } // Need to change form action URL to call post code web service $("input.findAddress").live('click', function(){ var $postCode = encodeURI($("input#customerPostcode").val()); if ($postCode != "") { var $formAction = "customerAction.do?searchAddress=searchAddress&custpc=" + $postCode; $("form#detailsForm").attr("action", $formAction); } else { alert($addressList);} }); // darker highlight when li is clicked // split address string into corresponding inputs $("div#selectAddress ul li").live('click', function(){ $(this).removeClass("addressHover"); //$("li.addressClick").removeClass("addressClick"); $(this).addClass("addressClick"); var $splitAddress = $(this).text().split(","); $($customerAddress).each(function(){ var $inputCount = $(this).index("form#detailsForm input[name*='customerAddress']"); $(this).val($splitAddress[$inputCount]); }); $($customerAddress).closest("tr").removeClass("hide"); $.cookies.set('cpqbAddressInputs', 'visible'); $(this).closest("tr").fadeOut(250, function() { $(this).remove(); }); });

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  • 'LINQ query plan' horribly inefficient but 'Query Analyser query plan' is perfect for same SQL!

    - by Simon_Weaver
    I have a LINQ to SQL query that generates the following SQL : exec sp_executesql N'SELECT COUNT(*) AS [value] FROM [dbo].[SessionVisit] AS [t0] WHERE ([t0].[VisitedStore] = @p0) AND (NOT ([t0].[Bot] = 1)) AND ([t0].[SessionDate] > @p1)',N'@p0 int,@p1 datetime', @p0=1,@p1='2010-02-15 01:24:00' (This is the actual SQL taken from SQL Profiler on SQL Server 2008.) The query plan generated when I run this SQL from within Query Analyser is perfect. It uses an index containing VisitedStore, Bot, SessionDate. The query returns instantly. However when I run this from C# (with LINQ) a different query plan is used that is so inefficient it doesn't even return in 60 seconds. This query plan is trying to do a key lookup on the clustered primary key which contains a couple million rows. It has no chance of returning. What I just can't understand though is that the EXACT same SQL is being run - either from within LINQ or from within Query Analyser yet the query plan is different. I've ran the two queries many many times and they're now running in isolation from any other queries. The date is DateTime.Now.AddDays(-7), but I've even hardcoded that date to eliminate caching problems. Is there anything i can change in LINQ to SQL to affect the query plan or try to debug this further? I'm very very confused!

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  • Error in Ordinary Differential Equation representation

    - by Priya M
    UPDATE I am trying to find the Lyapunov Exponents given in link LE. I am trying to figure it out and understand it by taking the following eqs for my case. These are a set of ordinary differential equations (these are just for testing how to work with cos and sin as ODE) f(1)=ALPHA*(y-x); f(2)=x*(R-z)-y; f(3) = 10*cos(x); and x=X(1); y=X(2); cos(y)=X(3); f1 means dx/dt;f2 dy/dt and f3 in this case would be -10sinx. However,when expressing as x=X(1);y=X(2);i am unsure how to express for cos.This is just a trial example i was doing so as to know how to work with equations where we have a cos,sin etc terms as a function of another variable. When using ode45 to solve these Eqs [T,Res]=sol(3,@test_eq,@ode45,0,0.01,20,[7 2 100 ],10); it throws the following error ??? Attempted to access (2); index must be a positive integer or logical. Error in ==> Eq at 19 x=X(1); y=X(2); cos(x)=X(3); Is my representation x=X(1); y=X(2); cos(y)=X(3); alright? How to resolve the error? Thank you

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  • MySQL PHP SELECT throwing up an error?

    - by user1909695
    I am trying to make a comment section on my hand made site, using PHP and MySQL. I have got the comments stored in my database, but when I try to SELECT them my site throws up this error, mysql_result() [function.mysql-result]: Unable to jump to row 0 on MySQL result index 9 in /home/a9210109/public_html/comments.php on line 16 My code so far is below <?php $comment = $_POST['comment']; $mysql_host = ""; $mysql_database = ""; $mysql_user = ""; $mysql_password = ""; mysql_connect($mysql_host,$mysql_user,$mysql_password); @mysql_select_db($mysql_database) or die( "Unable to select database"); $CreateTable = "CREATE TABLE comments (comment VARCHAR(255), time VARCHAR(255));"; mysql_query($CreateTable); $UseComment = "INSERT INTO comments VALUES ('$comment')"; mysql_query($UseComment); $SelectComments = "SELECT * FROM comments"; $comments = mysql_query($SelectComments); $num=mysql_numrows($comments); $variable=mysql_result($comments,$i,"comment"); mysql_close(); ?> <a href="#" onclick="toggle_visibility('hidden');">Show/Hide Comments</a> <?php $i=0; while ($i < $num) { $comment=mysql_result($comments,$i,"comment"); echo "<div id='hidden' style='display:none'><h3>$comment</h3></div>"; $i++; } ?>

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  • Telerik RadGrid: grid clientside pagination

    - by ram
    I have a web service which returns me some data,I am massaging this data and using this as datasource for my radgrid (telerik). The datasource is quite large, and would like to paginate it. I found couple of problems when I paginate it in the server side I have to bind the grid again for pagination, which essentially means I have to make a call to WS again to get the data. This is an expensive call for me. I would rather forgo the benefits of pagination and would display all the results in the same page, except for it would be a bit clumsy During the postback RadGrid1.Items.Count happens to be the number of items getting paginated (25- in my case) which is expected as all the items in the datasource are not getting bound. This of course is not an issue. The real issue is that we have some checkboxes which get checked based on some business condition. We add this to our business object/DB later. So if the user has not navigated all the pages, these "checked" items do not get added as pagination limits the "Items" in the grid to those which get bound for that particular page index. My Thoughts: I would rather have some sort of client side pagination, where we can hide/show contents than going to the server and doing a databind every time. Though it will return all the results, the UI will not be clumsy and the grid would have "all the items" during postback Is there a way to do it ? If it were a regular asp.net gridView, can someone point me to a good article which would serve my purpose Ram PS: who else think radgrid is crazy ? (unfortunately I did not make this choice)

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  • C# - Advantages/Disadvantages of different implementations for Comparing Objects

    - by Kevin Crowell
    This questions involves 2 different implementations of essentially the same code. First, using delegate to create a Comparison method that can be used as a parameter when sorting a collection of objects: class Foo { public static Comparison<Foo> BarComparison = delegate(Foo foo1, Foo foo2) { return foo1.Bar.CompareTo(foo2.Bar); }; } I use the above when I want to have a way of sorting a collection of Foo objects in a different way than my CompareTo function offers. For example: List<Foo> fooList = new List<Foo>(); fooList.Sort(BarComparison); Second, using IComparer: public class BarComparer : IComparer<Foo> { public int Compare(Foo foo1, Foo foo2) { return foo1.Bar.CompareTo(foo2.Bar); } } I use the above when I want to do a binary search for a Foo object in a collection of Foo objects. For example: BarComparer comparer = new BarComparer(); List<Foo> fooList = new List<Foo>(); Foo foo = new Foo(); int index = fooList.BinarySearch(foo, comparer); My questions are: What are the advantages and disadvantages of each of these implementations? What are some more ways to take advantage of each of these implementations? Is there a way to combine these implementations in such a way that I do not need to duplicate the code? Can I achieve both a binary search and an alternative collection sort using only 1 of these methods?

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  • Paragraph with normal opacity within greyed-out div

    - by dmr
    I am greying out a web page when a user doesn't have permission to access it. In order to do that, I am placing a div with background-color white and a lowered opacity on top of the web page. I want to write some words in that div with the words having a normal opacity. As of now, the greyed out background is showing correctly. However, I can't seem to get the words to be a regular opacity. The derived styles on Firebug show the opacity on the words as normal, but it clearly isn't. What am I doing wrong? The HTML: <div class="noPermission"> <p>I'm sorry. You do not have permission to access this page.</p> </div> The CSS: div.noPermission { background-color: white; filter:alpha(opacity=50); /* IE */ opacity: 0.5; /* Safari, Opera */ -moz-opacity:0.50; /* FireFox */ z-index: 20; height: 100%; width: 100%; background-repeat:no-repeat; background-position:center; position:absolute; top: 0px; left: 0px; } div.noPermission p{ color: black; margin: 300px auto auto 50px; text-align: left; font-weight: bold; font-size: 18px; display: block; width: 250px; }

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  • NHibernate query against the key field of a dictionary (map)

    - by Carl Raymond
    I have an object model where a Calendar object has an IDictionary<MembershipUser, Perms> called UserPermissions, where MembershipUser is an object, and Perms is a simple enumeration. This is in the mapping file for Calendar as <map name="UserPermissions" table="CalendarUserPermissions" lazy="true" cascade="all"> <key column="CalendarID"/> <index-many-to-many class="MembershipUser" column="UserGUID" /> <element column="Permissions" type="CalendarPermission" not-null="true" /> </map> Now I want to execute a query to find all calendars for which a given user has some permission defined. The permission is irrelevant; I just want a list of the calendars where a given user is present as a key in the UserPermissions dictionary. I have the username property, not a MembershipUser object. How do I build that using QBC (or HQL)? Here's what I've tried: ISession session = SessionManager.CurrentSession; ICriteria calCrit = session.CreateCriteria<Calendar>(); ICriteria userCrit = calCrit.CreateCriteria("UserPermissions.indices"); userCrit.Add(Expression.Eq("Username", username)); return calCrit.List<Calendar>(); This constructed invalid SQL -- the WHERE clause contained WHERE membership1_.Username = @p0 as expected, but the FROM clause didn't include the MemberhipUsers table. Also, I really had to struggle to learn about the .indices notation. I found it by digging through the NHibernate source code, and saw that there's also .elements and some other dotted notations. Where's a reference to the allowed syntax of an association path? I feel like what's above is very close, and just missing something simple.

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  • Is there an easier way to do Classic ASP "relative path"?

    - by Alex.Piechowski
    Right now, I'm having trouble. First of all I have a page, let's call it "http://blah.com/login". That obviously goes strait to "index.asp" A line of Main.asp: <!--#include file="resource/menu.asp"--> Page top includes all of what I need for my menu... so: Part of resource/menu.htm: <div id="colortab" class="ddcolortabs"> <ul> <li><a href="main.asp" title="Main" rel="dropmain"><span>Main</span></a></li> ... </ul> </div> <!--Main drop down menu --> <div id="dropmain" class="dropmenudiv_a"> <a href="main/announcements.asp">Announcements</a> <a href="main/contacts.asp">Contact Information</a> <a href="main/MeetingPlans.asp">Meeting Plan</a> <a href="main/photos.asp">Photo Gallery</a> <a href="main/events.asp">Upcoming Events</a> </div> Let's say I click on the "announcements" (http://blah.com/login/main/announcements.asp) link... Now I'm at the announcements page! But wait, I include the same menu file. Guess what happens: I get sent to "http://blah.com/login/main/main/announcements.asp Which doesn't exist... My solution: Make a menu_sub.asp include for any subpages. But wait a second... this WORKS, but it gets REALLY REALLY messy... What can I do to use just one main "menu.asp" instead of "menu_sub.asp"? using "/main/announcements.asp" WON'T be an option because this is a web application that will be on different directories per server. Any ideas? PLEASE

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  • How to set App as site.com/ in Kohana3

    - by Drew
    Hi all! I've only just started using Kohana ( 3 hours ago), and so far it's blown my socks off (and I'm wearing slippers, so that's quite impressive). Right now, I have a controller 'Controller_FrontPage' with associated views and models and I'm trying to get it accesible from the root of my website (eg, http://www.mysite.com/). If I edit the default controller in the bootstrap from: Route::set('default', '(<controller>(/<action>(/<id>)))') ->defaults(array( 'controller' => 'welcome', 'action' => 'index', )); to 'controller' => '', I get an error, could not find controller_ (which makes sense), and if I change it to 'controller' => '/', I get an error, could not find controller_/ (which also makes sense). If I set 'controller' => 'FrontPage', everything works fine, but all my links (html::anchor(...)) point to http://www.mysite.com/FrontPage/*. Is there a way to have all the anchors point to http://www.mysite.com/*?

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  • .htaccess redirect or rewrite to default language url

    - by Saif Bechan
    I have a website that is currently in Dutch. Now I want to make the website multi-language starting with English. I am not that good at .htaccess files and the information on the web is quite confusing. The website I have now uses pretty urls, so all my urls look like this: http://mydomain.com/about/info http://mydomain.com/about/contact The code that I use for that is the following: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-l RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?rt=$1 [L,QSA] </IfModule> I really do not know what this means, esp the [L,QSA]. But it's ok, it works for now. But now I want to add a default redirect to the code. So it becomes as follow http://mydomain.com becomes http://mydomain.com/nl I assume all my old links http://mydomain.com/about/info will not work anymore, but that is a step I am willing to take. Can someone please help me with this code. I have seen a lot of peaces of code, but I can not find the right one.

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 + Implementation of a IRouteHandler goes not fire

    - by Peter
    Can anybody please help me with this as I have no idea why public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) is not executing. In my Global.asax.cs I have public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); routes.Add("ImageRoutes", new Route("Images/{filename}", new CustomRouteHandler())); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } //CustomRouteHandler implementation is below public class CustomRouteHandler : IRouteHandler { public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { // IF I SET A BREAK POINT HERE IT DOES NOT HIT FOR SOME REASON. string filename = requestContext.RouteData.Values["filename"] as string; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filename)) { // return a 404 HttpHandler here } else { requestContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = GetContentType(requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.ToString()); // find physical path to image here. string filepath = requestContext.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/logo.jpg"); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.WriteFile(filepath); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.End(); } return null; } } Can any body tell me what I'm missing here. Simply public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) does not fire. I havn't change anything in the web.config either. What I'm missing here? Please help.

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  • javascript - rollover effect on overlapping transparent images

    - by user427969
    I want to add rollover effect on overlapping transparent images. For example: The following image is divided into 5 parts and I want to add rollover effect (different image) on each of them When O tried with div or img tag, the image is rendered as a rectangle so rollover effect is not proper. When i rollover on green part between yellow, the yellow image gets highlighted because its z-index is high. Following is the code that I tried: <body> <br /> <img src="part1.png" onclick="console.log('test1');"/> <img src="part2.png" onclick="console.log('test2');" style="position:absolute; left:30px; top: 19px;"/> <img src="part3.png" onclick="console.log('test3');" style="position:absolute; left:70px; top: 15px;"/> <img src="part4.png" onclick="console.log('test4');" style="position:absolute; left:95px; top: 16px;"/> <img src="part5.png" onclick="console.log('test5');" style="position:absolute; left:123px; top: 24px;"/> </body> images = , , , , I don't want to use jQuery, if possible.

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  • PHP static function self:: in joomla JFactory class explanation?

    - by Carbon6
    Hi I'm looking at the code of Joomla and trying to figure out what exactly happends in this function. index.php makes a call to function $app = JFactory::getApplication('site'); jfactory.php code public static function getApplication($id = null, $config = array(), $prefix='J') { if (!self::$application) { jimport('joomla.application.application'); self::$application = JApplication::getInstance($id, $config, $prefix); } return self::$application; } application.php code.. public static function getInstance($client, $config = array(), $prefix = 'J') { static $instances; if (!isset($instances)) { $instances = array(); } ....... more code ........ return $instances[$client]; } Now I cannot figure out in function getApplication why is self:$application used. self::$application = JApplication::getInstance($id, $config, $prefix); $application is always null, what is the purpose of using this approach. I tryied modifying it to $var = JApplication::getInstance($id, $config, $prefix); and returnig it but it doesn't work. I would be very glad if someone with more knowledge could explain what is happening here detailed as possible. Many thanks.

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  • odd nullreference error at foreach when rendering view

    - by giddy
    This error is so weird I Just can't really figure out what is really wrong! In UserController I have public virtual ActionResult Index() { var usersmdl = from u in RepositoryFactory.GetUserRepo().GetAll() select new UserViewModel { ID = u.ID, UserName = u.Username, UserGroupName = u.UserGroupMain.GroupName, BranchName = u.Branch.BranchName, Password = u.Password, Ace = u.ACE, CIF = u.CIF, PF = u.PF }; if (usersmdl != null) { return View(usersmdl.AsEnumerable()); } return View(); } My view is of type @model IEnumerable<UserViewModel> on the top. This is what happens: Where and what exactly IS null!? I create the users from a fake repository with moq. I also wrote unit tests, which pass, to ensure the right amount of mocked users are returned. Maybe someone can point me in the right direction here? Top of the stack trace is : at lambda_method(Closure , User ) at System.Linq.Enumerable.WhereSelectArrayIterator`2.MoveNext() at ASP.Index_cshtml.Execute() Is it something to do with linq here? Tell me If I should include the full stack trace.

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  • Full Text Search like Google

    - by Eduardo
    I would like to implement full-text-search in my off-line (android) application to search the user generated list of notes. I would like it to behave just like Google (since most people are already used to querying to Google) My initial requirements are: Fast: like Google or as fast as possible, having 100000 documents with 200 hundred words each. Searching for two words should only return documents that contain both words (not just one word) (unless the OR operator is used) Case insensitive (aka: normalization): If I have the word 'Hello' and I search for 'hello' it should match. Diacritical mark insensitive: If I have the word 'así' a search for 'asi' should match. In Spanish, many people, incorrectly, either do not put diacritical marks or fail in correctly putting them. Stop word elimination: To not have a huge index meaningless words like 'and', 'the' or 'for' should not be indexed at all. Dictionary substitution (aka: stem words): Similar words should be indexed as one. For example, instances of 'hungrily' and 'hungry' should be replaced with 'hunger'. Phrase search: If I have the text 'Hello world!' a search of '"world hello"' should not match it but a search of '"hello world"' should match. Search all fields (in multifield documents) if no field specified (not just a default field) Auto-completion in search results while typing to give popular searches. (just like Google Suggest) How may I configure a full-text-search engine to behave as much as possible as Google? (I am mostly interested in Open Source, Java and in particular Lucene)

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  • Can the Subversion client (svn) derefence symbolic links as if they were files?

    - by Ryan B. Lynch
    I have a directory on a Linux system that mostly contains symlinks to files on a different filesystem. I'd like to add the directory to a Subversion repository, dereferencing the symlinks in the process (treating them as the files they point to, rather than links). Generally, I'd like to be able to handle any working-copy operations with this behavior, but the 'svn add' command is where it starts, I think. The SVN client utility doesn't appear to have any options related to symlink dereferencing in the working copy. I didn't find any references to this in the manual (http://svnbook.red-bean.com/en/1.5/index.html), either. I found a poster on the SVN users mailing list who asked the same question but never received an answer, here: http://markmail.org/message/ngchfnzlmm43yj7h (That poster ended up using hard links instead of symlinks. That technique is not an option, in my case, because the real underlying files reside on a separate filesystem.) I'm using Subversion v1.6.1 on Fedora 11. For what it's worth, I know that there are alternative tools/techniques that could help approximate this behavior, but which I have to discard for various reasons. I've already considered [and dust-binned] these possibilities: - a "union" mount, merging all of the the directories containing the real files, with the SVN working-copy directory as the "top" layer in the union; - copying/moving the real files to the same filesystem as the SVN working-copy, and using hardlinks instead of symlinks; - non-SVN version control systems. These were all neat ideas, and I'm sure they are good solutions to other problems, but they won't work given the constraints of this environment and situation.

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  • How would I go about sharing variables in a C++ class with Lua?

    - by Nicholas Flynt
    I'm fairly new to Lua, I've been working on trying to implement Lua scripting for logic in a Game Engine I'm putting together. I've had no trouble so far getting Lua up and running through the engine, and I'm able to call Lua functions from C and C functions from Lua. The way the engine works now, each Object class contains a set of variables that the engine can quickly iterate over to draw or process for physics. While game objects all need to access and manipulate these variables in order for the Game Engine itself to see any changes, they are free to create their own variables, a Lua is exceedingly flexible about this so I don't forsee any issues. Anyway, currently the Game Engine side of things are sitting in C land, and I really want them to stay there for performance reasons. So in an ideal world, when spawning a new game object, I'd need to be able to give Lua read/write access to this standard set of variables as part of the Lua object's base class, which its game logic could then proceed to run wild with. So far, I'm keeping two separate tables of objects in place-- Lua spawns a new game object which adds itself to a numerically indexed global table of objects, and then proceeds to call a C++ function, which creates a new GameObject class and registers the Lua index (an int) with the class. So far so good, C++ functions can now see the Lua object and easily perform operations or call functions in Lua land using dostring. What I need to do now is take the C++ variables, part of the GameObject class, and expose them to Lua, and this is where google is failing me. I've encountered a very nice method here which details the process using tags, but I've read that this method is deprecated in favor of metatables. What is the ideal way to accomplish this? Is it worth the hassle of learning how to pass class definitions around using libBind or some equivalent method, or is there a simple way I can just register each variable (once, at spawn time) with the global lua object? What's the "current" best way to do this, as of Lua 5.1.4?

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